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Immunity Questions > Kahoot Questions > Flashcards

Kahoot Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which infectious disease has been eradicated by vaccination?
a) Smallpox
b) Measles
c) Poliomyelitis
d) Influenza

A

a) Smallpox

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2
Q

Primary immunodeficiencies,
a) are caused by genetic defects.
b) can be caused by an infectious agent
c) are always fatal.
d) some of them can be cured by bone marrow transplantation

A

a) are caused by genetic defects.
d) some of them can be cured by bone marrow transplantation

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3
Q

Autoimmune Diseases,
a) are characterized by an immune response toward an environmental antigen.
b) are characterized by an immune response toward self-antigen.
c) can target virtually any part of our body.

A

b) are characterized by an immune response toward self-antigen.
c) can target virtually any part of our body.

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4
Q

Therapeutic molecules called “biologicals” are,
a) engineered cells.
b) protein based.
c) small chemicals
d) cheap to produce.

A

b) protein based.

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5
Q

Which of these definitions best describes the term “epitope” ?
a) The portion of an antigen recognized by an immune receptor
b) A linear peptide recognized by an antibody
c) The three-dimensional structure recognized by an antibody

A

a) The portion of an antigen recognized by an immune receptor

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6
Q

What recognizes the T Cell Receptor (TCR) as an antigen?
a) Native protein in complex with MHC
b) Proteins in native form
c) Peptides derived from processed proteins, in complex with MHC
d) The MHC complex alone

A

c) Peptides derived from processed proteins, in complex with MHC
d) The MHC complex alone

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7
Q

The clonal selection process occurs when the antigen is recognized by:
a) Neutrophils
b) Mast cells
c) T lymphocytes
d) Eosinophils

A

c) T lymphocytes

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8
Q

Which of the following statements about plasma cells is true:
a) Plasma cells arise from T lymphocytes
b) Plasma cells secrete large amounts of antibodies
c) Plasma cells differentiate into B lymphocytes
d) Plasma cells secrete large amounts of IFNy

A

b) Plasma cells secrete large amounts of antibodies

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9
Q

Following a first exposure to the antigen, it is possible to detect specific antibodies in the
plasma after;
a) 5-7 days
b) 1 hour
c) Only after second exposure to the antigen
d) 3-5 weeks

A

a) 5-7 days

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10
Q

A single plasma cell produces:
a) Many different types of antibodies
b) The recognized antigen
c) Antibodies of a single specificity
d) Antibodies of two specificities

A

c) Antibodies of a single specificity

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11
Q

Immunological memory can be transferred experimentally by transferring:
a) Antibodies
b) Lymphocytes
c) Complement
d) Plasma

A

b) Lymphocytes

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12
Q

Naive lymphocytes recirculate:
a) from the blood circulation to the lymph nodes
b) from the lymphatic circulation to the site of inflammation
c) from the blood circulation to the spleen
d) from the blood circulation to the site of inflammation

A

a) from the blood circulation to the lymph nodes
c) from the blood circulation to the spleen

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13
Q

Plasma cells typically home:
a) in the brain
b) in mucosal tissues
c) in the bone marrow
d) in peripheral tissues

A

b) in mucosal tissues
c) in the bone marrow

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14
Q

Which are the fastest cells to reach the site of inflammation?:
a) monocytes
b) neutrophils
c) naive lymphocytes
d) dendritic cells

A

b) neutrophils

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15
Q

Migration through the vascular endothelium relies on:
a) chemokine signaling
b) adhesion molecules
c) vasoconstriction
d) increase speed of the blood flow

A

a) chemokine signaling
b) adhesion molecules

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16
Q

Naive T cell entry in the lymph node relies on:
a) CCR7-CCL19/21
b) S1PR1 upregulation
c) CXCR5 expression
d) CD62L-PNAd interactions

A

a) CCR7-CCL19/21
d) CD62L-PNAd interactions

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17
Q

The concentration of S1P is higher:
a) in the lymph node parenchyma
b) upon inflammation
c) in the blood and lymph
d) upon antigen encounter

A

c) in the blood and lymph

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18
Q

How many polypeptide chains make up an IgG?
a) Four, 2 heavy and 2 light
b) Two, an alpha chain and a beta chain
c) Two, a heavy chain and a light chain
d) twenty

