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Genetics Final Exam > Past Exam 2018 > Flashcards

Past Exam 2018 Flashcards

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1
Q

During complementary base-pairing, enzymes join the bases nucleotide to the preceding nucleotide by an ________ bond

A

Phosphodiester

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2
Q

The step in DNA replication in which the proteins connect the correct sequence of nucleotides into a continuous new strand is called

A

elongation

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3
Q

How many replication forks depart from an origin of replication

A

2

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4
Q

Which of the following is not involved in ensuring the accuracy of a cells genetic information

A

Redundancy

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5
Q

If 35% of the bases in a region of the mouse genome are cytosine, what percentage in that region are adenine

A

15%

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6
Q

An adenine in the DNA would pair with _____ in RNA

A

Uracil

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7
Q

Who demonstrated that DNA, rather than protein, was the genetic material of bacteria

A

Avery

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8
Q

Which of these is true of RNA

A

It can form double helices

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9
Q

Why is RNA required for DNA replication

A

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to an exisitng chain

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10
Q

By applying and equation formulated by Shannon, the information content of a polymer such as DNA or protein depends on its

A

Number of monomers in the polymer

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11
Q

If the genotype of a cell is determined to be XXX then cells would show how many barr bodies

A

2

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12
Q

The process of __________ is extremely important in generating genetic diversity

A

Recombination

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13
Q

In mammalian cells, replication proceeds

A

Bidirectionally

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14
Q

Yeast research with autonomously replicating sequences (ARSs), along with digestion of chromatin with DNase 1, have lead scientists to determine that

A

Origins of replications are accessible regions of DNA devoid of nucleosomes

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15
Q

Which of the following is not a property of telomeres

A

They don’t exist in DNA

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16
Q

In DNA, most satellite sequence are found in

A

Centromeres

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17
Q

Cohesins are multisubunit protein complex that functions to

A

Hold sister chromatids together

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18
Q

In yeast chromosomes, centromeres

A

Are closely related in sequence

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19
Q

In which of the following cases will a Barr body be seen

A

XX and XXY

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20
Q

Any deviation from the expected 2:2 segregation of parental alleles that results from recombination is known as

A

Gene conversion

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21
Q

The pattern or sequence in which a molecule of mRNA is deciphered by a ribosome is called the

A

Reading frame

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22
Q

Nonsense codons are

A

Codons that do not code for an amino acid

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23
Q

The sequences within mRNA that are spliced out (removed) are called

A

Introns

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24
Q

The retroviruses, including HIV, are unique because they do reverse

A

Transcription

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25
Q

RNA molecules that can act as enzymes and catalyze specific reactions are known as _______

A

Ribozymes

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26
Q

Transcription occurs in the _____ and translation occurs in the ________ of prokaryotic cells

A

cytoplasm, cysoplasm

27
Q

RNA polymerase binds to a sequence called a/an _______________ before beginning transcription

A

Promoter

28
Q

A tRNA molecule looks like a compact ______ when it is folded into its functional configuration

A

L

29
Q

Which enzyme forms the peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids during polypeptide synthesis

A

peptidyl transferase

30
Q

An anticodon is physical component of an ______ molecule

A

tRNA

31
Q

A mutation that is characterized by a change in the DNA sequence, but no change in the resulting protein sequence is called a

A

Silent mutation

32
Q

If a man shows the premutation allele for fragile X syndrome, what is the probability he will pass it on to his son

A

0%

33
Q

Genes on the X chromosome of mammals and drosophila are particularly suitable for genetic study because

A

Males have only one X and most genes behave as haploids

34
Q

Base analogues differ from other classes of mutagen in that they

A

Only work during DNA replication or repair

35
Q

Alkylating agents such as ethylmethane sulfonate (EMS) function as mutagens to

A

Add ethyl or methyl groups

36
Q

Excision repair corrects DNA by

A

Deleting, removing and replacing a single fragment of DNA

37
Q

The bacterial repair system that corrects mismatched bases after polymerization is able to discriminate between the old and newly made DNA strands because

A

Older DNA contains methyl groups at specific sequences

38
Q

In the Ames test for mutagenicity

A

Auxotrophic bacteria are converted to phototrophs which survive

39
Q

Which of the following enzymes seals the repaired DNA strand

A

Ligase

40
Q

Mismatch repair is only active during which of the following

A

After DNA replication ?

41
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are associated with higher risk of which of the following

A

Breast cancer

42
Q

Which of the following chromosomes are responsible for the eye color in Drosophila

A

X

43
Q

Mutations in the interleukin receptor can be carried and can result in immune related consequences. Which of the following chromosomes is responsible for severe combined immune deficiency

A

X

44
Q

When examining the base excision repair, an enzyme called _______ cleaves an altered nitrogenous base from the sugar of its nucleotide, releasing the base and creating an apurinic or apyrimidinic site in the DNA chain

A

DNA glucoselyase

45
Q

In the phenotype of a heterozygous individual carrying one mutation on a particular chromosome and a different mutation on its homologue is wild type, the mutation cannot be in the same gene. This type of technique is called ______?

A

Complementation testing

46
Q

Which of the following is most likely to produce a chromosomal inversion

A

A double-strand breakage at two positions on the same chromosome

47
Q

Inversions may be hard to detect because they

A

Do not usually cause an abnormal phenotype

48
Q

Which of the following does not happen when an intragenic inversion occurs

A

The genes function remains unaffected

49
Q

When a crossover occurs within the inversion loop of a pericentric inversion, each recombinant chromatid will have

A

duplication of one region

50
Q

Robertsonian translocation results from which of the following

A

Breaks at or near the centromeres of two acrocentric chromosomes followed by the reciprocal exchange on broken parts

51
Q

Which of the following is least likely to show a problem during meiosis

A

Translocation homozygotes

52
Q

Of the following segregation patterns, which one is most likely to result in a normal zygote

A

Alternate

53
Q

The condition of semisterility is most closely associated with

A

Translocation heterzygotes

54
Q

Down syndrome can result from

A

Three copies of chromosome 21 and a translocation of a part of chromosome 21

55
Q

Which of the following do translocations and inversions not have in common

A

Use of inversion loops during crossing over

56
Q

Barbara McClintock is most closely associated with which of the following

A

The discovery of transposable elements in corn

57
Q

The various types of transposable elements have many things in common. Which of the following is not a usual characteristic of them

A

Typically larger that 50 kb

58
Q

Retrotransposons and retrovirus have structural parallels. Which of the following also shared parallels with them

A

mRNA

59
Q

In terms of evolution what was the most frequent outcome of repeated duplications of different segments of a species genomes

A

gene families

60
Q

In terms of evolution, what is the most significant outcome of translocation in a species genome

A

Development of two species due to reproductive isolation

61
Q

Which of the following is an aneuploidy

A

trisomy

62
Q

The most common human aneuploidy is trisomy 21, down syndrome. All of the effects listed below may be seen in this syndrome except

A

Death always by 25

63
Q

Which of the following sex chromosome aneuploidies is not usually seen in live births

A

YO

64
Q

Turner sydrome, XO, is a sex chromosome aneuploidy. Of the effects listed below, which one is not usually seen in this syndrome

A

Abnormally long limbs

Genetics Final Exam (11 decks)

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