Past Questions 2 Flashcards

(79 cards)

1
Q

Most common bacteria in diarrhoeic syndrome of calves?

A

E. coli - enterotoxamic form from 4th day of life

Salmonella dublin - from 2nd week of life, stincky faeces

Clostridium perfringens - enterotoxaemia

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2
Q

Most common bacteria in diarrhoeic syndrome of calves?

A

Rotavirus and Coronavirus

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3
Q

Cryptosporidium in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Subclinical,can become worse if mixed

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4
Q

Maximum fluid for severe dehydration in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

10L

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5
Q

Minimum fluid for diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

3-6L/day

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6
Q

In fluid therapy, can it be mixed with milk?

A

No

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7
Q

Maximum amount of bicarbonate which can be given in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

40g/day

40g more than 8 days
20g if less tham 8 days

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8
Q

Where do you perform fluid therapy for diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Vein (ear vein in calf)
* v. jugularis
* v. auricularis

8,4% NaCHO3 5ml/kg in severe acidosis
5,84% NaCl 10ml/kg in mild acidosis

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9
Q

When do you use antibiotics in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Always, Never (…….)
* Severe sickness, recumbency
* Animals with secondary infection (RS,Navel)
* Sepsis (fever, hypothermia)
* E.coli infection
* Casual therapy

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10
Q

What happens to value of blood urea in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Increases (to 18.5, normal= 2-5.5mmol/l)

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11
Q

When can you give per os rehydration to calf?

A

When suckling reflex presents and strong

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12
Q

Lab findings in diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Metabolic acidosis
(Dehydration, hypoglycemia)

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13
Q

Treatment of diarrhoeic syndrome?

A

Symptomatic

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14
Q

How many types of BVDV are internationally recognised?

A

2 (Type I and Type II)

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15
Q

When do we treat all animals for BRD (Metaphylaxis)?

A

When 10% of calves have been treated for more than 3 consecutive days and 25% of calves require treatment on a single day

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16
Q

Prophylaxis - definition, when should be given etc.?

A

Definition = Measure taken to maintain health, prevent disease and protect against infection
Given = when ATB are administered to a herd at risk of disease outbreak

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17
Q

Metaphylaxis - definition?

A

Definition = when anti-microbial are administered to clinically healthy animals belonging to same group of animals with CS, Infections treated before clinical appearance.
Based on healthy, ill, vaccinated etc

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18
Q

3 common bacteria of BRD?

A
  1. M. haemolytica
  2. P. multocida
  3. H. somni

Others: A. pyogenes,Chlamydiaceae sp., BHV-1, BRSV, PI-3, BVDV 1+2, Bovine corona virus, adenovirus, IBR, lungworm and Aspergillus

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19
Q

Main predisposing factors to BRD?

A

Age, health status, immunity, stress, environment, epidemiological factors, dehydration

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20
Q

Why must treatment be prompt in BRD?

A

Prevent chronically affected, death etc.
Prevent extensive/irreversible lung damage
Better response to treatment

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21
Q

Predisposing factors of lung anatomy of BRD development?

A

Small lungs/ Smaller mass
Shorter/Smaller tidal volume = Large volume of dead space
Highly segmented with interlobular septa
decreased collateral ventilation>Atelectasis >Hypoxic vasoconstriciton
increased resistance, thick, poorly elastic pleura

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22
Q

3 goals of BRD treatment?

A

Inhibit bacterial growth
modulate inflammatory response,
alter mechanical and functional disorders

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23
Q

Rehydration fluid volume per day?

A

3 x 2L

Same with milk but never mix
wait a few hours between milk and other fluids

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24
Q

Predominant site of diarrhea syndrome in calves?