A

a) Four, 2 heavy and 2 light

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19
Q

he variable region of antibodies;
a) is made up of VL and VH
b) is part of the FC region
c) contains the binding site for FCRN
d) is involved in antigen recognition

A

a) is made up of VL and VH
d) is involved in antigen recognition

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20
Q

Which of these immunoglobulin isotypes are multimeric?
a) IgG (monomeric)
b) IgA (dimeric)
c) IgM (pentameric)
d) IgD (monomeric)

A

b) IgA (dimeric)
c) IgM (pentameric)

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21
Q

Why are murine antibodies not suitable for human administration?
a) They will not be cleared from the circulation
b) They can be immunogenic
c) They will not mediate effector functions different from neutralisation (they can only facilitate
blocking)
d) They will not recognise the antigen

A

b) They can be immunogenic
c) They will not mediate effector functions different from neutralisation (they can only facilitate
blocking)

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22
Q

Which strategies can be used to generate human antibodies?
a) Immunization of transgenic animals carrying human Ig loci
b) BCR sequencing of human B cells
c) Immunization of experimental animals like rabbits
d) Immunization of experimental animals like mice

A

a) Immunization of transgenic animals carrying human Ig loci
b) BCR sequencing of human B cells

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23
Q

Antimicrobial peptides include:
a. Defensins
b. Cathelicidins
c. Lysozyme
d. Mucins

A

a. Defensins
b. Cathelicidins

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24
Q

Which of these TOLL-like receptors is expressed on the plasma membrane:
a. TLR3
b. TLR4
c. TLR8
d. TLR9

A

b. TLR4

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25
Q

NOD-Like Receptors are found:
a. in the cytoplasm
b. in the nucleus
c. in the endosomes
d. at the plasma membrane

A

a. in the cytoplasm

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26
Q

What is the molecular consequence of NOD1 and NOD2 activation?
a. Pyroptosis
b. Apoptosis
c. NFkB activation
d. Production of active form of IL-1β

A

c. NFkB activation

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27
Q

Which of these stimuli can activate the inflammasome?
a. Flagellin
b. Anthrax toxin
c. Reduction of K+ concentration
d. Uric acid crystals

A

a. Flagellin
b. Anthrax toxin
c. Reduction of K+ concentration
d. Uric acid crystals

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28
Q

Which complement subunits are potent mediators of inflammation?:
a) C3a
b) C3b
c) C5a
d) C4a

A

a) C3a
c) C5a

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29
Q

In physiological condition, what percentage of C3 undergoes proteolytic cleavage?:
a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 50%
d) C3 never undergoes cleavage

A

a) 1%

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30
Q

C1 is activated upon interaction with:
a) IgM
b) IgA
c) Pentraxins
d) MBL

A

a) IgM
c) Pentraxins

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31
Q

C3 deficiency is associated to:
a) Increased susceptibility to infection
b) Attacks of severe swelling
c) Deposition of immune complexes
d) Lysis of red blood cells.

A

a) Increased susceptibility to infection
c) Deposition of immune complexes

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32
Q

Which of these complement regulatory factors inhibit MAC assembly?
a) DAF
b) CD59
c) C1INH
d) Factor I

A

b) CD59

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33
Q

The majority of T cells express TCR composed by:
a) one alpha chain and one beta chain
b) one gamma chain and one delta chain
c) two alpha chains and two beta chains
d) one heavy chain and one light chain

A

a) one alpha chain and one beta chain

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34
Q

The variable part of the BCR heavy chain:
a) is recombined in the thymus
b) is encoded by a V, a D and a J fragment
c) is recombined in the spleen
d) contains CDR1, CDR2 and CDR3

A

b) is encoded by a V, a D and a J fragment
d) contains CDR1, CDR2 and CDR3

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35
Q

VDJ recombination
a) requires Rag1 and Rag2 expression
b) requires innate immune stimuli to occur
c) can lead to frameshift mutations in the recombined genes
d) occurs during B and T cell maturation

A

a) requires Rag1 and Rag2 expression
c) can lead to frameshift mutations in the recombined genes
d) occurs during B and T cell maturation

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36
Q

The pre-TCR complex
a) can recognize self antigens
b) interacts with MHC-I and MHC-II
c) is composed by a recombined beta chain and an invariant pre-alpha
d) promotes T cell survival

A

c) is composed by a recombined beta chain and an invariant pre-alpha
d) promotes T cell survival

