Past Q 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is true for interstitial pneumonia?

a. It always affects the cranioventral lobes
b. It always affectes the caudodorsal lobes
c. The affected area has a liver like texture
d. It can be caused by viral infections

A

d. It can be caused by viral infections

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2
Q

Which pneumonia type in a bronchopneumonia?

a. Embolic metastasis
b. Interstitial
c. Granulomatous
d. Krupous

A

d. Krupous

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3
Q

Which pneumonia type in bronchopneumonia?

a. Purulent hepatitis
b. Catarrhal
c. Fibrinous
d. All answer are correct

A

d. All answer are correct

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4
Q

How to recognize catarrhal bronchopneumonia during necropsy?

a. CV location, greyish red color, glandular like textures, mucopurulent content on cut surface
b. CV location, greyish red color, liver like textures, dry cut surface
c. Dorsal areas affected, firm textures, sever crepitation upon incision
d. all answers are correct

A

a. CV location, greyish red color, glandular like textures, mucopurulent content on cut surface

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5
Q

which pneum type in a bronchopneumonia

a. embolic metastasis
b. catarrhal
c. granulomatous
d. interstitial

A

b. catarrhal

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6
Q

Which is true for metastatic embolic pneumonia?

a. The pathogen is disturbed via the circulation
b. Multiple nodules are seen in the lungs
c. The nodules are distributed randomly in the lungs
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

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7
Q

How do you recognize aspiration pneumonia during necropsy?

a. It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria
b. The lesion is affecting all the lobes equally
c. The affected area becomes paler
d. Multifocal nodules are found all over in the lung tissue

A

a. It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria

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8
Q

What is bronchiectasia ?

a. Lack of air in the bronchi
b. Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen
c. Inflammation of the bronchial wall
d. Calcification of the bronchial wall due to tuberculosis

A

b. Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen

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9
Q

How do you recognize atelectasis during necropsy?

a. affected area is swollen
b. affected area in paler
c. affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. all answers are correct

A

c. affected area does not crepitate upon incision

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10
Q

What can be the cause of pulmonary atelectasis?

a. Obstructive bronchiolitis
b. Pneumothorax
c. Hydrothorax
d. All answer are correct

A

d. all answers are correct

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11
Q

In which species can interstitial emphysema be observed more frequently?

a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Cat
d. Horse

A

a. Cattle

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12
Q

How do you recognize alveolar emphysema?

a. The affected area is shrunken
b. The affected area is paler
c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. All answers are correct

A

b. The affected area is paler

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13
Q

What can be the consequences of broncholitis?

a. Atelectasis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. All answer are correct

A

d. All answer are correct

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14
Q

Which one of the following microbes is involved in atrophic rhinitis of Su

a. Pasteurella dagmatis
b. Bordetella bronchiseptica
c. porcine cytomegalovirus
d. actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

b. Bordetella bronchiseptica

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15
Q

true for listeria monocytogenes infection of Ru

a. causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
b. causes severe endocarditis thromboulcerosa
c. reaches brain via n trigeminus
d. all above

A

c. reaches brain via n trigeminus

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16
Q

Which statement is true for leptospirosis?

a. Does not cause renal damage
b. Doesn’t affect humans
c. The pathogens are shed in the feces
d. Can cause abortion

A

d. Can cause abortion

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17
Q

In which case can the tubular epithelial cells regenerate?

a. If the basement membrane is intact
b. If there are enough cells for replacement
c. If the cause is removed
d. All three is needed

A

d. All three is needed

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18
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of the Cloisonné disease in goat ?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

c. Hemosiderin

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19
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of Wesselbron disease?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

d. Bilirubin

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20
Q

How long does it take for the complete regeneration of the tubular epithelial cells?

a. 3 days
b. 7-14 days
c. 21-56 days
d. They cannot regenerate

A

c. 21-56 days

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21
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells after the monday morning disease?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

b. Myoglobin

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22
Q

hematogenous nephritis is

a. ascending
b. descending
c. same as urinogenic
d. always GN

A

b. descending

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23
Q

What are the histological features in case of chronic interstitial nephritis

a. Infiltration by neutrophil granulocytes
b. Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells
c. Infiltration by langhans type giant cells
d. All these cell types are present

A

b. infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells

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24
Q

Which one is a form of glomerulonephrosis ?

a. Glomerulus amyloidosis
b. Glomerulus lipidosis
c. Glomerulosclerosis
d. All three of them

