PAST PAPER Qs (Open questions) Flashcards

1
Q

Describe misconduct in authorship such as GIFT AUTHORSHIP and AUTHORSHIP ACHIEVED BY COERCION

A

GIFT AUTHORSHIP = offering authorship to someone who has not fulfilled criteria for authorship (e.g in exchange for a gift)

AUTHORSHIP BY COERCION = when a senior researcher demands to be an author on all publications from the lab, regardless of whether he fulfils the criteria for authorship

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2
Q

Describe misconduct in authorship such as UNSOLICITED AUTHORSHIP and REFUSAL TO ACCEPT RESPONSIBILITY AS AN AUTHOR

A

UNSOLICITED AUTHORSHIP = when someone is listed as an author without their knowledge or consent
[always involves GHOST AUTHORSHIP -> when the person who really wrote the paper is not listed as an author]

REFUSAL TO ACCEPT AUTHORSHIP = failure to accept responsibility for publication

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3
Q

Define Plagiarism and Self-plagiarism

A

PLAGIARISM = claiming the work of another to be one’s own

SELF-PLAGIARISM = plagiarism from one’s own publications

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4
Q

What is Scientific misconduct?

A

Regarded as illicit so is difficult to assess its general prevalence or to investigate specific instances of misconduct

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5
Q

What is Fabrication of data and results?

A

The most blatant form of misconduct affecting truth claims of scientific findings. It ranges from invention of all data and results reported to the invention of some of it.

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6
Q

Describe Imalas and Salami publications

A

IMALAS PUBLICATION = sequential publishing of the same results with few new data included in the analysis each time

SALAMI = the same project published in different publications to maximise the number of papers published

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7
Q

Describe the conditions according to the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors Authorship Criteria that researcher should meet to be named as author of the publication

A
  • Substantial contributions to the conception of the work
  • Drafting the work
  • Final approval of the version to be published
  • Being accountable on answering to any questions related to the accuracy of work
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8
Q

What is the basic function of literature review?

A
  • Provides theoretical background to the study
  • Helps establish links between what has been proposed to examine and what has already been studied
  • Enables to show how findings have contributed to the existing body of knowledge in profession
  • Helps integrate research findings
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9
Q

Describe duplicate publication and when its generally accepted

A

It is only acceptable if first publication is in an international journal and the second is in a national, native language and relationship between two papers is made clear

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10
Q

Define peer review process

A
  • Evaluation of a research by others working in the same field
  • Helps ensure that the published paper answers meaningful research questions and draws accurate conclusions based on professionally executed experimentation
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11
Q

Describe the basic parts of scientific paper

A
  • Introduction
  • Methods and material
  • Results
  • Discussion
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12
Q

Describe the role of the institutional revie board (IRB)

A
  • To ensure that research ethics are adhered to by making researchers submit a research protocol including relevant information and informed consents
  • To ensure that subjects are not exploited
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13
Q

What are the origins of research problems?

A
  • From observations collected in conjunction with medical procedures
  • From practical issues that clinicians confront in managing patients
  • From published scientific literature
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14
Q

Importance of the basic characteristics of a good research problem when the clinical research problem is considered important

A

Considered important is its resolution has the potential, to clarify a significant issue affecting the public health and ultimately cause the clinician to decide that he would not have taken, had the problem been addressed

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15
Q

The problem should be feasible in which two aspects?

A
  • Proposed research should be susceptible to empirical evaluation
  • Research question should be answerable
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16
Q

The problem should be feasible in a practical level:

A
  • Investigator must decide early on if he has the resources to address within a realistic time frame + reasonable cost
  • Avoid selecting a problem that is too broad
  • Problem should not be too narrowly defined
  • Investigator can conduct a pilot study -> Provide info about complexities
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17
Q

In terms of feasibility of the research problem, what are the factors affecting the time of implementation?

A
  • Interval needed for subject enrolment
  • Time involved in: Administering the intervention, Collecting data on inputs, assessing outcome
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18
Q

Factors affecting the feasibility of the study regarding resources include all except:

A
  • Costs of measurement procedures
  • Costs of intervention
  • Costs of data collection
  • Costs of equipment, supplies and travel
  • Technical expertise
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19
Q

Define Proportionate risk, informed consent, role reversal and integrity design

A

PROPORTIONATE RISK = is the risk outweighed by the potential benefit to that subject?

INFORMED CONSENT = is the subject aware of the aims of the study? if so, is the subject aware of any adverse consequences that might arise in their participation?

ROLE REVERSAL = would the investigator be willing to trade places with the subject?

INTEGRITY OF DESIGN = is the study designed to warrant the expenditure of time and effort or the potential risk to the patient?

20
Q

What are the different types of research questions?

A
  • DESCRIPTIVE (what is occurring?)
  • RELATIONAL (what is the association between two or more variables?)
  • CAUSAL (does the treatment affect one or more outcomes?)
21
Q

What are the types of research questions according to trichotomy?

A
  • WHAT - describe presence, magnitude and patterns in relationships
  • WHY - describe causes of, reasons for and explanations for relationships
  • HOW - deal with methods from bringing about desired changes
22
Q

What is a clinical trial protocol?