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37
Q

The germline organization of the Ig and TCR loci
a) is present only in lymphocytes
b) is present in all cells
c) does not encode for a functional transcript
d) encodes for functional antigen receptors

A

b) is present in all cells
c) does not encode for a functional transcript

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38
Q

What contributes to clonal diversity in antigen receptor repertoire?
a) allelic diversity
b) combinatorial diversity
c) junctional diversity
d) mutational diversity

A

b) combinatorial diversity
c) junctional diversity

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39
Q

During T cell maturation, positive selection
a) promotes the survival of thymocytes that recognize self MHC complexes
b) allows the survival only of thymocytes that recognize self antigens
c) ensures the removal of thymocytes that recognize self antigens
d) occurs in the thymus

A

a) promotes the survival of thymocytes that recognize self MHC complexes
d) occurs in the thymus

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40
Q

During T cell maturation, negative selection
a) enhance the survival of clones with a functional TCR
b) allows the deletion of self reactive clones
c) require the presentation of antigen by thymic epithelial cells
d) benefit from AIRE expression

A

b) allows the deletion of self reactive clones
c) require the presentation of antigen by thymic epithelial cells
d) benefit from AIRE expression

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41
Q

Which of these pairs are correctly associated?
a) positive selection - central tolerance
b) positive selection - MHC restriction
c) negative selection - central tolerance
d) negative selection - MHC restriction

A

b) positive selection - MHC restriction
c) negative selection - central tolerance

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42
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis in APECED is associated to
a) presence of autoantibodies targeting peripheral tissues
b) presence of autoantibodies targeting cytokines as IL-17
c) presence of self reactive CD8+ T cells
d) presence of self reactive CD4+ T cells

A

b) presence of autoantibodies targeting cytokines as IL-17

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43
Q

The activation of naïve T cells:
a) Occurs in the tissue
b) Occurs in the secondary lymphoid organs
c) Requires the presentation of antigens by dendritic cells
d) Leads to apoptosis of the activated T cells

A

b) Occurs in the secondary lymphoid organs
c) Requires the presentation of antigens by dendritic cells

44
Q

Which of these interactions occurring between APCs and T cells lead to activation signals:
a) B7-CD28
b) PD-1-PDL-1/-2
c) B7-CTLA4
d) pMHC-TCR

A

a) B7-CD28
d) pMHC-TCR

45
Q

CTLA4 limits T cell activation by:
a) Competing with CD28 for interaction with B7 molecules
b) Interacting with CD69
c) Removing B7 molecules from the APC membrane
d) Inducing apoptosis in cells expressing it

A

a) Competing with CD28 for interaction with B7 molecules
c) Removing B7 molecules from the APC membrane

46
Q

PD-1 signaling:
a) Is a major axis for T cell activation
b) Is blocked by PD-1 blocking antibodies
c) Occurs mostly in Treg
d) Leads to inhibition of T cell effector functions

A

b) Is blocked by PD-1 blocking antibodies
d) Leads to inhibition of T cell effector functions

47
Q

Which of these variables influence T cell activation:
a) TCR affinity for the antigen
b) Antigen abundance
c) Dendritic cell activation status
d) Soluble factors

A

a) TCR affinity for the antigen
b) Antigen abundance
c) Dendritic cell activation status
d) Soluble factors

48
Q

CTLA4 Ig:
a) Is used as a treatment in cancer patients
b) Is used as a treatment to avoid graft rejection in transplanted patients
c) Promotes T cell effector functions
d) Specifically suppresses T cell activation

A

b) Is used as a treatment to avoid graft rejection in transplanted patients
d) Specifically suppresses T cell activation

49
Q

CD25 expression:
a) Is constitutive in all mature T cells
b) Occurs after antigen recognition
c) Leads to surface expression of high affinity receptor for IL-2
d) Is never present in Treg

A

b) Occurs after antigen recognition
c) Leads to surface expression of high affinity receptor for IL-2

50
Q

Th1 response is critical to eradicate:
a) Intracellular bacteria and parasites
b) Extracellular pathogens
c) Viruses
d) Helmints

A

a) Intracellular bacteria and parasites

51
Q

Which of these mediators are important for Th1 expression:
a) IFNγ
b) TGF-β
c) IL-12
d) IL-4

