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MRCP PART 1 > Past P 2 > Flashcards

Past P 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does ADH do

A

Increase Aquaporin-2 channels in collecting duct

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2
Q

Post chemo most at risk of neutropenic sepsis which day

A

Day 10

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3
Q

Vinblastine mechanism

A

Binds to microtubular proteins
[causes metaphase arrest]

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4
Q

Adrenic receptors
a1
b1
b2

A

a1 - Smooth muscle contraction
-G protein-coupled actives phospholipase C

b1- Heart Kidneys
-G protein-coupled actives adenyl cyclase

b2 - Bronchioles, Visceral smooth muscle, skeletal muscle
-G protein-coupled actives adenyl cyclase

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5
Q

Muscles supplied by median nerve

A

Abductor pollis brevis
Flexor pollis longus (in forarm)

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6
Q

New stable mild angina for 1 year- What do you do?

A

Don’t need ETT as stable

Bisop (or other cardioselective bb)

/ cardioselective CCB [verapamil and diltiazem]

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7
Q

Latex allergy which foods

A

Banana, chesnut, kiwi, avocado

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8
Q

Suspected osteomyelitis of diabetic foot. MRI or C&S more important

A

MRI

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9
Q

MODY - most common?
What if renal cysts?
What if no symptoms and incidental finding?

A

HNF-alpha most common

HNF-beta if you have cysts

Glucokinase - mild form

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10
Q

1st line antihypertensive in preg

A

Labetalol
[then methyldopa / CCB]

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11
Q

Sildenafil which type of PDE

A

PDE-5 inhibitor

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12
Q

Threadworm Rx

A

Mebendazole, then second dose after 2-3 weeks

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13
Q

Macular oedema. Not for laser rx?

A

VGEF inhibitors

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14
Q

What is the main ketoacid in DKA

A

Beta-hydroxybutyrate

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15
Q

Rtixumab is anti-

A

Anti-CD20

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16
Q

Sickle painful crisis. Rx for pain

A

Opiates required

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17
Q

Inferior stemi -> complete HB. Rate 30 and hypotensive. Rx ?

A

Transcutaneous pacing on the way to PCI

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18
Q

Left coronary artery anatomy. Arises? Becomes?

A

Just above the left aortic cusp
-Then divides into Left Anterior descending and circumflex

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19
Q

Karnovsky score?

A

Marker of function pre chemo.
under 60% = poor outcomes

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20
Q

Travel then come back with IBS-type illness? Rx?

A

Giardia
Metronidazole course
[Or single dose Tinidazole]

[Campylobacter more acute gastroenteritis]

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20
Q

Travel then come back with IBS-type illness? Rx?

A

Giardia
Metronidazole course
[Or single dose Tinidazole]

[Campylobacter more acute gastroenteritis]

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21
Q

Cluster headache Sx but in woman and shorter duration and higher frequency of headaches? Rx?

A

Paroxysmal hemicrania

Indomethacin

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22
Q

Radio-iodine and preg ? Mother and father advice

A

Teratogenic

Should not get preg for 6 months after
Men shouldn’t father children for 4 months

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23
Q

Reactive arthritis 1st line

A

NSAIDS Eg Naproxen

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24
Q

IIH on COCP order of CT / LP / Cesation of COCP

A

CT
LP
Cessation

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25
Q

Learning difficulty, high arched palate, mitral valve prolapse, joint laxicity, big ears, obese

A

Fragile X

[Homocystinuria - unlikely to be obese or have big ears.]

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26
Q

When Abx in cat scratch disease

A

Immunocompromised / severe Sx

[Ciprofloxaxin]

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27
Q

Isoniazid mechanism

A

Inhibits fatty acid synthesis

[fatty acids in liver - bit tenuous good luck]

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28
Q

What inhibits DD transpeptidase

A

Penicillins

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29
Q

what inhibits DNA Gyrase

A

quinolones - eg cipro

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30
Q

what inhibits RNA synthesis

A

Macrolides

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31
Q

Tired, hypotensive, Raised bicarb, HypoK = defect where?

