Past Q Flashcards
1
Q
True for toxoplasma
a. Cats are the final hosts
b. Pregant women are in high risk
c. It can cause non suppurative meningoencephalitis
d. All answer are correct
A
d. All answers are correct
2
Q
Goitre is
a. Only seen in mammals
b. Always comes with secretory disorder
c. Can be of inflammatory origin
d. A broad, collective term
A
d. A broad, collective term
3
Q
Not a common consequences of dermal ulcer
a. Endocarditis
b. Nephritis
c. Autointoxication
d. Bacteramia
A
c. autointoxication
4
Q
What is Roseola?
a. Tiny pseudomembrane
b. Epithelial proliferation
c. red area/ spot
d. Sediment around the tongue
A
c. red area/spot
5
Q
What is true for bovine popular stomatitis
a. Zoonosis
b. Causes serious symptoms
c. Usually affects older animals
d. Caused by pestivirus
A
a. zoonosis
6
Q
True for blossoming of the pox
a. Only in the abdomen
b. The lesions start to develop in the epithelium
c. It always happens before the infection of the internal organs
d. A consequence of secondary viremia
A
d. a consequence of secondary viremia
7
Q
Which vitamin deficiency could cause neural lesions?
a. D
b. A
c. C
d. B6 deficiency but adequate B5 supply
A
d. B6 deficiency but adequate B5 supply
8
Q
not dysautonomia
a. EGS (Equine grass sickness)
b. key gaskell syndrome
c. ERE
d. simmonds disease
A
d. simmonds disease
9
Q
In which organ system are the autonomous nerves originated tumours well known in dogs?
a. Digestive
b. Respiratory
c. Urogenital
d. Skeletal
A
a. Digestive
10
Q
true for dysautonomia
a. disorders of vegetative nerve system
b. always comes w glia cell proliferation
c. not important in rabbits
d. unknown in horses
A
a. disorders of vegetative nerve system
11
Q
Which cells are responsible primarily for remotion and reparation in the brain?
a. Neurons
b. Pyramidal cells
c. Purkinje cells
d. Glial cells
A
d. Glial cells
12
Q
What is encephalomalacia ?
a. Heamorrhage in the brain
b. Necrosis the brain
c. Inflammation of the brain
d. Swelling of the brain
A
b. Necrosis the brain
13
Q
What is the cause of spongiform encephalopathy?
a. Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain
b. Viruses infecting the brain by neuronal transport
c. Bacteria infecting the brain by neuronal transport
d. Edema caused by SXT2e toxins
A
a. Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the brain
14
Q
what is the primary cell type in meningeal inflammation
a. eosinophil granulocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. neutrophil granulocytes
d. macrophages
A
c. neutrophil granulocytes
15
Q
Which species is usually affected by encephalomyocarditis virus (EMCV)
a. Dog
b. Cat
c. Swine
d. Cattle
A
c. Swine
16
Q
Which species is the source of infection of malignant catarrhal fever of the cattle?
a. Sheep
b. Dog
c. Pig
d. Mouse
A
a. Sheep
17
Q
What is true for rabies?
a. The viraemia is developing after a long incubation time
b. It spreads via the peripheral nerves
c. It causes severe purulent leukoencephalitis
d. All are correct
A
b. It spreads via the peripheral nerves
18
Q
Which statement is true for acute septicemia caused by bacillus anthracis?
a. Causes acute hyperemic splenitis
b. Causes chronic hyperemic splenitis
c. Causes acute hyperplastic splenitis
d. Causes chronic hyperplastic splenitis
A
a. Causes acute hyperemic splenitis
19
Q
true for bacillus anthracis
a. doesnt infect human
b. gr -
c. spore forming
d. coccus
A
c. spore forming
20
Q
True for thyreoid colloide
a. hematoxillin stains it
b. found between follicles
c. eosin stains it vividly
d. amount does not change with age
A
c. eosin stains it vividly
21
Q
hare lip is physiological in this breed
a. gsd
b. afghan greyhound
c. english bulldog
d. rottweiler
A
c. english bulldog
22
Q
fumonisin B1 toxicosis in Su causes
a. purulent hepatitis
b. lung edema
c. leucoencephalomalatia
d. all
A
b. lung edema
23
Q
Which is the most sensitive species to stachybotryotoxicosis ?