A

a) IFNγ
c) IL-12

52
Q

Which cells are the target of Th1 cells:
a) Macrophages
b) Neutrophils
c) Mast Cells
d) B cells

A

a) Macrophages

53
Q

B cells exposed to IFNγ will preferentially class switch toward IgA:
a) False
b) True

A

a) False

54
Q

Targeting of Th1 effectors is driven by:
a) TCR-pMHC-II
b) CD25
c) CD40-CD40L
d) CD80-CD28

A

a) TCR-pMHC-II

55
Q

Th2 response is critical to eradicate:
a) Helmints
b) Viruses
c) Extracellular bacteria
d) Intracellular bacteria

A

a) Helmints

56
Q

The transcription factor inducing Th2 polarization is:
a) GATA-3
b) RORγt
c) T-BET
d) FoxP3

A

a) GATA-3

57
Q

Which immune cells express high affinity receptors for IgE:
a) Mast cells
b) Eosinophils
c) Neutrophils
d) Basophils

A

a) Mast cells
d) Basophils

58
Q

IL-5 produced by Th2 activates:
a) Eosinophils
b) B cells
c) Tfh
d) M2 macrophages

A

a) Eosinophils

59
Q

Which of these effectors perform its effector function in secondary lymphoid organs:
a) Tfh
b) Th1
c) Th2
d) Th17

A

a) Tfh

60
Q

What are the consequences of loss of function mutation in CD40L gene:
a) Impaired production of IgG
b) Impaired production of IgG, IgA, IgE
c) Lack of intestinal Th17
d) Increased susceptibility to infections

A

b) Impaired production of IgG, IgA, IgE

61
Q

Hyper IgE syndrome is caused by mutations that:
a) Prevent STAT3 signaling
b) Abrogate Th17 induction
c) Prevent IFNγ production
d) Abrogate germinal center formation

A

b) Abrogate Th17 induction

62
Q

T independent humoral responses lead to the production of:
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE

A

B. IgM

63
Q

Which of these stimuli can indicate a T independent response?
A. Multivalent antigens as polysaccharides
B. Monovalent protein antigens
C. Strong TLR agonists

A

A. Multivalent antigens as polysaccharides
C. Strong TLR agonists

64
Q

Antigen endocytosis by B cells relies on?
A. CR2
B. BCR
C. FCgR
D. TCR

A

B. BCR

65
Q

Follicular dendritic cells acquire immune complexes thanks to?
A. Complement receptor CR2
B. Venous circulation
C. Lymphatic circulation
D. TLRs

A

A. Complement receptor CR2
C. Lymphatic circulation

66
Q

Which proteins are deputed to BCR signaling?
a. Igɑ and Igß
b. CD3ε
c. Fc
d. FcγR

A

a. Igɑ and Igß

67
Q

Which cell types populate the germinal center light zone?
A. Follicular dendritic cells (FDCs)
B. B cells
C. DCs
D. T follicular helper (Tfh)

A

A. Follicular dendritic cells (FDCs)
B. B cells
D. T follicular helper (Tfh)

68
Q

Class switch:
A. alters the variable region of immunoglobulin.
B. is influenced by cytokines.
C. does not require AID expression.
D. induces changes in the heavy chain.

A

B. is influenced by cytokines.
D. induces changes in the heavy chain.

69
Q

In plasma cells, production of soluble Ig, rather than membrane bound, is made possible
by?
A. VDJ recombination
B. class switch
C. accumulation of somatic mutations
D. alternative RNA splicing

A

D. alternative RNA splicing

70
Q

Long lived plasma cells home:
A. in the spleen
B. in lymph nodes
C. in the bone marrow
D. in peripheral tissues
Long lived plasma cells home is bone marrow which is where they survive for years.

A

C. in the bone marrow

71
Q

Somatic hypermutation of Ig genes:
A. leads to mutations in the heavy chain constant region.
B. can occur outside of the germinal center.
C. alters Ig antigen binding site.
D. requires AID expression.

A

C. alters Ig antigen binding site.
D. requires AID expression.

72
Q

Affinity based selection:
A. occurs in the dark zone.
B. occurs in the light zone.
C. requires B-T cell interaction.
D. does not require MHC-II expression.