A

Gentleman’s
Distal convoluted tubule

[Adrenal failure would have high K, conns would be hypertensive,
Barters usually presents in childhood]

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32
Q

Which hormone is usually under continuous inhibition

A

Prolactin

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33
Q

Molluscum contagiosum - Ix/rx

A

Doesn’t need any usually

[Q should indicate need for hiv test etc.]

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34
Q

Pie chart needs how many groups

A

At least 3 for MRCP

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35
Q

Heart where do you find Actin, troponin, Myosin?

What structure is actin, and in who is it deficient?

A

Thin filaments - Actin + trop

Thick filaments - myosin

Actin is double a-helix. HOCM deficient

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36
Q

Acanthosis nigrans = what when malignant

A

Gastric tumours in 90% of cases
[adenocarcinoma usually]

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37
Q

Erythema nodosum, macrocytic anaemia and normal sigmoidoscopy… What other aspects of question to differentiate coeliac vs crohns

A

Chrons - nail ridging

Coeliac - steathorrea sometimes

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38
Q

Hypocalcuric hypercalcaemia usual Rx

A

Reassure - HyperCa levels usually very stable

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39
Q

Severe diarrhoea symptoms post transplant on - which drug is cause

A

Mycophenolate

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40
Q

Pseudogout acute Rx

A

Colchicine - same as gout

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41
Q

Influenza -> Acute cavitating pneumonia Rx? If pen allergic?

A

IV fluclox

Macrolide

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42
Q

ACEi when can you get first episode of angiodema

A

straight away or not for many years.

Ie occurring after 5 years of Rx it is still the likely cause

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43
Q

Where is the posterior cerebellar artery found

A

Next to the posterior communicating artery

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44
Q

COCP may cause which rash

A

Erythema nodosum

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45
Q

Polycythemia -> Stroke
Rx?

A

Aspirin - just like normal

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46
Q

Rheum - now nodule compressing radial nerve Rx?

A

Surgical excision

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47
Q

Difference between asbestos plaques and asbestosis as the answer to a question

A

Plaques are incidental and do not cause symptoms.

If breathlessness / cough = asbestosis

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48
Q

Why HyperCa in thyrotoxicosis

A

Thyroxine stimulates osteoclasts

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49
Q

P vivax / ovale have which stage of life cycle not found in falciparum

A

Hypnozoites

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50
Q

2 main DMARDs for UC

A

Azathioprine / 6-metacaptopurine

[Infliximab]

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51
Q

Liver referral in paracetamol OD before 48hrs
INR?
Cr?
BP?
2 things on blood gas?

A

INR >2
Cr >200
SBP <80 despite fluids
BM <4
Acidosis

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52
Q

How many single nucleotide polymorphisms have been mapped as part of the genome project

A

3.7 million

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53
Q

Spironolactone acts on

A

Distal convoluted tubule

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54
Q

What are the 2 types of Hb that carry sickle trait

A

HbS
HbC

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55
Q

Cryoglobulinaemia and lymphadenopathy

A

NHL

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56
Q

Thermoregulation and circadian rhythms are controlled where

A

Anterior hypothalamic nucleus

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57
Q

Who gets Levothyroxine titrated very slowly

A

Old people
[high risk arrythmias]

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58
Q

MI + stents. What factor is most associated with future cardiac events

A

CAD - especially if >1 vessel stent required

More important than obesity, LDL levels …

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59
Q

Haemochromatosis often get what joint issue

A

Pseudogout (often bilat)

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60
Q

Where is landmark for subclavian line

A

1cm inferior to the junction of the middle and medial section of clavicle

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61
Q

Monitor rivaroxaban compliance

A

PT time

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62
Q

Pathology of lithium -> DI

A

Reduces cAMP-mediated aquaporin-2 expression

[Less aquaporins -> less water reabsorbed]

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63
Q

Joint erosions of Anti-CCP worse prognosis in Rhem A

A

Anti CCP

[Joint erosions likely just delayed presentation]

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64
Q

Erythema multiform most commonly what? When would you think of the other cause?