A

A written document that provides the description of the rationale for the trial, the hypothesis to be studied, the overall design and the methods to carry out and analyse the trial

23
Q

What does the Trail protocol require?

A
  • To have written record of how the trial is to be conducted
  • To obtain official approval to conduct the trial
  • To apply for funding
24
Q

What are Primary and Secondary outcomes?

A
  • PRIMARY (MAJOR OUTCOMES) = drive the study design
  • SECONDARY (OUTCOMES OF LESSER IMPORTANCE) = provide supportive information
25
Q

What are the basic components of informed consent?

A
  • Description of study
  • What is expected of the patient
  • Risks involved in any tests
  • Alternative treatments available
  • Assurance that you will give the patient the best available treatment
26
Q

What are Inclusion and Exclusion criteria?

A

Inclusion criteria = everything a subject must have to be included

Exclusion criteria = factors that would make a subject ineligible to be included

27
Q

What are the steps comprising the research process?

A

1) Identify the problem
2) Restate the question as a hypothesis
3) Review published literature to determine if the hypothesis has already been evaluated properly
4) Identify all relevant variables
5) Develop a research design and analytical plan to test the hypothesis
6) Construct data collection

28
Q

Phase I of clinical trial

A
  • Toxicity and side effects
  • Identify a maximum tolerated dose
  • Small group of healthy volunteers at a very low dose
  • Dose increased and administered to new patients until adverse reactions occur
29
Q

Phase II of clinical trial

A
  • Treatment efficacy in the form of dose response
  • Small samples are used to study dose response
    [sample is too small to draw firm conclusions]
  • Volunteers are people with disorder
  • Pharmokinetics studies (half-life, distribution) are part of both Phase I and II
30
Q

Phase III of clinical trial

A
  • Comparison of new drug with established treatment or placebo used to document the efficacy of a new drug before the manufacturer applies for marketing authorisation
  • Placebo controlled to avoid biased results
  • Larger renormalised controlled trial used for comparison
31
Q

Phase IV of clinical trial

A
  • Post marketing studies
  • Covers long-term studies of safety and pure marketing
  • Significant information about toxicity of drug
32
Q

In terms of causality, what does the Dose-response relationship stand for?

A
  • Increasing levels of exposure are associated with either and increasing or decreasing risk of outcome
  • Considered strong evidence for causal relationship between exposure and outcome
33
Q

Define renormalised blind trial

A
  • Random allocation of treatments (intervention and placebo) to selected people
  • Focuses on the future
  • Subjects are people with particular disease -> CONVENIENCE SAMPLING therefore not random selection
34
Q

Describe Parallel Group

A
  • Treatment efficacy is compared between the two treatment groups
  • Test group receives new drug, Control group receives established treatment & Placebo
  • Easy
  • Less time consuming
35
Q

Describe Factorial Trial

A
  • Combinations of treatments can be studied
  • Most complicated
36
Q

Describe Crossover trial

A
  • All patients receive both treatments
  • Sequence of treatment varies between patients
37
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of Crossover trials?

A

ADVANTAGE:
- Fewer patients (reduce time + cost)
- Precise

DISADVANTAGE:
- More time consuming + resources
- Results sometimes hard to interpret due to drug interactions

38
Q

Describe Longitudinal trial

A
  • Outcomes measured overtime
  • Efficacy can be compared both between treatment groups and within treatment groups overtime
39
Q

Define Probability and Non-probability sampling

A

Probability sampling = Researcher sets a collection of a few criteria and chooses members of a population randomly

Non-probability sampling = Researcher chooses members for research in a non-random manner

40
Q

Describe Cluster sampling

A

A cluster sample is a random sample of natural groupings of individuals in a population

It is very useful when the population is widely dispersed and is impractical to list and sample from all its elements

41
Q

In terms of causality, what does the biological plausibility stand for?

A
  • Proposal of a causal relationship, considered biologically plausible
  • evidence comes from observational or scientific literature rather than controlled studies
41
Q

Define population and a sample

A

Population = A complete set of people with a specified set of characteristics

Sample = A subset of the population

41
Q

Which methods are Probability Sampling?

A
  • Cluster sample
  • Stratified random sample
  • Systematic sample
  • Simple random sample
42
Q

Which methods are Non-probability sampling?

A
  • Convenience sample
  • Voluntary response sample
  • Purposive sample
  • Snowball/Chain sample
  • Quota sample
43
Q

Describe the procedures for Incidence calculation

A

Incidence is defined as the number of individuals newly diagnosed with disease in a defined time period, and incidence rate is the incidence divided by the length of this time period

Incidence rate = Total number of new cases of a specific disease during a given time period / Total population at risk during the same time period X 100

44
Q

Describe the procedures for calculation of Prevalence

A

Prevalence is defined as the proportion of a population with a given disease at a set point in time

Prevalence rate = All new and pre-existing cases of a specific disease during a given time period / Total population during the same time period X 100

45
Q

Describe the procedures for calculation of Crude Death Rate

A

Crude death rate = # of deaths / Total population X 1000