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Patho past qs > Past Q 2 > Flashcards

Past Q 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is true for interstitial pneumonia?

a. It always affects the cranioventral lobes
b. It always affectes the caudodorsal lobes
c. The affected area has a liver like texture
d. It can be caused by viral infections

A

d. It can be caused by viral infections

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2
Q

Which pneumonia type in a bronchopneumonia?

a. Embolic metastasis
b. Interstitial
c. Granulomatous
d. Krupous

A

d. Krupous

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3
Q

Which pneumonia type in bronchopneumonia?

a. Purulent hepatitis
b. Catarrhal
c. Fibrinous
d. All answer are correct

A

d. All answer are correct

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4
Q

How to recognize catarrhal bronchopneumonia during necropsy?

a. CV location, greyish red color, glandular like textures, mucopurulent content on cut surface
b. CV location, greyish red color, liver like textures, dry cut surface
c. Dorsal areas affected, firm textures, sever crepitation upon incision
d. all answers are correct

A

a. CV location, greyish red color, glandular like textures, mucopurulent content on cut surface

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5
Q

which pneum type in a bronchopneumonia

a. embolic metastasis
b. catarrhal
c. granulomatous
d. interstitial

A

b. catarrhal

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6
Q

Which is true for metastatic embolic pneumonia?

a. The pathogen is disturbed via the circulation
b. Multiple nodules are seen in the lungs
c. The nodules are distributed randomly in the lungs
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

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7
Q

How do you recognize aspiration pneumonia during necropsy?

a. It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria
b. The lesion is affecting all the lobes equally
c. The affected area becomes paler
d. Multifocal nodules are found all over in the lung tissue

A

a. It can be smelly due to putrefactive bacteria

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8
Q

What is bronchiectasia ?

a. Lack of air in the bronchi
b. Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen
c. Inflammation of the bronchial wall
d. Calcification of the bronchial wall due to tuberculosis

A

b. Pathologic widening of the bronchial lumen

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9
Q

How do you recognize atelectasis during necropsy?

a. affected area is swollen
b. affected area in paler
c. affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. all answers are correct

A

c. affected area does not crepitate upon incision

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10
Q

What can be the cause of pulmonary atelectasis?

a. Obstructive bronchiolitis
b. Pneumothorax
c. Hydrothorax
d. All answer are correct

A

d. all answers are correct

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11
Q

In which species can interstitial emphysema be observed more frequently?

a. Cattle
b. Dog
c. Cat
d. Horse

A

a. Cattle

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12
Q

How do you recognize alveolar emphysema?

a. The affected area is shrunken
b. The affected area is paler
c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. All answers are correct

A

b. The affected area is paler

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13
Q

What can be the consequences of broncholitis?

a. Atelectasis
b. Emphysema
c. Pneumonia
d. All answer are correct

A

d. All answer are correct

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14
Q

Which one of the following microbes is involved in atrophic rhinitis of Su

a. Pasteurella dagmatis
b. Bordetella bronchiseptica
c. porcine cytomegalovirus
d. actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

b. Bordetella bronchiseptica

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15
Q

true for listeria monocytogenes infection of Ru

a. causes thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
b. causes severe endocarditis thromboulcerosa
c. reaches brain via n trigeminus
d. all above

A

c. reaches brain via n trigeminus

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16
Q

Which statement is true for leptospirosis?

a. Does not cause renal damage
b. Doesn’t affect humans
c. The pathogens are shed in the feces
d. Can cause abortion

A

d. Can cause abortion

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17
Q

In which case can the tubular epithelial cells regenerate?

a. If the basement membrane is intact
b. If there are enough cells for replacement
c. If the cause is removed
d. All three is needed

A

d. All three is needed

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18
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of the Cloisonné disease in goat ?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

c. Hemosiderin

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19
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells in case of Wesselbron disease?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

d. Bilirubin

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20
Q

How long does it take for the complete regeneration of the tubular epithelial cells?

a. 3 days
b. 7-14 days
c. 21-56 days
d. They cannot regenerate

A

c. 21-56 days

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21
Q

What kind of pigment is stored in the tubular epithelial cells after the monday morning disease?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Hemosiderin
d. Bilirubin