A

Herpes simplex - most common
[May just have vague Sx]

Symptoms of pneumonia -> mycoplasma

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65
Q

Which receptor is target in therapy for B-cell NHL?

A

CD20
[Rituxumab]

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66
Q

What are the mitochondrial inherited disorders

A

Conveniently can remember most of them using DIDMOAD - both this syndrome and all the parts of it
-Just add an EN to make DIDMOADEN

Diabetes insipidus
Diabetes Mellitus
Optic Atrophy
Deafness
Epilepsy
Neuropathy

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67
Q

Parietal Left vs Right side most common issue

A

Right - Visual spacial navigation

Left - Not understanding or being able to speak language

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68
Q

Visual memory defect if stroke affects where?

A

Right temporal lobe

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69
Q

What does evolocumab do?mechanism?

A

PCSK9 inhibitor
-> Prevents LDL receptor degradation

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70
Q

How does Ezetimbine work?

A

Inhibits NCP1L1
-> Reduces cholesterol absorption from GI

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71
Q

Rx in severe hereditary spherocytosis

A

Splenectomy

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72
Q

Neutropenic spesis 1st line? If pen allergic?

A

Taz + gent

Vanc, cipro + single dose gent

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73
Q

CN 3 palsy if Posterior communicating / vertebral isn’t an option

A

Internal carotid

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74
Q

Who classically get de Quervain’s tendosynovitis
Rx?

A

Mums of babies 6-12 months
->due to repeated picking them up

Splint / steroid injection

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75
Q

calcium carbonate reduces the absorption of what?

A

Levothyroxine
Levofloxacin (+ quinilones)
[Iron, zinc, strontium]

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76
Q

Aspirin in preg with antiphospholipid. When would you add in prophylactic LMWH ?

A

> 2 miscarriages

Or any fetal loss after 10 weeks gestation

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77
Q

Why hypoNa in thiazide diuretics

A

Distal tubule Na loss

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78
Q

Suspected pneumococcal meningitis what might be added to Ceftriaxone

A

Vanc + cef

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79
Q

Kleinfelters genetics

A

XXY

[Not XYY. Remember they have normal XY with some feminism Eg breast development so must have an extra X]

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80
Q

Heyde with normal OGD / colonoscopy what next?

A

Capsule endoscopy

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81
Q

Parkinsonism and urinary incontinence Ix?

A

MRI / CT first

Then LP

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82
Q

Lupus membranous nephropathy Rx?

A

Mycophenolate

Cyclophosphamide second line

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83
Q

Benzbromarone used in? How does it work? Commonly used in combination with?

A

Gout - prevents uric acid resorption in the kidney
-URAT-1 inhibitor

Often used with allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor
-Inhibits uric acid formation

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84
Q

What inflammatory cytokine key in gout? Drug targeting it?

A

IL-1
Canakinumab

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85
Q

Gastroparesis Sx in long-term diabetic. Rx?

A

Domperidone

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86
Q

Chinese patient is given carbamazepine. what happens next and why?

A

SJS

Probably HLA-B1502

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87
Q

Severe COPD and is already on salbutamol. What inhaler to add?

A

Inhaled steroid (high dose Eg 500mcgBD) and LAMA

Eg
Fluticasone/Salmeterol 500/50mcg BD

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88
Q

Varenicline used for? mechanism?

A

Smoking cessation
Partial nicotinic agonist

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89
Q

MgSO4 mechanism in acute asthma

A

Decreased histamine
Inhibits smooth muscle contraction
Inhibit Ach

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90
Q

Which pneumonia if have cold sore?