A

d. All three of them

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25
What is true for pulpy kidney disease of sheep and goat? a. The toxin absorbed from the intestine can damage the tubular epithelial cells b. Hypomotility of the intestine causes clostridial overgrowth c. The E-toxin produced by the bacterium is activated by trypsin d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
26
Which organs are damaged during a Clostridium perfingens D entertoxaemia of sheep a. Heart b. Kidney c. Brain d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
27
What is a frequent predisposing factor in Clostridial enterotoxaemias? a. Sudden change in the weather b. Overeating c. Viral pneumonias d. Subsequent Salmonella infection
b. Overeating
28
What is the causative agent of pulpy kidney disease? a. Clostridium perfringens A b. Clostridium perfringens B c. Clostridium perfringens C d. Clostridium perfringens D
d. Clostridium perfringens D
29
What is the consequence of the ischaemic infarct in the kidney? a. Necrobiosis and regeneration b. Necrosis and organisation c. Fatty infiltration d. Histiocyte proliferation
b. Necrosis and organisation
30
What are the consequences of Ca-oxalate poisoning ? a. Tubulonephrosis b. Hypocalcaemia c. Mechanical trauma of the tubular epithelial cells d. All three can occur
d. All three can occur
31
What does a porcine circovirus 2 (PCVS) infection cause in the kidneys? a. Exudative glomerulonepthritis b. Proliferative glomerulonephritis c. Interstitial nephritis d. Suppurative nephritis
c. Interstitial nephritis
32
In which case can the tubular epithelial cells regenerate a. If the basement membrane is intact b. If there are enough cells for replacement c. If the cause is removed d. All three is needed
d. All three is needed
33
What are the consequences of Ca-oxalate poisoning? a. Tubulonephrosis b. Hypocalcemia c. Mechanical trauma of the tubular epithelial cells d. All three can occur
d. All three can occur
34
Had been described as a cause of adrenal failure a. severe lasting infectious disease b. mild resp dis c. long starvation d. feeding plants of brassicales order
a. severe lasting infectious disease
35
which statement is true for aleutian disease of minks? a. caused by picorna virus b. causative agent infects humans too c. caused by arbovirus d. virus infects minks, weasels, ferrets
d. virus infects minks, weasels, ferrets
36
True for FIP a. mutant virus uses lymphocytes to spread b. dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation c. wet form can only lead to ascites d. only cellular immunity has a role in the disease
b. dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation
37
tumor of mesothel cells a. fibroma b. mesothelioma c. lipoma d. melanoma
b. mesothelioma
38
which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with proliferation of T cells a. Follicular. b. parafollicular c. sinus histiocytosis d. suprafollicular
b. parafollicular
39
Which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with the proliferation of B cells ? a. Follicular b. Parafollicular c. Sinus histocytosis d. Suprafolicular
a. Follicular
40
Which can lead to hyperemic (congested) spleen? a. Anthrax b. Leukemia c. Spleen edema d. None of them
a. Anthrax
41
Which can lead to meaty spleen? a. Anthrax b. Amyloidosis c. Spleen oedema d. None of them
b. Amyloidosis
42
what can lead to splenomegaly a. hemolysis b. intrapulpar diffuse hemorrhages c. amyloidosis d. all of them
d. all of them
43
what can lead to splenomegaly a. passive congestion b. leukemia c. inflammation d. all of them
d. all of them
44
which can cause purulent lymphadenitis? a. streptococcus equi b. fusobacterium necrophorum c. toxolasma gondii d. baciullus antrachis
a. streptococcus equi
45
What is the cause of nutritional muscle dystrophy? a. Lack of selenium b. Lack of Vitamin E c. Lack of methionin and cysteine d. All of the above
d. All of the above
46
What does pseudohypertrophia lipomatosa musculorum mean a. enlargement of muscle due to fat accum b. enlargement of muscle due to increased workload of obese animal c. decreased size of muscle in obese animal d. accomodation of muscle due to increased pressure
a. enlargement of muscle due to fat accum
47
What leads to constitutional acquired myopathies in Su a. endogenous intra and extra muscular factors b. exogenous factors (overcrowding, nutritional problems) c. stress d. all of the above
d. all of the above
48
Which is a frequent post mortem change in the esophagus a. Exsiccation b. Maceration c. Bile imbibition d. Pseudomelanosis
b. Maceration
49
In which process plays vitamin A a vital role a. Steroid-synthesis b. Hearing c. Heart function d. Digestion