A

b. Myoglobin

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22
Q

hematogenous nephritis is

a. ascending
b. descending
c. same as urinogenic
d. always GN

A

b. descending

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23
Q

What are the histological features in case of chronic interstitial nephritis

a. Infiltration by neutrophil granulocytes
b. Infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells
c. Infiltration by langhans type giant cells
d. All these cell types are present

A

b. infiltration by lymphocytes and plasma cells

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24
Q

Which one is a form of glomerulonephrosis ?

a. Glomerulus amyloidosis
b. Glomerulus lipidosis
c. Glomerulosclerosis
d. All three of them

A

d. All three of them

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25
Q

What is true for pulpy kidney disease of sheep and goat?

a. The toxin absorbed from the intestine can damage the tubular epithelial cells
b. Hypomotility of the intestine causes clostridial overgrowth
c. The E-toxin produced by the bacterium is activated by trypsin
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

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26
Q

Which organs are damaged during a Clostridium perfingens D entertoxaemia of sheep

a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Brain
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

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27
Q

What is a frequent predisposing factor in Clostridial enterotoxaemias?

a. Sudden change in the weather
b. Overeating
c. Viral pneumonias
d. Subsequent Salmonella infection

A

b. Overeating

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28
Q

What is the causative agent of pulpy kidney disease?

a. Clostridium perfringens A
b. Clostridium perfringens B
c. Clostridium perfringens C
d. Clostridium perfringens D

A

d. Clostridium perfringens D

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29
Q

What is the consequence of the ischaemic infarct in the kidney?

a. Necrobiosis and regeneration
b. Necrosis and organisation
c. Fatty infiltration
d. Histiocyte proliferation

A

b. Necrosis and organisation

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30
Q

What are the consequences of Ca-oxalate poisoning ?

a. Tubulonephrosis
b. Hypocalcaemia
c. Mechanical trauma of the tubular epithelial cells
d. All three can occur

A

d. All three can occur

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31
Q

What does a porcine circovirus 2 (PCVS) infection cause in the kidneys?

a. Exudative glomerulonepthritis
b. Proliferative glomerulonephritis
c. Interstitial nephritis
d. Suppurative nephritis

A

c. Interstitial nephritis

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32
Q

In which case can the tubular epithelial cells regenerate

a. If the basement membrane is intact
b. If there are enough cells for replacement
c. If the cause is removed
d. All three is needed

A

d. All three is needed

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33
Q

What are the consequences of Ca-oxalate poisoning?

a. Tubulonephrosis
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Mechanical trauma of the tubular epithelial cells
d. All three can occur

A

d. All three can occur

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34
Q

Had been described as a cause of adrenal failure

a. severe lasting infectious disease
b. mild resp dis
c. long starvation
d. feeding plants of brassicales order

A

a. severe lasting infectious disease

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35
Q

which statement is true for aleutian disease of minks?

a. caused by picorna virus
b. causative agent infects humans too
c. caused by arbovirus
d. virus infects minks, weasels, ferrets

A

d. virus infects minks, weasels, ferrets

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36
Q

True for FIP

a. mutant virus uses lymphocytes to spread
b. dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation
c. wet form can only lead to ascites
d. only cellular immunity has a role in the disease

A

b. dry form goes with perivascular pyogranuloma formation

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37
Q

tumor of mesothel cells

a. fibroma
b. mesothelioma
c. lipoma
d. melanoma

A

b. mesothelioma

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38
Q

which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with proliferation of T cells

a. Follicular.
b. parafollicular
c. sinus histiocytosis
d. suprafollicular

A

b. parafollicular

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39
Q

Which kind of lymphoid hyperplasia goes with the proliferation of B cells ?

a. Follicular
b. Parafollicular
c. Sinus histocytosis
d. Suprafolicular

A

a. Follicular

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40
Q

Which can lead to hyperemic (congested) spleen?

a. Anthrax
b. Leukemia
c. Spleen edema
d. None of them

A

a. Anthrax

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41
Q

Which can lead to meaty spleen?

