Past Exam 2017 Flashcards

(95 cards)

1
Q

The 4 subunits that compose DNA are

A

Nucleotides

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2
Q

In the Hershey and Chase experiment designed to determine molecule of heredity, what was radiolabelled with 35S

A

Protein

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3
Q

X-ray data showed that the spacing between repeating units along the axis of the DNA helix is

A

3.4 angstroms

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4
Q

_______ bonds are responsible for the chemical affinity between A and T (or G and C)

A

Hydrogen

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5
Q

________-form DNA spirals to the right and is the major form of naturally occurring DNA molecules

A

B

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6
Q

DNA replication occurs through a _______ process

A

semiconservative

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7
Q

During early interphase, the state of the DNA can be described as

A

A single continuous linear double helix

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8
Q

The step in DNA replication in which the replication proteins open up the double helix and prepare for complementary base-pairing is called

A

Initiation

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9
Q

The step in DNA replication in which two replication forks moving in opposite directions may meet is called

A

Termination

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10
Q

The protein that progressively unwinds DNA ahead of each replication fork is called

A

Helicase

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11
Q

What radiolabelled substance did Hershey and Chase use to label the protein component of the bacteriophage in their study to determine whether protein or DNA was necessary for phage production?

A

Sulfur

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12
Q

Meselson and Stahl relied on equilibrium density gradient centrifugation in a ______ solution to resolve the DNA containing 14N from the DNA containing 15N

A

Cesium chloride

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13
Q

The energy for DNA synthesis comes most directly from

A

dNTP

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14
Q

If chromosomal DNA were single stranded, which of the following would be most reduced compared to a double stranded molecule?

A

Information fidelity (the consistency of sequence between generations)

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15
Q

The enzyme that some organism use to replicate DNA at the 5’ ends of chromosomes is called

A

telomerase

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16
Q

The chromosome can be considered a dynamic organelle for _________ of DNA

A

All of the above
(expression, segregation, replication, packaging)

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17
Q

By weight the chromatin consists roughly of

A

1/3 DNA, 1/3 histones and 1/3 nonhistones

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18
Q

Without __________ regions on the DNA during recombination, gene conversion could not occur

A

heteroduplex

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19
Q

The first level of compaction of DNA consists of

A

DNA winding around histones to form small nucleosomes

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20
Q

Nucleosomal chromatin, with a diameter of 100A, supercoils into a 300A superhelix. The histone that appears to be responsible for this compaction is

A

H1

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21
Q

At what stage of mitosis do we first see a chromosome that is compacted 250-fold over the 40-fold compacted 300A fibre

A

Metaphase

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22
Q

The total compaction of DNA as seen in metaphase chromosomes is approx. _______ fold

A

10,000

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23
Q

With regard to the typical human cell, which of the following appears to be true

A

There are multiple origins of replication that function simultaneously

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24
Q

The 10,000 origins of replication in mammalian calls suggests that concerning origin of replication there is