a. Chicken
b. Pig
c. Dog
d. Horse
A
d. Horse
24
Q
Which statement is true for stachybotrytoxicosis?
a. The toxins induce epithelial proliferation
b. The local effect of the toxins is necrosis
c. Only the number of leukocytes and thrombocytes decreases
d. The liver is never affected
A
b. The local effect of the toxins is necrosis
25
What statement is true for stachybotrytoxicosis?
a. In horses, necrotic dermatitis typically occurs on lips and nares
b. There is no time for the development of secondary infections
c. There is no mitostatic effect in horses
d. Only the neutrophil count decreases in horses
a. In horses, necrotic dermatitis typically occurs on lips and nares
26
Which statement is true for stachybotryotoxicosis ?
a. In sheep, the only symptom is the loss of wool
b. In sheep, there is no bleeding tendency
c. In pigs, the snout and teats are the predilection sites for necrosis
d. The kidney is not affected at all
c. In pigs, the snout and teats are the predilection sites for necrosis
27
Which statue is true for stachyobotryotoxicosis ?
a. The Staphylococcus aureus septicaemia is a frequent complication in horse
b. In cattle the hemorrhagic nature is well-marked
c. In horses, the hair coat frequently falls out
d. The pig is resistant to the toxin
b. In cattle the hemorrhagic nature is well-marked
28
Which statement is true for lesions caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum?
a. bacteria can penetrate the intact skin and cause lymphohaematogenous metastasis
b. causes necrotic lesions only in certain age groups
c. cause of necrosis is bacterial toxins
d. case of omphalogenic infections, the site of metastasis is usually the lung
c. cause of necrosis is bacterial toxins
29
Which statement is true for the lesions caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum ?
a. In the case of ear, tail chewing it usually produces metastasis in the liver
b. In the case of rumen acidosis it can cause metastasis in the liver
c. I can only infect the lung via haematogenous route
d. Metritis caused by the bacteria tends to heal
b. In the case of rumen acidosis it can cause metastasis in the liver
30
How do we call the abnormal facial fissures with only soft tissue involvement?
a. Cheiloschisis
b. Cheliognathoschisis
c. Brachygnatha
d. Prognatha
a. Cheiloschisis
31
Why are newborn lambs sensitive for Clostridium perfringens B infection?
a. The beta toxin is sensitive for tripsin
b. Newborn animals produce small amounts of tripsin
c. The are tripsin inhibitors in the colostrum
d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
32
What is the causative agent of lamb dysentery?
a. Clostridium perfringens A
b. Clostridium perfringens B
c. Clostridium perfringens C
d. Clostridium perfringens D
b. Clostridium perfringens B
33
Which process can lead to hemorrhages on the epicardium?
a. Septicemia
b. Suffocation
c. Toxicosis
d. All of them
d. All of them
34
How do we call the peripheral neuropathy when both the nerve and the sheath are damaged ?
a. Neuropathia
b. Neuronopathia
c. Myelinopathia
d. Axonopathia
b. Neuronopathia
35
Actual cause of edema in oedema disease
a. stx2e toxemia
b. septicemia caused by invasive e coli strains
c. protein losing enteropathy
d. all
a. stx2e toxemia
36
What kind of virus can cause enamel hypoplasia in dogs?
a. canine distemper v
b. canine parvo v
c. canine herpes v
d. canine retro v
a. canine distemper v
37
This species has brachydont teeth
a. dog
b. eq
c. goat
d. bo
a. dog
38
In case of canine distemper the inclusion bodies are
a. Basophilic
b. Eosinophilic
c. Heterophilic
d. Metachromatic
b. Eosinophilic
39
what is the cause of canine distemper
a. morbilliv
b. lyssav
c. adenov
d. herpesv
a. morbilliv
40
In general the absence of counterpressure on the teeth leads to this?