a. Anthrax
b. Amyloidosis
c. Spleen oedema
d. None of them

A

b. Amyloidosis

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42
Q

what can lead to splenomegaly

a. hemolysis
b. intrapulpar diffuse hemorrhages
c. amyloidosis
d. all of them

A

d. all of them

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43
Q

what can lead to splenomegaly

a. passive congestion
b. leukemia
c. inflammation
d. all of them

A

d. all of them

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44
Q

which can cause purulent lymphadenitis?

a. streptococcus equi
b. fusobacterium necrophorum
c. toxolasma gondii
d. baciullus antrachis

A

a. streptococcus equi

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45
Q

What is the cause of nutritional muscle dystrophy?

a. Lack of selenium
b. Lack of Vitamin E
c. Lack of methionin and cysteine
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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46
Q

What does pseudohypertrophia lipomatosa musculorum mean

a. enlargement of muscle due to fat accum
b. enlargement of muscle due to increased workload of obese animal
c. decreased size of muscle in obese animal
d. accomodation of muscle due to increased pressure

A

a. enlargement of muscle due to fat accum

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47
Q

What leads to constitutional acquired myopathies in Su

a. endogenous intra and extra muscular factors
b. exogenous factors (overcrowding, nutritional problems)
c. stress
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

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48
Q

Which is a frequent post mortem change in the esophagus

a. Exsiccation
b. Maceration
c. Bile imbibition
d. Pseudomelanosis

A

b. Maceration

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49
Q

In which process plays vitamin A a vital role

a. Steroid-synthesis
b. Hearing
c. Heart function
d. Digestion

A

a. Steroid-synthesis

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50
Q

Which is the causative agent for infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

a. Mannheimia hemolytica
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Bovine herpesvirus 1
d. Alcelaphine herpesvirus 1

A

c. Bovine herpesvirus 1

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51
Q

Which can cause serous rhinitis

a. Allergy
b. Burkholderia mallei infection
c. Trueperella pyogenes infection
d. Suffocation

A

a.Allergy

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52
Q

Which statement is true for acute interstitial emphysema

a. The air gets to the peribronchiolar veins
b. The alveoli remain intact
c. It frequently occurs in cattle
d. It doesn’t affect extrathoracal areas

A

c. It frequently occurs in cattle

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53
Q

Which statement is true for the emphysema of the lungs

a. It develops because of forced exspiration
b. It develops because of incomplete inspiration
c. It frequently occurs around inflammed regions
d. It cant develop in the case of drowning

A

c. It frequently occurs around inflammed regions

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54
Q

Which of these can cause endocarditis in several species

a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
b. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Taylorella equigenitalis

A

a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

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55
Q

Which statement is true for BHV-4/Movar infection of cattle

a. The pathogen infects via the oral route
b. It goes with serious consequences
c. It only affects the lungs
d. It can cause abortion

A

d. It can cause abortion

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56
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs mostly in FIP

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

c. Type III

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57
Q

Which one of these can be considered a specific tumor of the peritoneum

a. Pedunculated lipoma
b. Hemangioma
c. Mesothelioma
d. Mesangioma

A

c. Mesothelioma

58
Q

Aleutian disease of minks

a. Develops due to theminase
b. Caused by parasites
c. Always causes abortion
d. Caused by parvovirus

A

d. Caused by parvovirus

59
Q

The pathological free abdominal content

a. Can only originate from a pathological abdominal process
b. Can originate from pathological abdominal and thoracal process
c. Can originate from a pathological extraabdominal process
d. None of them

A

b. Can originate from pathological abdominal and thoracal process

60
Q

What can cause necrotic lymphadenitis

a. Mercury poisoning
b. Botulism
c. Necrobacillosis
d. Fumonizin toxicosis

A

c. Necrobacillosis

61
Q

What kind of parasites lives in the kidney

a. Dioctophyma renale
b. Dirofilarial immitis
c. Dirofilarial repens
d. Corynebacterium renale

A

a. Dioctophyma renale

62
Q

What is a special histological feature in case of Rubarth disease in the tubular epithelium

a. Infiltration by neutrophil granulocytes
b. Tubulonephritis
c. Presence of inclusion bodies
d. Presence of giant cells

A

c. Presence of inclusion bodies

63
Q

Which statement is true for Aujeszky disease

a. Always causes death in pigs
b. Caused by herpesvirus
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

b. Caused by herpesvirus

64
Q

This type of goitre has not been described

a. Struma aquisita
b. Struma parenchymatosa
c. Struma colloides
d. Struma bulbosa

