Past Papers Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following characteristics are NOT typical of inflammation?
a. inactivation of macrophages
b. Increased vascular permeability
c. Vasodilation
d. Addressin expression
e. Chemokine production

A

a. inactivation of macrophages

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2
Q

Clonal expansion phenomena occur during:
a. the responses of adaptive immunity
b. the responses of innate immunity
c. hematopoiesis
d. the self-renewal of stem cells
e. immunodeficiency discases

A

a. the responses of adaptive immunity

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3
Q

Which lymphoid organs are responsible for filtering the antigens present in the bloodstream?
a. Spleen
b. Tonsils
c. Peyer’s plaques
d. Appendix
e. All organs listed

A

a. Spleen

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4
Q

Which of the following sentences best describes the transit of a naive T cell through a lymph node?
a. It enters through the efferent lymphatics and exits through the bloodstream
b. It enters through the afferent lymphatics and exits through the bloodstream
c. It enters through the bloodstream and exits through the afferent lymphatics
d. It enters through the bloodstream and exits through the bloodstream
e. It enters through the bloodstream and exits through the efferent lymphatics

A

e. It enters through the bloodstream and exits through the efferent lymphatics

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5
Q

Which of the following pairs is not correct? (2)
a. T cell activation: cell division and differentiation
b. Encetor B cell: plasma cell
c. Follicular Dendritic cell: phagocytosis of antigens
d. T helper cell: killing of cells infected with pathogens
e. T helper cell: facilitates the differentiation of B cells

A

c. Follicular Dendritic cell: phagocytosis of antigens
d. T helper cell: killing of cells infected with pathogens

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6
Q

Which of the following pairs is not correct?
a. Plasma cell: mediation of phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms in plasma
b. Megakaryocyte: formation of platelets
c. Dendritic cell: activation of adaptive immune response
d. NK cell: development from a common lymphoid progenitor
e. Neutrophil: expression of TLR and NLR

A

a. Plasma cell: mediation of phagocytosis and killing of microorganisms in plasma

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7
Q

Which of the following statements about complement proteins is false?
a. They are soluble and bind to the surfaces of pathogens
b. They only participate in innate immunity
c. They are present in extracellular fluids, blood and lymph
d. They facilitate the phagocytosis of pathogens
e. They are produced as proenzymes

A

b. They only participate in innate immunity

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8
Q

Which of the following effects is not due to the activation of the complement?
a. Chemotaxis
b. Opsonization
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Lysis of bacteria
e. Permeabilization of the endothelium

A

c. Vasoconstriction

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9
Q

All of the following proteins are involved in the alternative pathway of complement activation, except:
a. factor B
b. factor D
c. properdin
d. C4
e. C5

A

d. C4

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10
Q

Pro-inflammatory cytokines … (2)
a. are induced by the stimulation of TLRs
b. facilitate the migration of neutrophils from blood to infected tissues
c. they are produced by phagocytic cells
d. mediate the dissociation of IkB from NFkB
e. they act as opsonins

A

a. are induced by the stimulation of TLRs
c. they are produced by phagocytic cells

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11
Q

Which of the following is not a complement control protein?
a. Degradaton accelerating factor (DAF)
b. Factor H
c. Factor B
d. Membrane cofactor protein (MCP)
e. Factor I

A

c. Factor B

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12
Q

The initial events of the inflammatory responses are all of the following, except:
a. vasodilation
b. extravasation
c. apoptosis
d. increased capillary permeability
e. chemotaxis

A

c. apoptosis

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13
Q

Which of the following statements regarding TLR4 are false? (2)
a. TLR4 is expressed in endosomes
b. TLR4 is associated wth CD14, which acts as a coreceptor of the LPS
c. TLR4 is a component of the inflammasome
d. Its extracellular domain associates with soluble MD2
e. TLR4 contains a cytoplasmic TIR domain

A

a. TLR4 is expressed in endosomes
c. TLR4 is a component of the inflammasome

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14
Q

Systemic distribution of TNF-α in the bloodstream can cause … (2)
a. activation of the alternative complement pathway
b. response to interferon
c. activation of the lectin pathway of the complement
d. hyperthermia
e. cachexia