a. Saw mouth
b. Exusperantia dentis
c. Shear mouth
d. Dorsal curvature/frown
b. Exusperantia dentis
41
Kind of abnormal incisor wear can appear in case of prognathia inferior
a. saw mouth
b. exsuperantia dentis
c. shear mouth
d. D curvature/frown
d. D curvature/frown
42
Exclusively side to side movement of jaw can lead to this
a. saw mouth
b. exsuperantia dentis
c. shear mouth
d. dorsalis curvature/frown
a. saw mouth
43
What kind of abnormal wearing can appear, if the animal doesn’t chew on one side?
a. Saw mouth
b. Exsuperentia dentis
c. shear mouth
d. Dorsal curvature/ frown
c. shear mouth
44
What is the relevance of the developmental anomalies of teeth?
a. Never cause severe consequence
b. The number of teeth is always fix
c. If severe enough it can cause the animal not to eat
d. We can always solve it with extraction
c. If severe enough it can cause the animal not to eat
45
Which condition leads to the “rubber jaw”?
a. Osteomalatia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Fibrous osteodystrophy
d. Rickets
c. Fibrous osteodystrophy
46
What condition leads to rubber jaw?
a. Bacterial infections
b. Enteritis
c. Renal failure
d. Heart failure
c. Renal failure
47
What is bone usuration?
a. A regressive change
b. A proliferative change
c. An inflammatory change
d. A bone tumor
a. A regressive change
48
What can be seen in case of chondrodystrophia fetalis
a. extreme longitudinal growth of bones
b. hindered longitudinal growth of bones
c. abnormal cartilage production
d. abnormal ossification of the bones
b. hindered longitudinal growth of bones
49
What exactly is the rickets
a. reconstruction of bones
b. disturbed mineralization
c. result of hyperparathyroidism
d. disturbance of bone tissue destruction
b. disturbed mineralization
50
Which pathogen can cause rarefier and ossifying osteitis?
a. TB
b. actinomycosis
c. glanders
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
51
In which bones do we check of rickets in mammals
a. distal epiphysis of tibia
b. prox epiphysis of tibia
c. distal epiphysis of femur
d. prox epiphysis of femur
c. distal epiphysis of femur
52
How does osteitis develop?
a. From the blood vessels of the compact bone
b. Either from the periosteum or from the bone marrow
c. Through a trauma to the bone
d. None of the above
b. Either from the periosteum or from the bone marrow
53
What exactly is the bone transformation?
a. The reconstruction of bones
b. The disturbance of mineralizeation
c. Result of hyperparathyroidism
d. The disturbance of bone tissue destruction
a. The reconstruction of bones
54
```
Which kind of developmental abnormality is seen in the central nervous system due to intrauterine BVDV
infection?
a. Spina bifida
b. Cerebellar hypoplasia
c. Meningoencephalokele
d. Cholesterol granuloma formation
```
b. Cerebellar hypoplasia
55
true for BVD
a. only affects Bo
b. every v strain is equally virulent
c. can cause transplacental inf
d. v belongs to picornaviridae
c. can cause transplacental inf
56
True for developmental anomalies of BVD
a. cerebral hypoplasia is quite common
b. congenital hydrocephalus doesnt cause skull enlargement
c. ankylosis can appear
d. bones of skull are never affected
c. ankylosis can appear
57
What is mucosal disease ?
a. A mild form of BVD infection
b. Actinobacillosis of the tongue
c. Lethal infection caused by BVD infection
d. Erosions in the oral mucous membrane caused by stachybotryotoxin exposure
c. Lethal infection caused by BVD infection
58
What is true for mucosal disease?