A

d. Struma bulbosa

65
Q

What can cause arthritis in swine

a. Streptococcus suis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Erysipelotrix rhusiopathiae
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

66
Q

Which oesophageal layer is ruptured in a pulsion diverticulum

a. Mucosa
b. Submucosa
c. The muscle layer
d. Adventitia

A

c. The muscle layer

67
Q

Which of these viruses can cause rumenitis

a. Parvovirus
b. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
c. Parainfluenza-3 virus
d. The virus of foot and mouth disease

A

d. The virus of foot and mouth disease

68
Q

Which statement is true for A-hypovitaminosis

a. Narrows the orifices of the cranial nerves
b. Causes endopthalmus
c. Increases the tear production
d. During fetal development, there are no alterations in the epithelial development

A

a. Narrows the orifices of the cranial nerves

69
Q

Which statement is true for secondary acute extension of the stomach

a. Only a mechanical barrier can cause it
b. It cant lead to chronic dilation
c. It can happen during ileus
d. Too fast food intake is the cause

A

c. It can happen during ileus

70
Q

In which area of the stomach the ulcers frequently occur in dogs

a. Pars esophagica
b. Cardia
c. Fundus
d. Pylorus

A

d. Pylorus

71
Q

Which can cause endocardial mineralization

a. Chronic liver failure
b. Chronic kidney failure
c. Vitamin E intoxication
d. Vitamin D deficiency

A

b. Chronic kidney failure

72
Q

Which can cause hemorrhagic lymphadenitis

a. Streptococcus equi
b. Fusobacterium necrophorum
c. Toxoplasma gondii
d. Bacillus anthracis

A

d. Bacillus anthracis

73
Q

What is the essence of Aleutian disease

a. Polyuria
b. Viremia
c. Septicemia
d. Immune complex deposition

A

d. Immune complex deposition

74
Q

Rhodococcus equi

a. Causes purulent lymphadenitis
b. Causes caseous lymphadenitis
c. Causes proliferative lymphadenitis
d. Causes granulomatous lymphadenitis

A

a. Causes purulent lymphadenitis

75
Q

In which type of arthritis: serous fluid accumulated in the join space and infiltrate the joint capsule and synovial membrane

a. Serous arthritis
b. Purulent arthritis
c. Ischorous arthritis
d. Arthritis tuberculosa

A

a. Serous arthritis

76
Q

What is necessary for tubular regeneration

a. Intact basal membrane
b. Epithelial cells
c. The lack of the inicial cause
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

77
Q

How can Listeria monocytogenes get to the brain in sheep

a. Through bloodstream (septicemia)
b. Along nerves
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

c. Both of them

78
Q

Which organs are affected by canine distemper virus infection

a. Lungs
b. Gastrointestinal tract
c. Skin
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

79
Q

What is a typical lesion observed histologically in a viral encephalitis

a. Neuronocytophagia
b. Glial cell proliferation
c. Mononuclear perivasculitis
d. All answers are correct

A

d. All answers are correct

80
Q

Dermal atrophy usually

a. Seen in young age
b. Starts on the head and back
c. Consequence of bacterial infection
d. Possible consequence of steroid treatment or endocrinopathy

A

d. Possible consequence of steroid treatment or endocrinopathy

81
Q

What can cause splenic hematoma

a. Splenic tumor
b. Lymphoid hyperplasia
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

c. Both of them

82
Q

How do we call development of double maxilla

a. Dignathia superior
b. Dignathia inferior
c. Aprosopia
d. Agnathia

A

a. Dignathia superior

83
Q

What are the causative agents of malignant catarrhal fever

a. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 2
b. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 2 and Ovine Herpesvirus 2
c. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 4
d. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 6

A

a. Alcelaphine Herpesvirus 1 and Ovine Herpesvirus 2

84
Q

Which adult parasites live in the wall of the oesophagus?

a. Spirocerca lupi
b. Trichuris vulpis
c. Toxocara canis
d. Dirofilaria immitis

A

a. Spirocerca lupi

85
Q

What can be the reason behind secondary distension of the forestomachs?