a. Steroid-synthesis
50
Which is the causative agent for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis a. Mannheimia hemolytica b. Pasteurella multocida c. Bovine herpesvirus 1 d. Alcelaphine herpesvirus 1
c. Bovine herpesvirus 1
51
Which can cause serous rhinitis a. Allergy b. Burkholderia mallei infection c. Trueperella pyogenes infection d. Suffocation
a.Allergy
52
Which statement is true for acute interstitial emphysema a. The air gets to the peribronchiolar veins b. The alveoli remain intact c. It frequently occurs in cattle d. It doesn’t affect extrathoracal areas
c. It frequently occurs in cattle
53
Which statement is true for the emphysema of the lungs a. It develops because of forced exspiration b. It develops because of incomplete inspiration c. It frequently occurs around inflammed regions d. It cant develop in the case of drowning
c. It frequently occurs around inflammed regions
54
Which of these can cause endocarditis in several species a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae b. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae c. Clostridium perfringens d. Taylorella equigenitalis
a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
55
Which statement is true for BHV-4/Movar infection of cattle a. The pathogen infects via the oral route b. It goes with serious consequences c. It only affects the lungs d. It can cause abortion
d. It can cause abortion
56
Which type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs mostly in FIP a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV
c. Type III
57
Which one of these can be considered a specific tumor of the peritoneum a. Pedunculated lipoma b. Hemangioma c. Mesothelioma d. Mesangioma
c. Mesothelioma
58
Aleutian disease of minks a. Develops due to theminase b. Caused by parasites c. Always causes abortion d. Caused by parvovirus
d. Caused by parvovirus
59
The pathological free abdominal content a. Can only originate from a pathological abdominal process b. Can originate from pathological abdominal and thoracal process c. Can originate from a pathological extraabdominal process d. None of them
b. Can originate from pathological abdominal and thoracal process
60
What can cause necrotic lymphadenitis a. Mercury poisoning b. Botulism c. Necrobacillosis d. Fumonizin toxicosis
c. Necrobacillosis
61
What kind of parasites lives in the kidney a. Dioctophyma renale b. Dirofilarial immitis c. Dirofilarial repens d. Corynebacterium renale
a. Dioctophyma renale
62
What is a special histological feature in case of Rubarth disease in the tubular epithelium a. Infiltration by neutrophil granulocytes b. Tubulonephritis c. Presence of inclusion bodies d. Presence of giant cells
c. Presence of inclusion bodies
63
Which statement is true for Aujeszky disease a. Always causes death in pigs b. Caused by herpesvirus c. Both of them d. None of them
b. Caused by herpesvirus
64
This type of goitre has not been described a. Struma aquisita b. Struma parenchymatosa c. Struma colloides d. Struma bulbosa
d. Struma bulbosa
65
What can cause arthritis in swine a. Streptococcus suis b. Escherichia coli c. Erysipelotrix rhusiopathiae d. All of them
d. All of them
66
Which oesophageal layer is ruptured in a pulsion diverticulum a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. The muscle layer d. Adventitia
c. The muscle layer
67
Which of these viruses can cause rumenitis a. Parvovirus b. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus c. Parainfluenza-3 virus d. The virus of foot and mouth disease
d. The virus of foot and mouth disease
68
Which statement is true for A-hypovitaminosis a. Narrows the orifices of the cranial nerves b. Causes endopthalmus c. Increases the tear production d. During fetal development, there are no alterations in the epithelial development
a. Narrows the orifices of the cranial nerves
69
Which statement is true for secondary acute extension of the stomach a. Only a mechanical barrier can cause it b. It cant lead to chronic dilation c. It can happen during ileus d. Too fast food intake is the cause
c. It can happen during ileus
70
In which area of the stomach the ulcers frequently occur in dogs a. Pars esophagica b. Cardia c. Fundus d. Pylorus
d. Pylorus
71
Which can cause endocardial mineralization a. Chronic liver failure b. Chronic kidney failure c. Vitamin E intoxication d. Vitamin D deficiency
b. Chronic kidney failure
72
Which can cause hemorrhagic lymphadenitis a. Streptococcus equi b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. Toxoplasma gondii d. Bacillus anthracis
d. Bacillus anthracis
73
What is the essence of Aleutian disease a. Polyuria b. Viremia c. Septicemia d. Immune complex deposition