A

Strep pneumo

[Reactivates herpes simplex-1 for some reason]

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91
Q

1st line rescue therapy UC

A

Ciclosporin

Then Infliximab

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92
Q

Death of parter is massive risk for suicide

A

IDK cba thinking to to make that a flash card

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93
Q

Metformin mechanism

A

Indirect AMP kinase activator

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94
Q

Gliclazide mechanism

A

ATP sensitive potassium channel activator

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95
Q

Nintedanib used for? Mechanism

A

Pulm fibrosis
Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

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96
Q

Long QT due to which ion channel

A

Potassium

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97
Q

The senescence of cells is what

A

Cessation of mitosis - due to telomere shortening to critical point

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98
Q

Eosin-5-maleimide binding test used for

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

[Basically looks at the fragility]

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99
Q

First line long QT? When ICD?
What is option if people don’t respond to b blockers and don’t want an ICD

A

Beta blockers

ICD if collapse secondary to VT or unsuccessful b blockers

Stellate ganglionectomy

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100
Q

ACEi, BB and frusemide in heart failure, but worsening - what’s next step?

A

Change ACEi to sacubitril valsartan
[Entresto]

101
Q

When ivabradine in HF

A

Pulse >75 and reduced EF

102
Q

Young person with recurrent bacterial sinusitis and pneumonias with normal Ig’s in question has which Ig deficiency?

A

IgG subclass deficiency

103
Q

How long after significant blood transfusions can you re-check HbA1c?

104
Q

Primary PTX 3cm rx?

A

Aspirate 1st line
[Drain if unsucsessful]

105
Q

Haemochromatosis in Q with raised transferrin sats. What is the next step for Dx?

A

Genetic testing

[Liver biopsy later]

106
Q

Medical epicondylitis usually affects which nerve?

107
Q

72 slow visual loss
Blind spot in the middle of vision of one eye.
Pigment deposition in retina with sub-retinal haemorrhage + pigment deposition in other eye =?
Rx?

A

Wet macular degeneration

VGEF inhibitors
Eg Bevacizumab

[Bev and her old eyes]

108
Q

Why delayed hypos with alcohol consumption

A

Reduced glucogenesis
[Often delayed slighly]

109
Q

Bitemporal inferior quadranopia - where is lesion?

A

Rathke’s pouch
[Suprasellar lesion and probably a craniopharyngioma]

110
Q

FEV values for contraindication for lung ca?

A

<2L for pneumonectomy
<1.5L for lobectomy

111
Q

Cut off karnofsky score for good / poor prognosis in AML

A

60% more = good

112
Q

Strep Gallolyticus endocarditis is from?

A

Colon Ca

[Its the new name for Strep Bovis LOL]

113
Q

Recurrent infections especially N meningitis has what deficiency?

A

C5-9

[1,2,4 is SLE
IgG subclass would be recurrent respiratory infections]

114
Q
  1. Peripheral neuropathy.
    Osteoperosis. Abdo pain. Heritability
    Purple purpuric rash = ? deficiency of?
A

Fabry disease
Alpha-galactosidase

115
Q

What is esomeprazole

A

S isomer of omeprazole

116
Q

Quinilone resistant bacteria
2 Common reasons why?

A

DNA gyrase mutation
Decreased membrane Protein F

117
Q

Ribosomal mutation gives bacteria resistance to

A

Macrolides

118
Q

N acetyl transferase mutation gives bacteria resistance to

A

Aminoglycosides

119
Q

Disseminated gonorrhoea Abx

A

Cef + azithro

120
Q

Ulcerative colitis - develops anterior uveitis Rx?

A

Topical [not oral] steroids

121
Q

Mycobacterium avium Rx?
If cavitating disease?

A

Rifampicin, ethambutol and azithromycin

Add streptomycin

122
Q

Common gene FAP

123
Q

C-myc seen commonly in which Ca

A

Ovarian Ca

124
Q

Back pain
Predominant distal weakness. Increased tone + hyperreflexia
Early urinary incontinence

A

Conus meddularis

125
Q

Imatinib resistance, second line?