a. Foaming of the rumen content
b. Feeding high energy value food
c. Feeding legumes
d. Physical defect of eructation

A

d. Physical defect of eructation

86
Q

The prolapse of the forestomachs is called

a. Eventratio
b. Torsio
c. Felxio
d. Distension

A

a. Eventratio

87
Q

Which statement is true for chronic extension of the stomach

a. Can’t lead to chronic gastritis
b. It can lead to autointoxication
c. After incision, the stomach wall contract
d. Horses often vomit in these cases

A

b. It can lead to autointoxication

88
Q

In which organ’s epithelium can we see hyperkeratosis in the case of A-hypovitaminosis?

a. Abomasum
b. Skin
c. Uterus
d. Testis

A

b. Skin

89
Q

From which organ would you make a histological section to diagnose Teschen disease?

a. Ammon horn
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Lumbar spinal cord
d. The cerebellar leptomeningx

A

c. Lumbar spinal cord

90
Q

What does pyonephros mean?

a. Accumulation of pus in the kidney
b. Accumulation of urine in the kidney
c. Accumulation of serum in the kidney
d. None of the above

A

a. Accumulation of pus in the kidney

91
Q

How do you recognize alveolar emphysema during necropsy?

a. The affected area is shrunken
b. The affected area is paler
c. The affected area does not crepitate upon incision
d. All answers are correct

A

b. The affected area is paler

92
Q

Which statement is true for anemia of chronic diseases?

a. Regenerative
b. There is increased hepcidin production
c. There is increased red blood cell lifespan
d. Macrocytic

A

b. There is increased hepcidin production

93
Q

What is hemosiderosis of lymph nodes?

a. Regional lymph node lesion after iron injection
b. Iron accumulation in lymph nodes
c. The accumulation of blood derived iron in lymph nodes
d. None of them

A

c. The accumulation of blood derived iron in lymph nodes

94
Q

In lack of ………, dietetical skeletal muscle-dystrophy can develop

a. Vitamin-E
b. Selenium
c. Cystein
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

95
Q

Which kind of disease is caused by the porcine teschovirus infection

a. Acute respiratory outbreak
b. Severe enteritis leading to diarrhea
c. Paralytic symptoms in the affected animals
d. Degeneration of the nasal turbinates

A

c. Paralytic symptoms in the affected animals

96
Q

How do we call the accumulation of transudate mixed with chylus?

a. Hydrops haemorrhagicus
b. Hydrops chylaris
c. Hydrops adiposus
d. Hydrops stagnationis

A

d. Hydrops stagnationis

97
Q

Dermal lesion where the epithelium is always affected

a. Papula
b. Bulla
c. Cysta
d. Squama

A

c. Cysta

98
Q

Which can cause rhinitis in swine?

a. Bordetella bronchiseptica
b. Suid herpesvirus 2
c. Stachybotris toxin
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

99
Q

How do we call the change caused by the deposition of carbon particles in lymph nodes?

a. Acanthosis
b. Anthracosis
c. Pseudomelanosis
d. Siderosis

A

b. Anthracosis

100
Q

TRUE for adrenal hyperplasia

a. Cannot be nodular
b. Can be diffuse only
c. If circumscribed it is not encapsuled in connective tissue
d. It is always pathological during pregnancy

A

c. If circumscribed it is not encapsuled in connective tissue

101
Q

Which type of arthritis is associated with open joint injuries

a. Serous arthritis
b. Purulent arthritis
c. Ichorous arthritis
d. Arthritis tuberculosa

A

c. Ichorous arthritis

102
Q

Which can cause fibrinous pericarditis in swine?

a. Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis
b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae infection
c. Coxiella burnetiid infection
d. Bordetella bronchiseptica infection

A

b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae infection

103
Q

How can the inflammatory process reach the bronchi

a. From the trachea
b. From the microbronchi
c. From the surroundings
d. It can reach them from all these paths

A

d. It can reach them from all these paths

104
Q

Which statement is true for intervertebral disc degeneration and prolapse?

a. Hansen type 1 occurs in young and old dogs as well
b. Hansen type 2 develops in young dogs
c. The anulus fibrosus ruptures in Hansen type 2
d. Hansen type 2 mainly occurs in chondrodystrophic breeds