d. Immune complex deposition
74
Rhodococcus equi a. Causes purulent lymphadenitis b. Causes caseous lymphadenitis c. Causes proliferative lymphadenitis d. Causes granulomatous lymphadenitis
a. Causes purulent lymphadenitis
75
In which type of arthritis: serous fluid accumulated in the join space and infiltrate the joint capsule and synovial membrane a. Serous arthritis b. Purulent arthritis c. Ischorous arthritis d. Arthritis tuberculosa
a. Serous arthritis
76
What is necessary for tubular regeneration a. Intact basal membrane b. Epithelial cells c. The lack of the inicial cause d. All of them
d. All of them
77
How can Listeria monocytogenes get to the brain in sheep a. Through bloodstream (septicemia) b. Along nerves c. Both of them d. None of them
c. Both of them
78
Which organs are affected by canine distemper virus infection a. Lungs b. Gastrointestinal tract c. Skin d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
79
What is a typical lesion observed histologically in a viral encephalitis a. Neuronocytophagia b. Glial cell proliferation c. Mononuclear perivasculitis d. All answers are correct
d. All answers are correct
80
Dermal atrophy usually a. Seen in young age b. Starts on the head and back c. Consequence of bacterial infection d. Possible consequence of steroid treatment or endocrinopathy
d. Possible consequence of steroid treatment or endocrinopathy
81
What can cause splenic hematoma a. Splenic tumor b. Lymphoid hyperplasia c. Both of them d. None of them
c. Both of them
82
How do we call development of double maxilla a. Dignathia superior b. Dignathia inferior c. Aprosopia d. Agnathia
a. Dignathia superior
83
What are the causative agents of malignant catarrhal fever a. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 2 b. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 2 and Ovine Herpesvirus 2 c. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 4 d. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 6
a. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 2
84
Which adult parasites live in the wall of the oesophagus? a. Spirocerca lupi b. Trichuris vulpis c. Toxocara canis d. Dirofilaria immitis
a. Spirocerca lupi
85
What can be the reason behind secondary distension of the forestomachs? a. Foaming of the rumen content b. Feeding high energy value food c. Feeding legumes d. Physical defect of eructation
d. Physical defect of eructation
86
The prolapse of the forestomachs is called a. Eventratio b. Torsio c. Felxio d. Distension
a. Eventratio
87
Which statement is true for chronic extension of the stomach a. Can’t lead to chronic gastritis b. It can lead to autointoxication c. After incision, the stomach wall contract d. Horses often vomit in these cases
b. It can lead to autointoxication
88
In which organ’s epithelium can we see hyperkeratosis in the case of A-hypovitaminosis? a. Abomasum b. Skin c. Uterus d. Testis
b. Skin
89
From which organ would you make a histological section to diagnose Teschen disease? a. Ammon horn b. Medulla oblongata c. Lumbar spinal cord d. The cerebellar leptomeningx
c. Lumbar spinal cord
90
What does pyonephros mean? a. Accumulation of pus in the kidney b. Accumulation of urine in the kidney c. Accumulation of serum in the kidney d. None of the above
a. Accumulation of pus in the kidney
91
How do you recognize alveolar emphysema during necropsy? a. The affected area is shrunken b. The affected area is paler c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision d. All answers are correct
b. The affected area is paler
92
Which statement is true for anemia of chronic diseases? a. Regenerative b. There is increased hepcidin production c. There is increased red blood cell lifespan d. Macrocytic
b. There is increased hepcidin production
93
What is hemosiderosis of lymph nodes? a. Regional lymph node lesion after iron injection b. Iron accumulation in lymph nodes c. The accumulation of blood derived iron in lymph nodes d. None of them
c. The accumulation of blood derived iron in lymph nodes
94
In lack of ………, dietetical skeletal muscle-dystrophy can develop a. Vitamin-E b. Selenium c. Cystein d. All of them
d. All of them
95
Which kind of disease is caused by the porcine teschovirus infection a. Acute respiratory outbreak b. Severe enteritis leading to diarrhea c. Paralytic symptoms in the affected animals d. Degeneration of the nasal turbinates
c. Paralytic symptoms in the affected animals
96
How do we call the accumulation of transudate mixed with chylus? a. Hydrops haemorrhagicus b. Hydrops chylaris c. Hydrops adiposus d. Hydrops stagnationis
d. Hydrops stagnationis
97
Dermal lesion where the epithelium is always affected a. Papula b. Bulla c. Cysta d. Squama