a. It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by cytopathic strains
b. The mortality is low
c. It causes catarrhal enteritis
d. It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by non-cytopathic strains
a. It appears when immunotolerant calves are superinfected by cytopathic strains
59
Which one is true for gestational BVD infection?
a. It is very rare
b. Cytopathic strains can cause immunetolerance if they infect 180 days after fertilization
c. The pregnant cow is always asymptomatic
d. Non-cytopathic can hurt the embrio as well
d. Non-cytopathic can hurt the embrio as well
60
Which one is true for the primary infection of calves with BVD?
a. The classic sign is ataxia
b. The non-cytopathic strains cause immunosuppression as well
c. The cytopathic strains can only be related to gastrointestinal symptoms
d. Secondary infections are not relevant
b. The non-cytopathic strains cause immunosuppression as well
61
Which statement is true for necrotizing enteritis of piglets?
a. lesions are in LI
b. caused by Cl Perf B
c. animals lose weight slowly and fail to thrive
d. affects 1-2 week old piglets
d. affects 1-2 week old piglets
62
How do necrotizing enteritis of piglets look like during necropsy?
a. Lesions are seen in the colon
b. There is severe hepatitis
c. The intestinal mucosa is almost black
d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the small intestine
d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the small intestine
63
How does necrotizing enteritis of piglets look like during necropsy?
a. The intestinal lesions start with a sharp margin
b. The mucosal surface is yellowish
c. The lesions are visible from the serosal surface
d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
64
Primary lesions in Porcine Proliferative Enteropathy (PPE)
a. cecum
b. duodenum
c. rectum
d. ileum
d. ileum
65
True for actinobacillosis
a. obligate pathogen
b. pathogens are inhaled to the deepest airways
c. causes septicemia
d. pathogen needs a port of entry in oral mucosa
d. pathogen needs a port of entry in oral mucosa
66
What is the basic histopathological lesion in the case of actinobacillosis?
a. Tophus
b. Pyogranuloma
c. Tuberculum
d. Foreign body type granuloma
b. Pyogranuloma
67
Which statement is true for the lesions caused by Actinobacillus lignieresi?
a. It usually affects the soft tissues
b. The macrophages are the only dominant cell types in the nodules caused by it
c. The actinobacilloma is a tumour originating from the lesions
d. The most severe connective tissue proliferation occurs during the abscess formation
a. It usually affects the soft tissues
68
Which statement is true for Actinobacillus ligniersi?
a. It only infects pigs
b. Changing of teeth predisposes to disease caused by it
c. It is not part of the normal oral flora
d. It can penetrate to the deep tissues across the intact mucous membrane
b. Changing of teeth predisposes to disease caused by it
69
Which is true for the lesions caused by Actinobacillus lignieresi?
a. It usually affects the soft tissues
b. The macrophages are the only dominant cell types found in the nodules caused by it
c. The actinobacilloma is a tumour originating from the lesions
d. The most severe connective tissue proliferation occurs during the abscess formation
a. It usually affects the soft tissues
70
How to differentiate Classical and African Swine Fever during necropsy?
a. location of lesions
b. extent of bleeding
c. intestine involvement
d. cannot be differentiated during necropsy
d. cannot be differentiated during necropsy
71
How long for cell poor granulation tissue to develop
a. 1 week
b. 2 week (10-14days)
c. min 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks
b. 2 week (10-14days)
72
What lesion can be caused by hepatic cirrhosis?
a. Ascites
b. Pericariditis
c. Mesotheliona
d. Compression of the ductus thoracicus
a. Ascites
73
What leads to fatty liver syndrome in Bo?
a. positive energy balance of food
b. Vit A def
c. lack of carbohydrates
d. Pregnancy
c. lack of carbohydrates
74
How does the liver look in case of fatty liver syndrome in cattle?
a. Enlarged, yellow and fibrotic
b. Enlarged, yellow and fragile
c. Smaller, yellow and fibrotic
d. Smaller, yellow and fragile
b. Enlarged, yellow and fragile
75
which pathogens induce hepatosis dietetica in Su
a. infectious agents
b. nutritional problems
c. mycotoxins
d. hereditary factors
b. nutritional problems
76
In case of peracute hepatosis dietetica in pigs the liver . . .