A

a. Hansen type 1 occurs in young and old dogs as well

105
Q

What can lead to arthritis

a. Navel infection
b. Metritis
c. Mastitis
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

106
Q

Which statement is true for caries

a. Inflammatory process
b. Has no correlation with carbohydrates
c. Bacterial processes are responsible for it
d. The protein substance in the tooth remains intact

A

c. Bacterial processes are responsible for it

107
Q

Which statement is true for torsion of the stomach?

a. Rupture is frequent in these cases
b. The arteries cant empty
c. The cause of death is suffocation
d. Mostly it happens with small breed dogs

A

b. The arteries cant empty

108
Q

Which can cause chronic deep proventriculitis

a. Cold milk
b. Sand in the rumen
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Parainfluenza-3

A

c. Fusobacterium necrophorum

109
Q

Which can cause chronic superficial proventriculitis

a. Cold milk
b. Sand in the rumen
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Parainfluenza-3

A

b. Sand in the rumen

110
Q

Which can cause acute superficial proventriculitis

a. Cold milk
b. Sand in the rumen
c. Fusobacterium necrophorum
d. Parainfluenza-3

A

a. Cold milk

111
Q

How do we call the spontaneous opening of the pulp cavity?

a. Odontoporosis
b. Porodontia
c. Parodontosis
d. Cementum hyperplasia

A

b. Porodontia

112
Q

What is the clinical consequence of forestomach perforation?

a. Distension
b. Hepatic abscess
c. Atony
d. Rupture

A

b. Hepatic abscess

113
Q

Which statement is true for PSE meat of swine?

a. Dark
b. Soft
c. Dry
d. None of these statements are true

A

b. Soft

114
Q

Which statement is true for endocardiosis?

a. The valve is thickened
b. The valve is thinner
c. The valve is transparent
d. There is cauliflower-like growth on the valve

A

a. The valve is thickened

115
Q

Mainly which of these can cause gingivitis marginalis acuta?

a. Uremia
b. FeLV
c. T2-toxicosis
d. Fracture of teeth

A

b. FeLV

116
Q

Which condition can lead to muscle hypertrophy in the wall of the urinary bladder?

a. Prostatic hyperplasia
b. Stenosis of the urethra
c. Urolithiasis
d. Any of the above

A

d. Any of the above

117
Q

What is pyelitis?

a. Purulent inflammation of the renal cortex
b. Purulent inflammation of the renal medulla
c. Inflammation of the renal pelvis
d. Abscess formation around the kidney

A

c. Inflammation of the renal pelvis

118
Q

How do we call the dilatation of the oesophagus in the whole length?

a. Dilation
b. Ectasia
c. Diverticulum
d. Stenosis

A

a. Dilation

119
Q

Which statement is true for iron deficiency anemia of suckling piglets?

a. Mostly occurs in newborn piglets
b. They will become more susceptible to other diseases
c. Their mucous membranes are white
d. All of them

A

d. All of them

120
Q

Which statement is true for primary acute extension of the stomach?

a. No visible obstacle to hinder passing of the content
b. The cause is protracted feed intake
c. There are no helping factors
d. Aerophoby can be a cause

A

a. No visible obstacle to hinder passing of the content

121
Q

Which statement is true for stomach rupture?

a. There is no time for peritonitis
b. Occurs along the small curvature
c. The mucous membrane tears first
d. There is always peritonitis

A

a. There is no time for peritonitis

122
Q

What is the name of the lesion with MPS cell proliferation in the lymph nodes?

a. Follicular hyperplasia
b. Parafollicular hyperplasia
c. Sinus histiocytosis
d. Suprafollicular hyperplasia

A

c. Sinus histiocytosis

123
Q

Which statement is true for paradentitis?

a. Only affects the periodontium
b. Shift to aerob oral flora from anaerob
c. Plaque, tartar and bacteria are involved in the process
d. Heals without tissue damage

A

c. Plaque, tartar and bacteria are involved in the process

124
Q

Which layer must be affected to call the lesion a gastric ulcer?

a. Tunica muscularis
b. Tunica serosa
c. Lamina propria mucosae
d. Lamina muscularis mucosae