A

d. hyperthermia
e. cachexia

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15
Q

The cells of a T lymphocyte clone are defined by:
a. production of the same cytokines
b. expression of the same receptor for the antigen
c. recognition of different epitopes of the same antigen
d. expression of the same adhesion molecules
e. all features listed

A

b. expression of the same receptor for the antigen

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16
Q

The inflammasome includes in its structure …
a. TLR
b. NLR
c. RLR
d. IL-1
e. all components listed

A

b. NLR

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17
Q

Which statements are correct? (2)
a. IL-1 is generated from an inactive precursor
b. Caspase is a component of the inflammasome
c. NLRs are expressed on the phagocyte membrane
d. RLRs are expressed on the phagocyte membrane
e. IL-1 acts only in an autocrine and paracrine manner

A

a. IL-1 is generated from an inactive precursor
b. Caspase is a component of the inflammasome

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18
Q

Which cytokine plays the most important role in hematopoiesis?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-6
e. IL-8

A

c. IL-3

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19
Q

Which complement protein is cleaved by MBL?
a. C3
b. C4
c. C5
d. Factor B
e. Factor H

A

b. C4

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20
Q

Opsonins favour:
a. phagocytosis
b. the expression of adhesion molecules to the endothelium
c. the secreton of vasoactive amines such as histamine
d. the secretion of IL-2

A

a. phagocytosis

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21
Q

The molecules of the selectin family can be expressed by:
a. endothelium
b. lymphocytes
c. platelets
d. all listed populations
e. none of the listed populations

A

d. all listed populations

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22
Q

In which of the following lymphoid organs there are no germinal centres present?
a. Lymph nodes
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Peyer’s patches
e. Tonsils

A

c. Thymus

23
Q

Which of these Complement receptors also expressed on non-phagocytic cells?
a. CR1 and CR2
b. CR1 and CR3
c. CR1 and CR4
d. CR2 and CR3
e. CR2 and CR4

A

a. CR1 and CR2

24
Q

Which statements about IFN α and β are false? (2)
a. They are produced by T lymphocytes activated by the antigen
b. They bind to the same cell receptor
c. They prevent the replication of viruses
d. They have an anti-proliferative action on cells
e. They have a synergistic action wth IL-1 and TNF

A

a. They are produced by T lymphocytes activated by the antigen
e. They have a synergistic action wth IL-1 and TNF

25
Q

Plasmacytoid dendritic cells: (2)
a. They are present in the medulla of the thymus
b. They make up the Hassal corpuscles
c. They are present in the germinal centres of the lymphatic follicles
d. They are a major source of Type I IFN
e. They act like professional APCs

A

d. They are a major source of Type I IFN
e. They act like professional APCs

26
Q

Which of the following statements are correct: (2)
a. TCRs are generated by somatic recombination of VDJ fragments
b. The T cell repertoire is characterized by a modest level of diversification
c. The TCR is never secreted following the encounter with the antigen
d. The constant portions of the TCR contain complementarity-determining regions that interact
with the antigen
e. The TCR transduces an activation signal directly inside the cell

A

a. TCRs are generated by somatic recombination of VDJ fragments
c. The TCR is never secreted following the encounter with the antigen

27
Q

Which of the following statements are correct: (2)
a. TCR can bind the antigen even after being released in a soluble form
b. Antibodies cannot bind to phospholipids, but only to complex glycoproteins and carbohydrates
c. TCR can interact wth carbohydrate molecules or amino acid agglomerates
d. BCR can bind to both native and denatured proteins
e. T cells recognize degraded proteins bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

A

d. BCR can bind to both native and denatured proteins
e. T cells recognize degraded proteins bound to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules

28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding T CD4 lymphocytes is incorrect:
a. MHC class II molecules present antigens to CD4 T cells
b. CD4 is the receptor through which HIV enters CD4 T cells
c. CD4 consists of two transmembrane chains
d. CD4 belongs to the immunoglobulin superfamily
e. CD4 is considered a co-receptor of the TCR