a. Small and firmer
b. Enlarged and mottled
c. Shows cirrhosis
d. Yellow and fragile
b. Enlarged and mottled
77
What other lesions can be seen in case of hepatosis dietetica in pigs ?
a. Encephalomalatia
b. Meningitis
c. Ascites
d. Bronchopneumonia
c. Ascites
78
the bile duct coccidiosis
a. is a disease of hare
b. results in chronic purulent cholangitis
c. causes atrophy of bile duct epithelial cells
d. induces liver carcinoma
b. results in chronic purulent cholangitis
79
What are the negri bodies?
a. Degenerating hepatocytes
b. Apoptopic lymphoid cells
c. Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuron during rabies
d. Degenerationg neurons that are being phagocytosed by glial cells
c. Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in the neuron during rabies
80
What is the latin name of the inflammation of the rumen?
a. Ruminitis
b. Reticulitis
c. Omasitis
d. Abomasitis
a. Ruminitis
81
What is the “bradzot”?
a. Accute catarrhal gastritis
b. Stomach ulceration of pigs
c. Abnormal content of forestomachs
d. Malignant edema of abomasum
d. Malignant edema of abomasum
82
What type of exudatve inflammation does NOT develop in the forestomachs?
a. Serous
b. Catharral
c. Purulent
d. Haemorrhagic
b. Catharral
83
Which causes the death of the animal after dilation of the forestomachs ?
a. Rupture of the forestomachs
b. Suffocation
c. Shock
d. Obstruction of the orifices of the forestomachs.
b. Suffocation
84
What is the consequence of vitamin A deficiency in the forestomachs?
a. Inflammation
b. Foamy bloat
c. Hyper- and parakeratosis
d. Atony
c. Hyper- and parakeratosis
85
What is the common consequence of the deep inflammation in the forestomachs?
a. Circumscribed peritonitis
b. Reticulitis
c. Septicaemia
d. Liver abscessation
d. Liver abscessation
86
What kind of peritonitis can lead to autointoxication
a. acute circumscribed
b. chronic circumscribed
c. acute diffuse
d. chronic diffuse
c. acute diffuse
87
What is typical for necrobiotic/macrovesicular fatty infil of liver?
a. accum of fat droplets and nuclear changes
b. reduced glycogen and degeneration
c. activation of MPS system
d. fatty degeneration w/o nuclear changes
a. accum of fat droplets and nuclear changes
88
In which species does the stomach torsion occur frequently
a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Horse
d. Rabbit
b. Dog
89
In which area of the stomach do ulcers frequently occur in dogs?
a. Pars oesophagia
b. Cardia
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus
d. Pylorus
90
which layer of stomach ruptures first?
a. serous membrane
b. muscle layer
c. mucus membrane
d. supplying blood vessels
b. muscle layer
91
Which layer of the stomach ruptures last?
a. Serous membrane
b. Muscle layer
c. Mucous membrane
d. Supplying blood vessels
c. Mucous membrane
92
What is the primary site of stomach rupture?
a. At the cardia
b. Along the small curvature
c. Along the large curvature
d. At the pylorus
c. Along the large curvature
93
Osteodystrophia fibrosa results in
a. Dyspnoe
b. Scoliosis
c. Rickets
d. Renal failure
a. dyspnoe
94
Which disease can be accompanied by osteodystrophia fibrosa ?
a. Chronic lung disease
b. Chronic renal insufficiency
c. Chronic enteritis
d. Hepatic tumor
b. Chronic renal insufficiency
95
Where does the osteodystrophia fibrosa frequently occur ?