A

c. Lamina propria mucosae

125
Q

Which statement is true, Aleutian disease of minks

a. Usually causes encephalitis in young animals
b. Leads to the deposition of immune-complexes
c. The virus replicates in MPS cells
d. It is an acute disease

A

b. Leads to the deposition of immune-complexes

126
Q

It can cause generalized lymph node enlargement

a. Lymphoma
b. Leukaemia
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

c. Both of them

127
Q

The causative agent of foot and mouth disease?

a. Apthovirus
b. Vesiculovirus
c. Enterovirus
d. Vesivirus

A

a. Apthovirus

128
Q

What is the outcome of suid herpesvirus 1 infection in pigs?

a. Severe central nervous symptoms and death among finishers
b. Respiratory symptoms in newborn piglets
c. Abortion in pregnant sows
d. All answers are correct

A

c. Abortion in pregnant sows

129
Q

Which statement is true for feline infectious peritonitis?

a. Caused by mutant parvovirus
b. A large amount of exudate accumulates in the abdominal cavity
c. A large amount of transudate in the abdominal cavity
d. Abscesses are formed throughout the body

A

b. A large amount of exudate accumulates in the abdominal cavity

130
Q

What can be experienced in the lymph nodes in anthracosis of the lungs?

a. Inflammation
b. Abscess formation
c. Proliferative change
d. None of them

A

d. None of them

131
Q

Which statement is true for the atelectasis of the lungs?

a. It can only be caused by interstitial pneumonia
b. It frequently occurs because of the expiration of foetal fluids
c. It develops in the case of forced expiration
d. The affected region becomes firmer

A

d. The affected region becomes firmer

132
Q

Which statement is true for forestomach atony?

a. The physico-chemical causes are irrelevant
b. The muscle layer must be injured
c. Often happens because of inflammation
d. The flora remains constant in the forestomachs

A

c. Often happens because of inflammation

133
Q

Which statement is true for A-hypovitaminosis?

a. It doesn’t affect the fetuses
b. Metaplasia occurs in the forestomachs
c. Metaplasia occurs in the mucous membranes
d. Hyperkeratosis occurs in the salivary glands

A

c. Metaplasia occurs in the mucous membranes

134
Q

Which statement is true of endocardiosis

a. Frequent in puppies
b. Most frequent in the pulmonary valves
c. More frequent in old dogs
d. Inflammatory process

A

c. More frequent in old dogs

135
Q

In which type of arthritis: purulent exudate accumulates in the joint space?

a. Serous arthritis
b. Purulent arthritis
c. Ichorous arthritis
d. Arthritis tuberculosa

A

b. Purulent arthritis

136
Q

Which is a frequent post mortem change in the forestomachs?

a. Exsiccation
b. Distension
c. Bile imbibition
d. Saponification

A

b. Distension

137
Q

Which statement is true for Aleutian disease of minks?

a. Leads to shrunken liver
b. Leads to shrunken spleen
c. Leads to shrunken lymph nodes
d. Leads to uremia

A

d. Leads to uremia

138
Q

What is pyelonephritis

a. Purulent inflammation of the renal cortex
b. Purulent inflammation of the renal medulla
c. Inflammation of the pelvis and the renal parenchyma
d. Abscesses formation around the kidney

A

c. Inflammation of the pelvis and the renal parenchyma

139
Q

In case of listeriosis, what changes can be found in the brain?

a. Mononuclear and neutrophil granulocytic perivasculitis
b. Microabscess formation in the neutrophil
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

d. None of them

140
Q

What is true for the inflammations in the forestomachs?

a. Parakeratosis is typical of acute cases
b. Haven’t got any correlation with the flora of the forestomach s
c. Haemorrhagic inflammation never happens in the forestomachs
d. Catarrhal inflammation never happens in the forestomachs

A

d. Catarrhal inflammation never happens in the forestomachs

141
Q

Which factor leads to the development of the wet form of feline infectious peritonitis (FIP)?

a. Strong humoral immunity
b. Strong cellular immunity
c. The lack of immune response
d. All three

A

a. Strong humoral immunity

142
Q

What does hydronephros mean?

a. Accumulation of pus in the kidney
b. Accumulation of urine in the kidney
c. Accumulation of serum in the kidney
d. None of the above

A

b. Accumulation of urine in the kidney

Patho past qs (2 decks)

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