A

Small intestine

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25
Creatinine in diarrhoea?
Light diarrhoea = 95 umol/l (norm = <106) Severe diarrhoea = increased creatinine (244 umol/l)
26
Aims of ancillary treatment of BRD?
1. Rapid alleviation of symptoms 2. Aid repair of damaged lung 3. Prevent further damage to lung tissue 4. Improve lung function 5. Improve immune function 6. Regulation of body temperature 7. Stimulation feed intake (minimise economic loss)
27
Where is the most common location of Traumatic Reticuloperitonitis?
Reticulum
28
What does Hoflund syndrome cause?
1. Obvious abdominal dilatation in L shape 2. Decreased appetite and defecation 3. Normal or increased rumen contraction 4. Progressive apathy 5. Bradycardia 6. Dehydration 7. Enophtalamus
29
Mineral levels in acute tympany - Free Gas Bloat
Decreased Calcium Ca and Magnesium Mg Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesium
30
Treatment of oesophageal obstruction?
Gastric tube, Endoscopy
31
Determining different kinds of bloat?
1. Frothy bloat = Ruminal drinking - calves 2. Free gas bloat = Hypocalcemia 3. Fluid and Gas bloat = DA
32
Predisposing factors of tympany?
Genetic predisposition
33
Treatment of abomasal displacement?
**Rumenotomy** LAD = Rolling, toggling, PC abomasopoxy, laparotomy, omentopoxy RAD = Surgical correction, laparotomy, omentopoxy
34
Rumination contractions/activity of Hoflund syndrome?
Normal or Increased
35
Diagnosis of abomasal displacement?
Double auscultation
36
Hyperkalaemia in tympany or Hoflund syndrome?
Tympany?
37
Predisposition for abomasal displacemant/Aetiology (most common) of abomasal displacement?
**Ketosis**, Ruminal acidosis, retained foetal membranes
38
Tympany caused by inability to?
**Eructate**, swallow or increased salivation
39
Hypersalivation in tympany?
Oesophageal obstruction
40
Diagnostics of Frothy Bloat?
Gastric tube, USG and auscultation
41
Diagnosis of Bloat?
1. Free gas bloat = Oesophageal passage, trochar 2. Fluid and gas bloat = DA 3. Frothy bloat = Silicans
42
Nerve etiology for bloat and clinical picture?
* N. Vagus * Cannot eructate
43
Paradoxic aciduria? In which syndromes can it be seen?
Abomasal displacement, Hoflund syndrome (Vagus indigestion - Vagotony), Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (TRP - Hardware disease)
44
Pathogenesis in pasteurellosis/site of infection?
Ciliary epithelium
45
Topical treatment of endometritis?
Antibiotic Non-Antibiotic (antiseptic, enzymatic) and hormonal Absolutely or combination with hormones Intrauterine (local) application Parenteral application (About structure of ATB, status of endometrial wall, applied topically are irritants)
46
Something to do with corpus luteum?
* In pyometra - presence of persistent CL on ovary * Diagnosis of endometritis - rectal palpation of uterus (can't feel structures, USG - CL (100% effective) * Hormonal therapy - PF2a (Luteolytic effect), Causes regression of CL
47
Follicular cyst?
Thin walled Lutenized Estrogen production
48
Fertilization ability of oocytes is normally?
90%
49
Embryonic death is the loss of embryo?
* 1-2months of gestation - early embryonic death * 1st 42 days of gestation
50
Embryo is most resistan to the action of the teratogens?
In first few weeks ?Before implantation?
51
Ovarian cysts are?
Dynamic structures larger > 2,5cm, persisting at least 20 days on ovary
52
Interferon (INF-tau) produced by embryo(do in pregnancy)?
Stimulates production of proteins from endometrial glands Signals mother is pregnang, prevent luteolysis
53
Luteal cysts are?
Thick - Walled, luteinized, progesterone production
54
Acute puerperal metritis is?
Inflammation of uterine myometrium and perimetrium
55
Treatment of cysts?
Follicular = GnRH Luteal = PGF2a Puerperal cyst treated > 20d post partum
56
Aetiology of endometritis during early postpartum period are also involved these bacteria?
E.coli
57
For the diagnosis of endometritis has to be done?
* Anamnestic exam * Rectal exam * Vaginoscopy * USG * Histological examination * Cytology * Bacteriology
58
Infusion of non-antibiotic, antiseptic solutions into the uterus after partus?
Irritates the mucosa of endometrium
59
Follicular growth during pregnancy?
Continues - diameter of dominant follicles is decreased, because LH pulsativity is decreased during late pregnancy
60
Extreme LH pulses and lack of LH releases is associated with?
Development of functional ovarian disorders
61
Blood concentration of IGF-1, insulin and leptin are?
Higher in cows with positive energy balance
62
Antiluteolytic strategy includes also:
Increased rate of growth of CL Increased luteal phase progesterone Increase in anti-lutelytic stimulation by germline unit Decrease in luteolytic response by matenal unit
63
Which of these agents cause abortion?
Aspergillus fumigatus
64
Phase of parturition is opening of cervix and swollen vulva?
Phase 1
65
Which phase of parturition is the passage of foetus through the pelvic canal?
Phase 2
66
Expulsion of the placenta?
Phase 3
67
What is abortion?
Premature expulsion of foetus from dam and usually occurs cos foetus has died in utero ( or incapable of independent life) Premature initiation of parturition when normal relationship between foetus and dam failed
68
What happens to the pin bone?
Loosing of ligaments
69
What happens if there is no good preparation for delivery?
Abnormal or problematic delivery
70
If there is not good preparation for calving?
Difficult deliveries,C-sections, Weak calves, Calf scours, poor calf crops
71
Question about pteparation for pregnancy?
Migration of immune cells into udder to form colostrum
72
What happens to the udder before parturition... something with minerals?
Movement of ATBs from cows bloodstream into udder to form colostrum
73
What hormones does foetus produce for parturition?
Cortisol
74
As the fetus approaches full term?
Progesterone decline Estrogen increase
75
Leptin, IL-1 are increased in?
Positive energy balance
76
When do teratogens cause the most severe effect?
Before implantation, first few weeks, more than 20 days
77
Common bacteria in first stage of pregnancy?
E. coli
78
What layers are affected by acute puerperal metritis?
Endometrium Endometrium to stratum spongiosum Myometrium
79