126
Q

Pazopanib and sunatinib used for

127
Q

Lesser curve of the stomach supplied by

A

Left / right gastric arteries

128
Q

Blood supply for pylorus and proximal duodenum

A

Gastroduodenal

129
Q

Fundus of stomach supplied by?

A

Short gastric arteries
[Branch of splenic]

130
Q

Greater curve of stomach supplied by?

A

Left gastro omental

131
Q

Prognosis in COPD

A

BODE [but it spells BODD….]

BMI
Obstruction - FEV1
Distance walked in 6 mins
Dyspnea

132
Q

COPD with persistent AF and IHD with atrial enlargement. 1st line Rx?

A

Bisoprolol

Would be amiodarone if the plan was to get them back to SR but this very unlikely given atrial enlargement

133
Q

Pemphigoid biopsy

A

IgG and C3

[IgG mostly in the roof of the blisters]

134
Q

COPD on high dose corticosteroid/LABA inhaler whats next

A

Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist
Eg Tiotropium

135
Q

Which alcohol makes them go blind

A

Methanol
[Formic acid crystals in optic nerve]

136
Q

-setron antiemetics work where in brain

A

Nucleus tractus solitarius

137
Q

Young, cessation of menses with autoimmune disease and raised FSH

A

Primary ovarian failure

138
Q

Pancreatitis and vomiting - how to feed

139
Q

Microscopic or macroscopic haematuria worse prognosis in IgA nephropathy

A

Microscopic

140
Q

Hx sounds like ulcer.. differentiate GU vs DU?

A

DU more commonly assoc with obstruction
-history of fullness and bloating associated with nausea + Vomiting after food

141
Q

Denosumab action

A

RANK ligand inhibitor

142
Q

Vit D main action

A

Increase GI absobtion of Ca

143
Q

What is the functional residual capacity

A

Volume of air present after passive expiration

[Residual volume is air left after forced expiration]

144
Q

Thromboembolic stroke BP 190/100 plan?

A

Observe
[No need to treat unless >220 without cv issues]

145
Q

Rheum A on MTX with multiple round nodules on CXR =

A

Rheumatoid nodules

146
Q

Stop ETT if…? Which ecg changes

A

Dizziness / pre syncope
ST depression by 2mm or more

147
Q

Which vein drains blood from the atrium into the coronary sinus? Which from apex of ventricles

A

Small cardiac vein

Great cardiac vein drains from Apex of ventricles

148
Q

Rash on the scrotum and inner thighs in keen cyclist

A

Tinea cruis

149
Q

Hashimotos -> thyroid Ca WHICH TYPE

150
Q

Most common genetic defect in HOCM

A

Myosin-binding protein C [heavy chain]

151
Q

Worry about which bias in meta analysis

A

Publication bias
[negative trials may not have been published]

152
Q

MHC Class II major presenting cells ?

153
Q

SLE membranous nephropathy Rx

A

Mycophenolate

154
Q

GPA, not responding to steroids and cyclophosphamide What next?

155
Q

MHA which section for doctors to detain for 72hrs? For 28 days assessment and Rx?

A

5 (2) doctors
2 for 28 days
[3for 6months]

156
Q

Botulism but pen allergic?

A

Metronidazole

157
Q

Mum had PKD how to screen 20 year old

158
Q

HNPCC which gene mutation?

A

MLH1 - DNA missmatch repair

159
Q

Most common moody type?
Which one with renal cysts
Which one with Glucokinase

A

HNF-alpha - MODY 3
HNF beta - MODY 5
Glucokinase - MODY 2

160
Q

Scleroderma renal crisis after prescription with what in systemic sclerosis

A

Prednisolone
[It is unknown why]

161
Q

Carbimazole mechanism

A

Converted to methimazole
which Inhibits thyroid peroxidase

162
Q

MS 1st line?
2nd line?
When straight to mabs?

