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1. Diseases of Ruminants I. > Past Questions 2 > Flashcards

Past Questions 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Most common bacteria in diarrhoeic syndrome of calves?

A

E. coli - enterotoxamic form from 4th day of life

Salmonella dublin - from 2nd week of life, stincky faeces

Clostridium perfringens - enterotoxaemia

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2
Q

Most common bacteria in diarrhoeic syndrome of calves?

A

Rotavirus and Coronavirus

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3
Q

Cryptosporidium in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Subclinical,can become worse if mixed

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4
Q

Maximum fluid for severe dehydration in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

10L

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5
Q

Minimum fluid for diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

3-6L/day

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6
Q

In fluid therapy, can it be mixed with milk?

A

No

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7
Q

Maximum amount of bicarbonate which can be given in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

40g/day

40g more than 8 days
20g if less tham 8 days

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8
Q

Where do you perform fluid therapy for diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Vein (ear vein in calf)
* v. jugularis
* v. auricularis

8,4% NaCHO3 5ml/kg in severe acidosis
5,84% NaCl 10ml/kg in mild acidosis

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9
Q

When do you use antibiotics in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Always, Never (…….)
* Severe sickness, recumbency
* Animals with secondary infection (RS,Navel)
* Sepsis (fever, hypothermia)
* E.coli infection
* Casual therapy

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10
Q

What happens to value of blood urea in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Increases (to 18.5, normal= 2-5.5mmol/l)

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11
Q

When can you give per os rehydration to calf?

A

When suckling reflex presents and strong

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12
Q

Lab findings in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Metabolic acidosis
(Dehydration, hypoglycemia)

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13
Q

Treatment of diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Symptomatic

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14
Q

How many types of BVDV are internationally recognised?

A

2 (Type I and Type II)

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15
Q

When do we treat all animals for BRD (Metaphylaxis)?

A

When 10% of calves have been treated for more than 3 consecutive days and 25% of calves require treatment on a single day

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16
Q

Prophylaxis - definition, when should be given etc.?

A

Definition = Measure taken to maintain health, prevent disease and protect against infection
Given = when ATB are administered to a herd at risk of disease outbreak

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17
Q

Metaphylaxis - definition?

A

Definition = when anti-microbial are administered to clinically healthy animals belonging to same group of animals with CS, Infections treated before clinical appearance.
Based on healthy, ill, vaccinated etc

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18
Q

3 common bacteria of BRD?

A
  1. M. haemolytica
  2. P. multocida
  3. H. somni

Others: A. pyogenes,Chlamydiaceae sp., BHV-1, BRSV, PI-3, BVDV 1+2, Bovine corona virus, adenovirus, IBR, lungworm and Aspergillus

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19
Q

Main predisposing factors to BRD?

A

Age, health status, immunity, stress, environment, epidemiological factors, dehydration

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20
Q

Why must treatment be prompt in BRD?

A

Prevent chronically affected, death etc.
Prevent extensive/irreversible lung damage
Better response to treatment

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21
Q

Predisposing factors of lung anatomy of BRD development?

A

Small lungs/ Smaller mass
Shorter/Smaller tidal volume = Large volume of dead space
Highly segmented with interlobular septa
decreased collateral ventilation>Atelectasis >Hypoxic vasoconstriciton
increased resistance, thick, poorly elastic pleura

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22
Q

3 goals of BRD treatment?

A

Inhibit bacterial growth
modulate inflammatory response,
alter mechanical and functional disorders

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23
Q

Rehydration fluid volume per day?

A

3 x 2L

Same with milk but never mix
wait a few hours between milk and other fluids

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24
Q

Predominant site of diarrhea syndrome in calves?

A

Small intestine

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25
Q

Creatinine in diarrhoea?

A

Light diarrhoea = 95 umol/l (norm = <106)
Severe diarrhoea = increased creatinine (244 umol/l)

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26
Q

Aims of ancillary treatment of BRD?

A
  1. Rapid alleviation of symptoms
  2. Aid repair of damaged lung
  3. Prevent further damage to lung tissue
  4. Improve lung function
  5. Improve immune function
  6. Regulation of body temperature
  7. Stimulation feed intake (minimise economic loss)
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27
Q

Where is the most common location of Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis?

A

Reticulum

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28
Q

What does Hoflund syndrome cause?

A
  1. Obvious abdominal dilatation in L shape
  2. Decreased appetite and defecation
  3. Normal or increased rumen contraction
  4. Progressive apathy
  5. Bradycardia
  6. Dehydration
  7. Enophtalamus
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29
Q

Mineral levels in acute tympany - Free Gas Bloat

A

Decreased Calcium Ca and Magnesium Mg
Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesium

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30
Q

Treatment of oesophageal obstruction?

A

Gastric tube, Endoscopy

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31
Q

Determining different kinds of bloat?

A
  1. Frothy bloat = Ruminal drinking - calves
  2. Free gas bloat = Hypocalcemia
  3. Fluid and Gas bloat = DA
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32
Q

Predisposing factors of tympany?

A

Genetic predisposition

33
Q

Treatment of abomasal displacement?

A

Rumenotomy
LAD = Rolling, toggling, PC abomasopoxy, laparotomy, omentopoxy
RAD = Surgical correction, laparotomy, omentopoxy

34
Q

Rumination contractions/activity of Hoflund syndrome?

A

Normal or Increased

35
Q

Diagnosis of abomasal displacement?