a. In the long bones
b. In the vertebrae
c. In the facial bones
d. Anywhere in the skeletal system
c. In the facial bones
96
Osteomalatia, osteoporosis and osteodystrophia fibrosa are
a. Inflammatory changes of the bones
b. Diseases of young animals
c. Osteopathies
d. None of the above
c. Osteopathies
97
What kind of disease is formed by Erysipelax rhusiopathiae in pigs?
a. Acute septicemic erysipelas
b. Diamond skin disease
c. Chronic erysipelas
d. All of them
d. All of them
98
True for swine erysipelas
a. Every case and every stage has dermal lesions
b. It has a viral origin
c. In acute case deep rhomboid ulcers form on the skin – diamond skin disease
d. In acute case thin reddish brown squares can be seen on the skin – diamond skin disease
a. Every case and every stage has dermal lesions
99
What are the main characteristics of the salmonella cholerasuis septicaemia?
a. Affects newborn piglets only
b. the clinical signs are mild
c. High fever is typical
d. It causes rectal stricture due to chronic proctitis
c. High fever is typical
100
Causative agent of aujeszky disease
a. suid herpesvirus 1
b. porcine repro and resp v
c. atypical porcine pestiv
d. porcine teschov
a. suid herpesvirus 1
101
What is the outcome of suid herpes virus 1 infection in dogs?
a. Inapparent infection
b. Dogs are not susceptible
c. Kennel cough
d. CNS symptoms and death
d. CNS symptoms and death
102
Characteristic lesions in case of classical swine fever?
a. Bleedings in the intestinal mucosa
b. Haemorrhagic infiltration in the lymph nodes
c. Non suppurative encephalitis
d. All above are correct
d. All above are correct
103
How is ASF speading through Europe now
a. infected soft ticks
b. contaminated food and infected wild boars
c. infected semen transport
d. mosquitos
b. contaminated food and infected wild boars
104
What is characteristic for salt poisoning in pigs?
a. Eosinophilic perivasculitis in the brain
b. Edema in the brain
c. GI inflammation
d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
105
Which statement is true for swine erysipelas ?
a. There is urticaria in diamond skin disease
b. In diamond skin disease the spleen is enlarged
c. There are no skin lesions in chronic form
d. In chronic form, endocardiosis is a freqeunt lesion
a. There is urticaria in diamond skin disease
106
What is true for paratuberculosis
a. It is caused by mycobacterium bovis
b. It is an acute disease leading to sudden death
c. It is causing respiratory problems due to tubercule formation in the lungs
d. The disease has a long latency period after infection
d. The disease has a long latency period after infection
107
What is true for swine typhus/typhoid?
a. It is an acute infection with severe clinical signs
b. It is present world wide
c. The pathogen needs predisposing factors for the development of the disease
d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the parenchymatous organs
d. Necrotic lesions are seen in the parenchymatous organs
108
What is true for swine typhus/typhoid?
a. It is a localised disease of the large intestine
b. Lesions can only be found in the spleen
c. Pigs show severe acute symptoms of septicaemia and die quickly
d. Lesions spread through episodes of bacteraemia
d. Lesions spread through episodes of bacteraemia
109
Which enteric disease causes mesenteric lymph node enlargement in pigs?
a. ETEC infection
b. Salmonella thyphimurium
c. Lawsonia intracellularis
d. Brachyspira hyodisenteriae infection
b. Salmonella thyphimurium
110
True for swine parakeratosis dietetica
a. only skin can have lesions
b. zn deficiency is the cause
c. dermal glands function normally
d. starts on the head
b. zn deficiency is the cause
111
Which following disease can cause lesions in the LI of pigs?
a. Swine dysentery
b. Salmonella typhimurium infection
c. CSF
d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
112
What is the etiological agent of swine dysentery?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella typhisuis
c. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
d. Clostridium perfringens D
c. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
113
What is the causative agent of swine dysentery?
a. Brachyspira pilosicoli
b. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
c. Brachyspira innocens
d. Brachyspira suanatina
b. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
114
Which of the following is true?