A

Interferon or glatiramer acetate

Dimethyl fumarate

[Then the mabs eg natalizumab]
Mabs if 2 disabling relapses in 1 year

163
Q

When NF type 2

A

Bilat CN 8 tumors

164
Q

Lidle syndrome affects

A

Distal convoluted tuble

165
Q

Most common percarditis bug

166
Q

Simvastatin and cyclosporin in which hepatic transporter

167
Q

What does eplerenone do

A

Prevents binding of aldosterone to mineral corticoid receptors

168
Q

Liquorish inhibits?

A

11-b-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

169
Q

Brugada Rx

170
Q

pyridostigmine class

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

171
Q

Nec fasc 1st line

A

Clinda + metronidazole

172
Q

Left posterior artery stroke leads to

A

Right sensory/motor loss

Right homonymous hemianopia

173
Q

Phase 0-4 action potential

A

[N0 People CAn CLOSE]

0 - Na influx
1 - Potassium efflux (lasts until phase 3)
2 - Ca influx
3 - Ca channels close
4 - Resting action potential

174
Q

What does microRNA do?

A

Silences messengerRNA

175
Q

Rheum vs OA knee xray

A

Rheum - Joint erosion lateral aspect (non-weight bare part)

OA - Medial joint space narrowing and subchondral sclerosis

176
Q

Omeprazole electrolyte abnormalities

A

HypoMg
HypoNa

177
Q

Most common antibody in systemic sclerosis

178
Q

HOCM on echo. No symptoms ever. Next line

A

Ambulatory ECG monitoring

179
Q

Why combination chemo

A

Prevents drug resistance and kills more cells per cycle

180
Q

Acute on chronic renal failure. When bicarb?

A

If Ph <7.2

181
Q

Latent Tb rx

A

3 months Rifampicin and Isoniazid

182
Q

Worst prognosis CLL

A

17p(del)
p53

183
Q

Thyroid nodule palpated with thyrotoxicosis initial Ix

A

Thyroid isotope uptake scan

184
Q

Waldenstroms - what does the Rx contain if they can hack it

A

Rituxumab
[+bendamustine]

185
Q

What detects hypoxia Eg in high altitude

A

Glomus cells in the carotid body

186
Q

Deadly disease eg meningitis what screening bit is most important

A

High sensitivity

187
Q

early detection of HIV

188
Q

How does aspirin inhibit platelets

A

Reduced production of thomboxine A2

189
Q

GH deficiency 1st line ix? if this is low?

A

IGF-1

Then Arginine GHRH test

190
Q

How many lung Ca deaths due to smoking

191
Q

What type of Ig is Rheum Factor?

192
Q

Long term prevention of hepatic encephalopathy

193
Q

When would you hear 4th heart sound on ECG

A

Just after p wave

[s3 is just before p wave]

194
Q

Lateral medullary most commonly occlusion where

A

Vertebral
[then PICA aneuryism]

195
Q

Pacing wire insertion patient suddenty develops VT where has the pacing wire ended up

A

Coronary sinus

196
Q

Lithium-induced DI. Stopped lithium several months ago and followed low salt low protein diet. Still DI. Rx?

197
Q

Baclofen mechanism

A

BABA Agonist

198
Q

How do neutrophils kill bacteria

A

Phagocytosis

199
Q

What causes hypotension in anaphylaxis

A

Histamine release

200
Q

What is the chance of a sibling being a HLA match

201
Q

Assessment of ability to perform ADLs which score system?

202
Q

Where are SLG-2 transporters found

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

203
Q

Acute optic neuritis Ix

A

MRI orbits
[VER testing rarely done]

204
Q

Hashimotos -> nephrotic syndrome ?Initial Rx ?

A

Membranous nephropathy
Furosemide initially to get ocntrol of oedema
Then steroids

205
Q

Primary progressive MS Rx?
Secondary progressive?