A

c. CD4 consists of two transmembrane chains

29
Q

With regard to the presentation of the antigen, MHC class I molecules usually have peptides derived from: (2)
a. Intracellular cytosolic proteins
b. Phagolysosomes
c. Only proteins derived from infectous agents
d. Self-proteins
e. Endocytotic vesicles

A

a. Intracellular cytosolic proteins
d. Self-proteins

30
Q

Amino acid variations between alleles of MHC class II molecules presenting antigens to CD4 T cells are concentrated:
a. In the contact areas between MHC and CD4 or CD8 co-receptor
b. In the β chain, the α chain beng monomorphic
c. In the regions α1 and β1
d. In the α chain, because the β chain is monomorphic
e. Along all domains of both the α and β chains

A

c. In the regions α1 and β1

31
Q

An adult subject of very advanced age (> 80 years) will have a T lymphocyte repertoire:
a. similar to that of a patient wth DiGeorge syndrome
b. not restricted by MHC molecules
c. consisting mainly of T lymphocytes wth ƴ: δ receptor
d. none of the answers are correct
e. all three answers are correct

A

d. none of the answers are correct

32
Q

Positive selection occurs mainly:
a. In the cortical area and on double-positive thymocytes
b. In the cortical area and on single-positive thymocytes
c. In the medullary area and on double-positive thymocytes
d. In the medullary area and on double-negative thymocytes
e. In the medullary area and involves thymocytes that do not express CD4 and CD8

A

a. In the cortical area and on double-positive thymocytes

33
Q

The “restriction for MHC” is best described as:
a. elimination of thymocytes that express a TCR that is not capable of interacting wth MHC self-molecules
b. proliferation and survival of thymocytes that have passed negative selection
c. recognition by a T lymphocyte of an antigenic peptide only when this is associated with a MHC self-molecule expressed in the thymus
d. a state of non-responsiveness to an antigenic peptide
e. a condition in which both class I and class II MHC molecules are not expressed on the cell surface

A

c. recognition by a T lymphocyte of an antigenic peptide only when this is associated with a MHC self-molecule expressed in the thymus

34
Q

If a TCR expressed on the surface of a double-positive thymocyte binds a self: MHC class I peptide complex with low affinity, according to the so-called “instructive theory of CD4 / CD8 selection” we see:
a. negative selection and apoptosis
b. cell proliferation
c. rearrangement of the second locus of the β chain
d. turning off the expression and the CD4 receptor
e. shutdown of the expression of the CD8 receptor

A

d. turning off the expression and the CD4 receptor

35
Q

The expression of class II MHC molecules is present in which cell types: (2)
a. Langerhans cells
b. B lymphocytes
c. Naive T lymphocytes
d. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
e. Plasma cells

A

a. Langerhans cells
b. B lymphocytes

36
Q

In general, in healthy, uninfected individuals, a mature T cell that encounters a self-antigen outside the thymus can: (2)
a. induce an autoimmune attack against the cell presenting that particular antigen
b. be suppressed by a regulatory T cell
c. meet the death induced by activation
d. be made anergic
e. rearrange the gene for the α chain of TCR

A

b. be suppressed by a regulatory T cell
d. be made anergic

37
Q

All of the following are characteristic of regulatory T cells, except:
a. expression of CD25
b. expression of MHC class II
c. expression of CD4
d. expression of the transcription factor FoxP3
e. production of IL-10

A

b. expression of MHC class II

38
Q

Which population T is characterized by the expression of the T-bet factor?
a. TH1
b. TH2
c. T regulators
d. CD8 +
e. Follicular T helper

A

a. TH1

39
Q

Which population T is characterized by the expression of the GATA-3 factor?
a. TH1
b. TH2
c. T regulators
d. CD8 +
e. Follicular T helper

A

b. TH2

40
Q

Which population T is characterized by the expression of the FoxP3 factor?
a. TH1
b. TH2
c. Treg
d. CD8 +
e. Follicular T helper

A

e. Follicular T helper

41
Q

Which receptors are expressed by naive T lymphocytes? (2)
a. L-selectin
b. CTLA-4
c. B7
d. CD25
e. IL-2 receptor βγ