a. The causative agent of swine dysentery cannot be demonstrated by histopathological
techniques
b. Dysentery strands are diffuse subacute catarrhal colitis
c. In case of swine dysentery mucosal necrosis can be observed
d. In case of swine dysentery in the wall of the intestine granuloma formation
c. In case of swine dysentery mucosal necrosis can be observed
115
What is the difference between the lesions seen in salmonella enterocolitis and swine dysentery?
a. The involvement of the mesenterical lymph nodes
b. The site of the primary lesion
c. Necrotic inflammation of the affected intestine
d. Signs of diarrhea
a. The involvement of the mesenterical lymph nodes
116
What is true for salmonella enterocolitis?
a. The lesions are seen mosly in the duodenum and jejunum
b. It is characterized by villus clubbing, villus fusion and epithelial denudation
c. It is the result of umibilcal infection
d. The mesenterical lymphnodes are enlarged
d. The mesenterical lymphnodes are enlarged
117
What is true for the Salmonella enterocolitis ?
a. It is a subclinical infection
b. The lymph nodes are not affected
c. The lesions are mostly fibrinonecrotic and ulcerative
d. In affected animals lesions are only seen in the ileum and colon
c. The lesions are mostly fibrinonecrotic and ulcerative
118
Which statement is true for streptococcus infection of piglets
a. caused by obligate pathogens
b. mainly caused by streptococcus suis
c. mainly caused by streptococcus suis ssp zooepidemicus
d. mostly affects older animals
b. mainly caused by streptococcus suis
119
Which statement is true for streptococcus infection of piglets?
a. The chronic septicemic form goes with hyperplastic splenitis
b. Doesn’t cause lesions in the respiratory tract
c. Doesn’t cause lesions in the meninges
d. Mostly affects older animals
a. The chronic septicemic form goes with hyperplastic splenitis
120
What is the causative agent of necrotic enteritis of piglets ?
a. Clostridium perfringens A
b. Clostridium perfringens B
c. Clostridium perfringens C
d. Clostridium perfringens D
c. Clostridium perfringens C
121
Why are new-born piglets sensitive for Clostridium perfringens C infection?
a. The beta toxin is sensitive for trypsin
b. Newborn animals produce small amounts of trypsin
c. All are the trypsin inhibitors in the colostrum
d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
122
What is the actual cause of diarrhoea in neonatal ETEC infection of piglets?
a. severe inflammation of the small intestine
b. Invagination of the intestine
c. Malfunction of the enterocytes
d. Torsion of the small intestine
c. Malfunction of the enterocytes
123
TRUE for myxoedema in piglets and lambs
a. The mothers have goitre
b. Selenium deficiency is the cause
c. Goitre is developing in new-borns
d. Sporadic occurrence within the flock
c. Goitre is developing in new-borns
124
Which enteric disease causes mesenteric lymph node enlargement in pigs?
a. ETEC infection
b. Salmonelle Typhimurium enterocolitis
c. Lawsonia intracellularis enteropathy
d. Brachyspira hyodystenteriae infection
b. Salmonelle Typhimurium enterocolitis
125
In which area of the stomach the ulcers frequently occur in pigs?
a. Pars oesophagica
b. Cardia
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus
a. Pars oesophagica
126
What can cause eosinophil granulocytic myocarditis
a. Parvovirus
b. Toxocara larvae
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Clostrium chauvoei
b. Toxocara larvae
127
What can cause lympho-hystiocytic myocarditis?
a. Parvo
b. Toxocara larvae
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Clostridium chauvoei
a. parvo
128
What is true for the lesions of the head in foot and mouth disease?
a. They are always some lesions around the ear
b. The conjunctiva is usually intact
c. Lesions are rare on the tongue
d. The oesophagus and nasal mucosa can be affected aswell
d. The oesophagus and nasal mucosa can be affected aswell
129
What is true for myocardial necrosis caused by foot and mouth disease?
a. Only occurs in older animals
b. Is diffuse in calves
c. Only occurs in calves
d. Doesn’t affect the heart
b. Is diffuse in calves
130
What are the predilection sites for vesicular dermatitis in foot and mouth disease?