c. Cysta
98
Which can cause rhinitis in swine? a. Bordetella bronchiseptica b. Suid herpesvirus 2 c. Stachybotris toxin d. All of them
d. All of them
99
How do we call the change caused by the deposition of carbon particles in lymph nodes? a. Acanthosis b. Anthracosis c. Pseudomelanosis d. Siderosis
b. Anthracosis
100
TRUE for adrenal hyperplasia a. Cannot be nodular b. Can be diffuse only c. If circumscribed it is not encapsuled in connective tissue d. It is always pathological during pregnancy
c. If circumscribed it is not encapsuled in connective tissue
101
Which type of arthritis is associated with open joint injuries a. Serous arthritis b. Purulent arthritis c. Ichorous arthritis d. Arthritis tuberculosa
c. Ichorous arthritis
102
Which can cause fibrinous pericarditis in swine? a. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae infection c. Coxiella burnetiid infection d. Bordetella bronchiseptica infection
b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae infection
103
How can the inflammatory process reach the bronchi a. From the trachea b. From the microbronchi c. From the surroundings d. It can reach them from all these paths
d. It can reach them from all these paths
104
Which statement is true for intervertebral disc degeneration and prolapse? a. Hansen type 1 occurs in young and old dogs as well b. Hansen type 2 develops in young dogs c. The anulus fibrosus ruptures in Hansen type 2 d. Hansen type 2 mainly occurs in chondrodystrophic breeds
a. Hansen type 1 occurs in young and old dogs as well
105
What can lead to arthritis a. Navel infection b. Metritis c. Mastitis d. All of them
d. All of them
106
Which statement is true for caries a. Inflammatory process b. Has no correlation with carbohydrates c. Bacterial processes are responsible for it d. The protein substance in the tooth remains intact
c. Bacterial processes are responsible for it
107
Which statement is true for torsion of the stomach? a. Rupture is frequent in these cases b. The arteries cant empty c. The cause of death is suffocation d. Mostly it happens with small breed dogs
b. The arteries cant empty
108
Which can cause chronic deep proventriculitis a. Cold milk b. Sand in the rumen c. Fusobacterium necrophorum d. Parainfluenza-3
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
109
Which can cause chronic superficial proventriculitis a. Cold milk b. Sand in the rumen c. Fusobacterium necrophorum d. Parainfluenza-3
b. Sand in the rumen
110
Which can cause acute superficial proventriculitis a. Cold milk b. Sand in the rumen c. Fusobacterium necrophorum d. Parainfluenza-3
a. Cold milk
111
How do we call the spontaneous opening of the pulp cavity? a. Odontoporosis b. Porodontia c. Parodontosis d. Cementum hyperplasia
b. Porodontia
112
What is the clinical consequence of forestomach perforation? a. Distension b. Hepatic abscess c. Atony d. Rupture
b. Hepatic abscess
113
Which statement is true for PSE meat of swine? a. Dark b. Soft c. Dry d. None of these statements are true
b. Soft
114
Which statement is true for endocardiosis? a. The valve is thickened b. The valve is thinner c. The valve is transparent d. There is cauliflower-like growth on the valve
a. The valve is thickened
115
Mainly which of these can cause gingivitis marginalis acuta? a. Uremia b. FeLV c. T2-toxicosis d. Fracture of teeth
b. FeLV
116
Which condition can lead to muscle hypertrophy in the wall of the urinary bladder? a. Prostatic hyperplasia b. Stenosis of the urethra c. Urolithiasis d. Any of the above
d. Any of the above
117
What is pyelitis? a. Purulent inflammation of the renal cortex b. Purulent inflammation of the renal medulla c. Inflammation of the renal pelvis d. Abscess formation around the kidney
c. Inflammation of the renal pelvis
118
How do we call the dilatation of the oesophagus in the whole length? a. Dilation b. Ectasia c. Diverticulum d. Stenosis
a. Dilation
119
Which statement is true for iron deficiency anemia of suckling piglets? a. Mostly occurs in newborn piglets b. They will become more susceptible to other diseases c. Their mucous membranes are white d. All of them
d. All of them
120
Which statement is true for primary acute extension of the stomach? a. No visible obstacle to hinder passing of the content b. The cause is protracted feed intake c. There are no helping factors d. Aerophoby can be a cause
a. No visible obstacle to hinder passing of the content
121
Which statement is true for stomach rupture? a. There is no time for peritonitis b. Occurs along the small curvature c. The mucous membrane tears first d. There is always peritonitis
a. There is no time for peritonitis
122