A

a. L-selectin
e. IL-2 receptor βγ

42
Q

Antibodies produced during the secondary humoral response to thymus-independent antigens:
a. belong mainly to the IgG class
b. show numerous point mutations in the CDR regions
c. have greater affinity than those produced in the primary response
d. have a higher titer than those produced in the primary response
e. no correct answer

A

e. no correct answer

43
Q

Molecular mimicry can cause:
a. fetal erythroblastosis
b. autoimmune diseases
c. allergic diseases
d. granulomas
e. all the conditions listed

A

b. autoimmune diseases

44
Q

Active immunotherapy for a cancer patient means
a. dendritic cells pulsed with tumor antigens
b. none of the procedures indicated
c. all three procedures indicated
d. inactivated autologous tumor cells
e. peptides derived from tumor antigens

A

c. all three procedures indicated

45
Q

Mast cells:
a. can undergo IgE dependent and IgE independent activation
b. arise from common lymphoid progenitors
c. are phagocytic cells
d. are most often found in the blood
e. express membrane bound IgE

A

a. can undergo IgE dependent and IgE independent activation
e. express membrane bound IgE

46
Q

In homeostatic conditions, spatial distribution of B & T cells in the lymph node:
a. relies on the expression pattern of chemokine receptors CCR7 & CXCR5
b. is based on the expression pattern of chemokine receptors CXCR7 & CCR5
c. allows for the positioning of T cells in follicles & B cells in the paracortex
d. allows for the positioning of B cells in follicles & T cells in the paracortex
e. favours interactions between B & T cells

A

a. relies on the expression pattern of chemokine receptors CCR7 & CXCR5
d. allows for the positioning of B cells in follicles & T cells in the paracortex
e. favours interactions between B & T cells

47
Q

Adjuvants:
a. stimulate the activation of innate immunity PRRs
b. coincide with superantigens
c. activate populations of T lymphocytes expressing certain V-beta segments of the TCR
d. bind to APC class I MHC molecules
e. bind to APC MHC II

A

a. stimulate the activation of innate immunity PRRs

48
Q

A patient with MHC-II deficiency:
a. does not have circulating CD4+ T cells
b. can always be cured by bone marrow transplant
c. has naive lymphocytes with a limited proliferative ability
d. has normal levels of lgG in the blood
e. does not have circulating CD8+ T cells

A

a. does not have circulating CD4+ T cells
c. has naive lymphocytes with a limited proliferative ability

49
Q

Treatment with Ipilimumab, a monoclonal antibody recognising CTLA-4:
a. enhances T cell activation
b. enhances B cell activation
c. is approved for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
d. blocks CTLA-4 interaction with PD-1 molecule
e. blocks CTLA-4 interaction with B7 molecules

A

a. enhances T cell activation
e. blocks CTLA-4 interaction with B7 molecules

50
Q

T cell entry into the lymph node:
a. is independent from chemokine signalling
b. requires CXCR5 surface expression
c. occurs upon antigen recognition
d. relies on the interaction between L-selectin (CD62L) & peripheral node addressin (PNAd)
e. is inhibited by the drug Fingolimod

A

d. relies on the interaction between L-selectin (CD62L) & peripheral node addressin (PNAd)
e. is inhibited by the drug Fingolimod

51
Q

According to the Coombs and Gell classification, which statement is correct:
a) type 2 and delayed type hypersensitivity
b) type 1 hypersensitivity is of the immediate type
c) type 4 hypersensitivity is mediated by immune complexes
d) type 2 hypersensitivity is cell-mediated
e) type 3 hypersensitivity is mediated by the release of histamine and leukotrienes

A

b) type 1 hypersensitivity is of the immediate type

52
Q

Indicate the correct association between the type of hypersensitivity and the component of the immune system mainly involved:
a) Type III, NK cells
b) Type IV, B lymphocytes
c) Type IV, CD4+ T lymphocytes
d) Type I, CD8+ T lymphocytes
e) None of the listed associations is correct

A

c) Type IV, CD4+ T lymphocytes

53
Q

Cells lacking the expression of MHC class I molecules can be killed by:
a) CD8+ T lymphocytes
b) macrophages
c) NK cells
d) all three populations
e) none of the three populations

A

c) NK cells