A

B. occurs in the light zone.
C. requires B-T cell interaction.

73
Q

Microbe neutralization by antibodies requires:
a. The Fc portion
b. The antigen-binding site
c. Fc receptors
d. Complement receptors

A

b. The antigen-binding site

74
Q

Which of these antibody characteristics are important for neutralization?
a. Epitope specificity
b. Isotype
c. Affinity
d. Ability to recruit complement

A

c. Affinity

75
Q

Which cell type is involved in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
a. NK
b. B lymphocytes
c. T lymphocytes
d. Neutrophils

A

a. NK

76
Q

Opsonization of microbes:
a. Renders them more susceptible to phagocytosis
b. Is carried out by IgM, IgG, and complement
c. Is carried out only by IgG
d. Is carried out by IgA

A

a. Renders them more susceptible to phagocytosis
b. Is carried out by IgM, IgG, and complement

77
Q

FcgRIIB (CD32) crosslink in B cells:
a. Causes inhibition of B cell activation
b. Leads to the enhancement of BCR signaling
c. Enhances phagocytosis in B cells
d. Can lead to antigen-dependent or independent B-cell inhibition

A

a. Causes inhibition of B cell activation
d. Can lead to antigen-dependent or independent B-cell inhibition

78
Q

Which of the following is the main mediator/initiator of Type II Hypersensitivity reactions?
a) Antibodies (IgG and IgM)
b) Mast cells
c) Erythrocytes
d) Histamine

A

a) Antibodies (IgG and IgM)

79
Q

Which of the following is an example of organ specific autoimmune disease?
a) Rheumatoid arthritis
b) Psoriasis
c) Addison’s disease
d) Myasthenia gravis

A

d) Myasthenia gravis

80
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis involves:
a) IgE
b) Antibodies to cell surface antigens
c) Soluble immune complexes
d) Stimulatory antibodies

A

b) Antibodies to cell surface antigens

81
Q

The main antibodies involved in Type II Hypersensitivity reactions are:
a) IgD and IgM
b) IgG and IgM
c) IgE and IgA
d) IgA and IgM

A

b) IgG and IgM

82
Q

Patients with blood type A Rh- have the following antibodies:
a) B specific IgG
b) B specific IgM
c) Rh specific IgG
d) B specific IgG

A

b) B specific IgM

83
Q

Patients with blood type 0 Rh+ have the following antibodies:
a) A and B specific IgM
b) A and B specific IgG
c) A and B specific IgM, Rh specific IgG
d) No erythrocyte specific antibodies

A

a) A and B specific IgM

84
Q

Patients with AB blood type can receive plasma from:
a) AB donors
b) B donors
c) A donors
d) 0 donors

A

a) AB donors

85
Q

Patients with AB blood type can receive RBCs from:
a) AB donors
b) B donors
c) A donors
d) All answers are correct

A

d) All answers are correct

86
Q

Hemolysis in case of AB0 incompatibility is:
a) Intravascular
b) Extravascular
c) Driven by complement
d) Mediated by CD8 T cells

A

a) Intravascular

87
Q

Frustrated phagocytosis occurs when:
a) The opsonized target cannot be engulfed by phagocytes
b) The opsonized target is on a basement membrane
c) It is independent from FCgamma receptors and complement receptors
d) It is carried out by NK

A

a) The opsonized target cannot be engulfed by phagocytes
b) The opsonized target is on a basement membrane

88
Q

Grave’s disease patients show:
a) Hypothyroidism
b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Agonistic antibodies specific for TSH receptors
d) Low levels of T3 and T4

A

b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Agonistic antibodies specific for TSH receptors

89
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions are caused by:
a) Cd8
b) antibodies
c) immune complexes
d) Cd4 t-cells

A

b) antibodies
c) immune complexes

90
Q

Cause of antigen persistence in type III hypersensitivity reactions are:
a) Chronic Infection
b) Auto immunity towards soluble circulating antigens
c) repeated inhalation of environmental antigens
d) Like the antibodies in the bird-cancer disease, they can be raised on the environmental
antigens
e) Immunodeficiency

A

a) Chronic Infection
b) Auto immunity towards soluble circulating antigens
c) repeated inhalation of environmental antigens
e) Immunodeficiency

91
Q

Which of these diseases are driven by type 3 hypersensitivity responses?
a) Systemic lupus
b) Farmer’s lung
c) Graves’ disease
d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

a) Systemic lupus
b) Farmer’s lung

92
Q

Which of these mediators are important players in type IV hypersensitivity response?
A. T cells
B. IgE antbodies
C. IgM antbodies
D. Complement system