A

Ocrelizumab

Siponomod

206
Q

What does a reticulocyte have that an erythrocyte doesn’t

A

Ribosomal RNA

207
Q

Most common cause of u waves

A

HypoK/Ca/Mg

208
Q

Cause of hypoxia in early single lobe consolidation

A

intrapulmonary shunting

[blood directed to the area (consolidation) with poor oxygen diffusion capacity]

209
Q

Ebstein anomaly? ECG?

A

Tricuspid regurg
[displacement of the septal and posterior tricuspid valve leaflets]

RBBB

210
Q

Aqueous humour drains into

A

The canal of schlem

211
Q

Most common bug in human bite

A

Strep anginosus

212
Q

Fit healthy septic arthritis 1st Abx

A

IV fluclox

213
Q

Clyclospora diarrhoea rx

214
Q

Peritoneal dialysis infection rx

A

Oral cipro and peritoneal vanc

215
Q

Turners rx to prevent osteoperosis

A

HRT
[need oestrogen replaced]

216
Q

MODY 3 HNFa. BM control worsening on max gliclazide. Second line?

217
Q

Cyclophosphamide mechanism

A

DNA alkylation
-depletes CD4>CD8 T cells

218
Q

Cyclophosphamide - what causes haemorrhagic cystitis

219
Q

Pregnant fasting bm >7

A

Insulin metformin and lifestyle

220
Q

TIA - what are 2 parts on ABCD2 score worth 2 points

A

Unilateral weakness
duration > 60 mins

221
Q

When lobeectomy in epilepsy

A

Partial complex siezures (temporal) on 2 antiepileptics with ongoing disabling seizures

222
Q

how does timolol help raised IOP

A

Reduced aqueous humour production

223
Q

Bony met pain on high dose opiates

A

Bisphosphonates or denosumab

224
Q

Common classes of drugs causing microscopic colitis

225
Q

Global aphasia means damage to

A

Left parisylvian region and thalamus

226
Q

Graves 1st line mab

A

Toculizumab

227
Q

Complex partial epilepsy 1st line?
If Han Chinese ?

A

Oxycarbazine

Keppra (HLA B1502* in 10%-> risk of SJS)

228
Q

Most common antibody T1DM

229
Q

HNPCC drug

A

Aspirin 600mg

230
Q

Pancreatitis - when would you think new palapble mass is necrotic pancreatitis and when pseudocyst

A

Acute clinical deterioration = necrotic
Grumbling long term abdo pain = pseudo

231
Q

Which soda bic in tricyclic OD

A

50-100mls of 8.4%

232
Q

Essential thrombocytosis rx

A

Hydroxyurea

233
Q

Bechets rx

234
Q

Ectopic ACTH in which lung Ca

A

Small cell

235
Q

Thyroid hormone receptor found

A

In the nucleus

236
Q

C1 esterase inheritance

A

Hereditary angioedema …. DOMINANT

237
Q

CO poisoning effect on ventilation

238
Q

ASx bacteruria in old person

A

Dont treat

239
Q

Recent MI now episode of VT (resolved) and some ST elevation in a couple leads

A

Ventricular aneurysm

240
Q

When straight to evolocumab rather than ezetimibe in someone already on statins ?

A

LDL >4 with issues eg reccurent MI

241
Q

Epley or brand daroff

242
Q

Which lymphocytes in immune memory

243
Q

Kallman’s inheritance

A

X linked recessive

244
Q

Restless leg with no dopamine agonist as option rx?

A

Gabapentin / pregabalin

245
Q

Dermatomyositis not responding to pred

A

Azathioprine

246
Q

CKD with raised phosphate 1st line

A

Calcium acetate

247
Q

>

  1. T score -3.5 or worse and prev fractures who cant tolerate bisphosphonates
A

Teriparatide

248
Q

Antiepileptic with highest risk osteoperosis

249
Q

CKD what is best blood test for iron deficiency anaemia

A

% hypochromic blood cells

MRCP PART 1 (22 decks)

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