What is the name of the lesion with MPS cell proliferation in the lymph nodes? a. Follicular hyperplasia b. Parafollicular hyperplasia c. Sinus histiocytosis d. Suprafollicular hyperplasia
c. Sinus histiocytosis
123
Which statement is true for paradentitis? a. Only affects the periodontium b. Shift to aerob oral flora from anaerob c. Plaque, tartar and bacteria are involved in the process d. Heals without tissue damage
c. Plaque, tartar and bacteria are involved in the process
124
Which layer must be affected to call the lesion a gastric ulcer? a. Tunica muscularis b. Tunica serosa c. Lamina propria mucosae d. Lamina muscularis mucosae
c. Lamina propria mucosae
125
Which statement is true, Aleutian disease of minks a. Usually causes encephalitis in young animals b. Leads to the deposition of immune-complexes c. The virus replicates in MPS cells d. It is an acute disease
b. Leads to the deposition of immune-complexes
126
It can cause generalized lymph node enlargement a. Lymphoma b. Leukaemia c. Both of them d. None of them
c. Both of them
127
The causative agent of foot and mouth disease? a. Apthovirus b. Vesiculovirus c. Enterovirus d. Vesivirus
a. Apthovirus
128
What is the outcome of suid herpesvirus 1 infection in pigs? a. Severe central nervous symptoms and death among finishers b. Respiratory symptoms in newborn piglets c. Abortion in pregnant sows d. All answers are correct
c. Abortion in pregnant sows
129
Which statement is true for feline infectious peritonitis? a. Caused by mutant parvovirus b. A large amount of exudate accumulates in the abdominal cavity c. A large amount of transudate in the abdominal cavity d. Abscesses are formed throughout the body
b. A large amount of exudate accumulates in the abdominal cavity
130
What can be experienced in the lymph nodes in anthracosis of the lungs? a. Inflammation b. Abscess formation c. Proliferative change d. None of them
d. None of them
131
Which statement is true for the atelectasis of the lungs? a. It can only be caused by interstitial pneumonia b. It frequently occurs because of the expiration of foetal fluids c. It develops in the case of forced expiration d. The affected region becomes firmer
d. The affected region becomes firmer
132
Which statement is true for forestomach atony? a. The physico-chemical causes are irrelevant b. The muscle layer must be injured c. Often happens because of inflammation d. The flora remains constant in the forestomachs
c. Often happens because of inflammation
133
Which statement is true for A-hypovitaminosis? a. It doesn’t affect the fetuses b. Metaplasia occurs in the forestomachs c. Metaplasia occurs in the mucous membranes d. Hyperkeratosis occurs in the salivary glands
c. Metaplasia occurs in the mucous membranes
134
Which statement is true of endocardiosis a. Frequent in puppies b. Most frequent in the pulmonary valves c. More frequent in old dogs d. Inflammatory process
c. More frequent in old dogs
135
In which type of arthritis: purulent exudate accumulates in the joint space? a. Serous arthritis b. Purulent arthritis c. Ichorous arthritis d. Arthritis tuberculosa
b. Purulent arthritis
136
Which is a frequent post mortem change in the forestomachs? a. Exsiccation b. Distension c. Bile imbibition d. Saponification
b. Distension
137
Which statement is true for Aleutian disease of minks? a. Leads to shrunken liver b. Leads to shrunken spleen c. Leads to shrunken lymph nodes d. Leads to uremia
d. Leads to uremia
138
What is pyelonephritis a. Purulent inflammation of the renal cortex b. Purulent inflammation of the renal medulla c. Inflammation of the pelvis and the renal parenchyma d. Abscesses formation around the kidney
c. Inflammation of the pelvis and the renal parenchyma
139
In case of listeriosis, what changes can be found in the brain? a. Mononuclear and neutrophil granulocytic perivasculitis b. Microabscess formation in the neutrophil c. Both of them d. None of them
d. None of them
140
What is true for the inflammations in the forestomachs? a. Parakeratosis is typical of acute cases b. Haven’t got any correlation with the flora of the forestomach s c. Haemorrhagic inflammation never happens in the forestomachs d. Catarrhal inflammation never happens in the forestomachs
d. Catarrhal inflammation never happens in the forestomachs
141
Which factor leads to the development of the wet form of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)? a. Strong humoral immunity b. Strong cellular immunity c. The lack of immune response d. All three
a. Strong humoral immunity
142
What does hydronephros mean? a. Accumulation of pus in the kidney b. Accumulation of urine in the kidney c. Accumulation of serum in the kidney d. None of the above
b. Accumulation of urine in the kidney