a. Coronary bands and teat
b. Tail and back
c. Stomach and neck
d. Ears
a. Coronary bands and teat
131
What kind of structures will become erosions in foot and mouth disease?
a. Papula
b. Erythema
c. Macula
d. Vesicular
d. Vesicular
132
What is true for erosion?
a. Trauma is obligatory for it
b. There are always degenerative changes in the subcutis
c. It can’t develop from a papula
d. Vesicles often precede it
d. Vesicles often precede it
133
FALSE procedure, if during the examination of a small ruminant you find circumscribed inflammatory
lesions in the mouth
a. Only prescribe antibiotics for the animals
b. Report the finding to authorities (state vet office)
c. In case of mortality send samples to laboratory immediately
d. Before visiting the next farm disinfect equipment, hands, shoes and clothes
a. Only prescribe antibiotics for the animals
134
The virus of foot and mouth disease does not infect this species
a. Goat
b. Cattle
c. Horse
d. Pig
c. Horse
135
What can cause necrotic myocarditis
a. parvo v
b. toxocara larvae
c. fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Clostridium chauvoei
c. fusobacterium necrophorum
136
Which statement is true for myocarditis?
a. Always visible macroscopically
b. Infectious causes are rare
c. Causes pale areas in the heart
d. Always leads to serious consequences
c. Causes pale areas in the heart
137
Which one is a primary lesion in tetralogy of fallot
a. pulmonary stenosis
b. aortic stenosis
c. RV hypertrophy
d. LV hypertrophy
a. pulmonary stenosis
138
Where can we find the patent ductus arteriosus?
a. Between the aorta and vena cava
b. Between the vena cava and the vena portae
c. Between the pulmonary artery and aorta
d. Between the pumonary artery and vena cava
c. Between the pulmonary artery and aorta
139
What kind of anomlay a supernumerary valve is?
a. Endocaritis
b. Endocardiosis
c. Valvular dysplasia
d. Valvular polyploidy
d. Valvular polyploidy
140
vascular anomaly ligates esophagus
a. dextroposition of aortic arch
b. sinistroposition of aortic arch
c. dorsoposition of aortic arch
d. ventroposition of aortic arch
a. dextroposition of aortic arch
141
Subaortic stenosis can lead to
a. concentric LV hypertrophy
b. eccentric LV hypertrophy
c. concentric RV hypertrophy
d. eccentric RV hypertrophy
a. concentric LV hypertrophy
142
Hemangiosarcoma can lead to this kind of lesion
a. hydropericardium
b. hemopericardium
c. aortic rupture
d. Pyopericardium
b. hemopericardium
143
Which can cause fibrinous pericarditis in cattle?
a. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis
b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia infection
c. Coxielle burnetti infection
d. Bordatella bronchiseptica infection
a. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis
144
which can cause exogenous hemolytic anemia in dogs
a. malaria
b. plasmodiodosis
c. mycoplasma suis
d. babesia species
d. babesia species
145
Which statement is true for haemotropic mycoplasma?
a. live in RBCs
b. only relevant in su
c. can cause icterus
d. mycoplasma cati occurs in cats
c. can cause icterus
146
Which statement is true for pneumothorax?
a. Always caused by trauma
b. The lung expands because of it
c. Leads to the compression of the blood vessels and heart
d. Always leads to death
c. Leads to the compression of the blood vessels and heart
147
What kind of pleuritis is caused by Trueperella pyogenes ?
a. Serous
b. Serous- Fibrinous
c. Purulent
d. Ichorous
c. Purulent
148
Which kind of pleuritis can be caused by traumatic reticuloperitonitis ?
a. Serous
b. Purulent
c. Hemorrhagic
d. Ichorous
d. Ichorous
149
What can be the consequence of pleuritis ?
a. Lung atelectasis
b. Circulatory disturbance
c. Autointoxication
d. All of them
d. All of them