A

Double auscultation

36
Q

Hyperkalaemia in tympany or Hoflund syndrome?

A

Tympany?

37
Q

Predisposition for abomasal displacemant/Aetiology (most common) of abomasal displacement?

A

Ketosis, Ruminal acidosis, retained foetal membranes

38
Q

Tympany caused by inability to?

A

Eructate, swallow or increased salivation

39
Q

Hypersalivation in tympany?

A

Oesophageal obstruction

40
Q

Diagnostics of Frothy Bloat?

A

Gastric tube, USG and auscultation

41
Q

Diagnosis of Bloat?

A
  1. Free gas bloat = Oesophageal passage, trochar
  2. Fluid and gas bloat = DA
  3. Frothy bloat = Silicans
42
Q

Nerve etiology for bloat and clinical picture?

A
  • N. Vagus
  • Cannot eructate
43
Q

Paradoxic aciduria?
In which syndromes can it be seen?

A

Abomasal displacement, Hoflund syndrome (Vagus indigestion - Vagotony), Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP - Hardware disease)

44
Q

Pathogenesis in pasteurellosis/site of infection?

A

Ciliary epithelium

45
Q

Topical treatment of endometritis?

A

Antibiotic
Non-Antibiotic (antiseptic, enzymatic) and hormonal
Absolutely or combination with hormones
Intrauterine (local) application
Parenteral application

(About structure of ATB, status of endometrial wall, applied topically are irritants)

46
Q

Something to do with corpus luteum?

A
  • In pyometra - presence of persistent CL on ovary
  • Diagnosis of endometritis - rectal palpation of uterus (can’t feel structures, USG - CL (100% effective)
  • Hormonal therapy - PF2a (Luteolytic effect), Causes regression of CL
47
Q

Follicular cyst?

A

Thin walled
Lutenized
Estrogen production

48
Q

Fertilization ability of oocytes is normally?

A

90%

49
Q

Embryonic death is the loss of embryo?

A
  • 1-2months of gestation - early embryonic death
  • 1st 42 days of gestation
50
Q

Embryo is most resistan to the action of the teratogens?

A

In first few weeks
?Before implantation?

51
Q

Ovarian cysts are?

A

Dynamic structures larger > 2,5cm, persisting at least 20 days on ovary

52
Q

Interferon (INF-tau) produced by embryo(do in pregnancy)?

A

Stimulates production of proteins from endometrial glands
Signals mother is pregnang, prevent luteolysis

53
Q

Luteal cysts are?

A

Thick - Walled, luteinized, progesterone production

54
Q

Acute puerperal metritis is?

A

Inflammation of uterine myometrium and perimetrium

55
Q

Treatment of cysts?

A

Follicular = GnRH
Luteal = PGF2a
Puerperal cyst treated > 20d post partum

56
Q

Aetiology of endometritis during early postpartum period are also involved these bacteria?

A

E.coli

57
Q

For the diagnosis of endometritis has to be done?

A
  • Anamnestic exam
  • Rectal exam
  • Vaginoscopy
  • USG
  • Histological examination
  • Cytology
  • Bacteriology
58
Q

Infusion of non-antibiotic, antiseptic solutions into the uterus after partus?

A

Irritates the mucosa of endometrium

59
Q

Follicular growth during pregnancy?

A

Continues - diameter of dominant follicles is decreased, because LH pulsativity is decreased during late pregnancy

60
Q

Extreme LH pulses and lack of LH releases is associated with?

A

Development of functional ovarian disorders

61
Q

Blood concentration of IGF-1, insulin and leptin are?

A

Higher in cows with positive energy balance

62
Q

Antiluteolytic strategy includes also:

A

Increased rate of growth of CL
Increased luteal phase progesterone
Increase in anti-lutelytic stimulation by germline unit
Decrease in luteolytic response by matenal unit

63
Q

Which of these agents cause abortion?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

64
Q

Phase of parturition is opening of cervix and swollen vulva?

A

Phase 1

65
Q

Which phase of parturition is the passage of foetus through the pelvic canal?

A

Phase 2

66
Q

Expulsion of the placenta?

A

Phase 3

67
Q

What is abortion?

A

Premature expulsion of foetus from dam and usually occurs cos foetus has died in utero ( or incapable of independent life)

Premature initiation of parturition when normal relationship between foetus and dam failed

68
Q

What happens to the pin bone?

A

Loosing of ligaments

69
Q

What happens if there is no good preparation for delivery?

A

Abnormal or problematic delivery

70
Q

If there is not good preparation for calving?

A

Difficult deliveries,C-sections, Weak calves, Calf scours, poor calf crops

71
Q

Question about pteparation for pregnancy?

A

Migration of immune cells into udder to form colostrum

72
Q

What happens to the udder before parturition… something with minerals?

A

Movement of ATBs from cows bloodstream into udder to form colostrum

73
Q

What hormones does foetus produce for parturition?

A

Cortisol

74
Q

As the fetus approaches full term?

A

Progesterone decline
Estrogen increase

75
Q

Leptin, IL-1 are increased in?

A

Positive energy balance

76
Q

When do teratogens cause the most severe effect?

A

Before implantation, first few weeks, more than 20 days

77
Q

Common bacteria in first stage of pregnancy?

A

E. coli

78
Q

What layers are affected by acute puerperal metritis?

A

Endometrium
Endometrium to stratum spongiosum
Myometrium

79
Q
A

1. Diseases of Ruminants I. (2 decks)

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