A

A. T cells

93
Q

Which antigens can trigger a type IV hypersensitivity response?
A. Allergens
B. Autoantigens
C. Persistent non self antigens
D. Antigens present in immune complexes

A

B. Autoantigens
C. Persistent non self antigens

94
Q

In which ways T cells can mediate damage?
A. Complement activation
B. Direct cytotoxicity
C. Cytokine mediated inflammation
D. Mast cell degranulation

A

B. Direct cytotoxicity
C. Cytokine mediated inflammation

95
Q

Delayed type hypersensitivity (DTH) is maximal:
A. 10 minutes after challenge
B. 10 hours after challenge
C. 6 hours after challenge
D. 48 hours after challenge

A

D. 48 hours after challenge

96
Q

Granulomas:

A. Can form in consequence of chronic DTH.
B. Are nodules of inflammatory tissue.
C. Are mostly composed of neutrophils.
D. Are mostly composed of monocytes.

A

A. Can form in consequence of chronic DTH.
B. Are nodules of inflammatory tissue.

97
Q

Tolerance toward self-antigen
a) Is established in primary lymphoid organs.
b) Is established in secondary lymphoid organs.
c) Is established in primary lymphoid organs and in periphery.
d) Is established thanks to systemic immunosupression.

A

c) Is established in primary lymphoid organs and in periphery.

98
Q

The transcription factor AIRE
a) Leads to ectopic expression of tissue specific antigen by MTEC.
b) Is important for positive selection of thymocytes.
c) Is important for negative selection of thymocytes.
d) Is important for induction of T cell anergy.

A

a) Leads to ectopic expression of tissue specific antigen by MTEC.
c) Is important for negative selection of thymocytes.

99
Q

Exposure of mature CD4+4 T cells to an antigen in the absence of co-stimulaton leads to
a) Differentiation into Treg.
b) Allergy.
c) Secretion of TGFb and IL-10.
d) Expression of CD25.

A

b) Allergy.

100
Q

Receptor editing in B cells
a) Takes place in spleen.
b) Takes place in bone marrow.
c) Is a mechanism of central tolerance.
d) Leads to deletion of self-reactive B cells clones.

A

b) Takes place in bone marrow.
c) Is a mechanism of central tolerance.

101
Q

Autoimmunity might be triggered by.
a) Increased expression and persistence of self-antigens.
b) Structural changes leading to neoantigen formation.
c) Defects in T cell positive selection.
d) Genetic polymorphisms in the TCR loci.

A

a) Increased expression and persistence of self-antigens.
b) Structural changes leading to neoantigen formation.

102
Q

Molecular mimicry
a) Apples to innate immune responses.
b) Can cause a break of tolerance, leading to autoimmunity.
c) Occurs in cases of structural similarity between microbial and self-antigen.
d) Is a possible mechanism of bystander activation.

A

b) Can cause a break of tolerance, leading to autoimmunity.
c) Occurs in cases of structural similarity between microbial and self-antigen.

103
Q

Presence of T cells inside the tumor tissue:
a) is usually associated with better prognosis
b) occurs equally in all tumors
c) is frequently associated with a worse prognosis
d) can be experimentally quantified in clinical samples

A

a) is usually associated with better prognosis
d) can be experimentally quantified in clinical samples

104
Q

Tumor neoantigens:
a) are antigens overexpressed by genes expressed in tumor cells
b) are typically conserved across patients
c) are antigens encoded by genes mutated in tumor cells
d) have a large potential for immunotherapy

A

c) are antigens encoded by genes mutated in tumor cells
d) have a large potential for immunotherapy

105
Q

Which of these are the mechanisms of tumor immune evasion:
a) inhibition of T cell activation
b) inhibition of T cell effector function
c) induction/recruitment of Treg ar the tumor site
d) upregulation of MHC-I complexes

A

a) inhibition of T cell activation
b) inhibition of T cell effector function
c) induction/recruitment of Treg ar the tumor site

106
Q

Chimeric Antigen Receptors (CAR) engineered T cells:
a) recognize antigen in a MHC independent fashion
b) are approved for some hematological malignancies
c) are approved in therapy for solid tumors
d) are characterized by cheap manufacturing process

A

a) recognize antigen in a MHC independent fashion
b) are approved for some hematological malignancies

Immunity Questions (2 decks)

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