A

at least one per loop of DNA

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25
Which of the following is not true about DNA polymerase
It can replace RNA primer with DNA at the 5' end
26
The two chromatids of each replicated chromosome must separate from one another and segregate during
Both A and C (mitosis and meiosis 2)
27
One of the functions of a centromere is to contribute to proper chromosome segregation. The other function is to
hold sister chromatids together
28
During mitosis, kinetochores develop during
prophase
29
In higher eukaryotes, kinetochores attach to
multiple spindle fibers
30
During development, an XX female embryo will form one of the X chromosomes in each cell into a Barr body. This usually occurs
about 2 weeks after zygote formation
31
recombination occurs during meiotic
prophase
32
The nicking of DNA that initiates recombination during mitosis may be due to all but
instruction from normal cell-cycle program
33
Which of the following statements about the double strand break-repair model is true?
Recombination is initiated by the double strand breaks on each of the two sister chromatids
34
which of these is required for the first strand invasion in the double-strand break repair model?
3' single stand tails on one sister chromatid
35
Which of the following enzymes is not required for recombination in the double-strand break repair model
Double strand recombinase
36
In the usual flow of genetics information (often called the Central Dogma), which of the following best represents the expression of genes?
DNA-RNA-Protein
37
The scientists credited with postulating the basis for the genetic code are
Watson and Crick
38
which of these is NOT a character of the genetic code
There are the same number of codons as there are amino acids
39
There are __________ usually found in the genetic code
1 start codon and 3 stop codons
40
Which of these terms is NOT a stop codon or a nickname for a stop codon
emerald
41
Which of these is NOT a step in transcription
replication
42
The (expressed) sequences within mRNA that code for gene products are called
exons
43
A(n) _________ consists of proteins and small nuclear RNAs forming discrete particles that mediate splicing
splicesome
44
Transcription occurs in the _______ and translation occurs in the _________ of eukaryotic cells
Nucleous ; cytoplasm
45
In the modification of eukaryotic mRNA, a "cap" consisting of an _________ and a tail consisting of ______ are usually added to the transcript
methyl groups, multiple adenines
46
Ribosomes are composed of
rRNA and protein
47
Aminoacyl-tRNA sythetase is the enzyme that
Adds the appropriate amino acid to an uncharged tRNA
48
A bacterial (prokaryotic) ribosome is composed of _______ subunits
30s and 50s
49
Which of these processes are coupled (linked) in prokaryotes but NOT in eukaryotes
transcription and translation
50
A mutation that changes a codon sequence, and subsequently changes the amino acid that should have been placed at that point in the polypeptide chain, is called a
Missense mutation
51
A mutation that occurs when a base is inserted into or deleted from a DNA sequence, completely alternating the subsequent amino acid sequence is called a
Frameshift mutation
52
A tRNA that recognizes a nonsense codon and inserts an amino acid where protein synthesis should have stopped is called a
Suppressor tRNA
53
mutations that abolish the function encoded by wild-type allele are known as
Null mutations
54
A neomorphic mutation results in an allele that
Produces novel proteins or cause inappropriate expression resulting in a new phenotype
55
Assume that for a given gene a mutation creates an allele that functions as dominant negative. The gene codes for a protein that forms a trimer within the cell. If at lease of the subunits has the mutant structure the entire process is inactivated. For a heterozygous individual, what percent of the trimers present in the cell will be inactive
12.5%
56
As compared to subunit vaccines, what is the main advantage of "killed whole virus" HIV vaccine under development in Canada
jknk
57
What would happen if all of the snRNAs were removed from a cell
58
The term mutation refers to
A heritable change in the DNA of a cell
59
Replacing a thymine nucleotide with a guanine is an example of a
transversion
60
Assume that a wild-type sequence is 5'AGCCTAC3'. indicate the sequence that might be produced by a transversion
5'ATCCTAC3'
61
Assume that the mutation rate for a given gene is 5x10^-6 mutations per gene per generation. For that gene how many mutations would be expected if 10 million sperms are examined
50
62
Consider the following results. When 50 million sperms were examined for a specific mutation, 100 mutations were found. Indicate the mutation rate for that gene
2 x 10^-6
63
The results of the Luria-Delbruck fluctuation experiment indicated that
Bacteria become resistant to phage by random spontaneous mutations
64
The hydrolysis of a purine base from the deoxyribose-phophate backbone is called
Depurinination
65
UV light is a mutagen that can cause
Thymine dimers
66
The heritable disorder fragile X syndrome, a major cause of mental retardation, is caused by
Duplication of multiple 3- nucleotide repeats
67
The duplication of the triplet sequence CGG resulting in elongation or breakage of the X chromosome is termed
Fragile X syndrome
68
If a base analogue such as 5-bromouracil is used as a mutagen, how many generations will be required to mutate the codon for proline (CCC) into the codon for alanine (GCC)
It will not occur
69
Interacting agents such ethidium bromide function as a mutagen
70
Assuming that in the organism under study, the DNA polymerase has an error rate of 1 mistake in every 10^6 bases copied. However, the overall mutation rate is much lower. This is most likely because
Repair mechanisms correct errors made by the polymerase
71
The genetic condition Xeroderma pigmentosum, which can lead to skin cancer, results from
Inability to correct UV induced dimers
72
The consequences to a bacterial cell of a mutation that inactivated the enzyme that methylates the A of the sequence GATC in newly made DNA would be
Failure to distinguish old and new DNA during mismatch repair
73
In the Ames test for mutagenicity, rat liver enzymes are included with the compound under tests because
Rat liver enzymes may modify or break down some compounds
74
The Ames test for mutagenicity is useful to identify potential carcinogens because
Mutagens that affect bacterial DNA are likely to cause human mutation
75
Assume a researcher is studying coat colour in voles. Three stains of white vole have been isolated: milky, blanc, and weiss. White is a recessive train in each strain. Homozygous white voles are obtained for each strain. Consider the following crosses: milky x blanc = all white milky x weiss = brown (wild-type) blanc x weiss = brown (wild-type) The conclusion most consistent with these results is
76
In the human genetic disorder Alkaptonuria, urine turns black because of the presence of homogentisic acid and in individuals with the trait. this is due to
Failure of individuals with Alkaptonuria to manufacture enzymes involved in the breakdown of homogentisic acid
77
Indicate the false statement regarding amino acids
all correct
78
Choose the condition that involves a defect in an enzyme pathway
79
The condition sickle-cell amaemia is due to
Substitution of an amino acid
80
Though sickle-cell anaemia is frequently lethal for individuals who are homozygous for the sickle-call allele, natural selection seems to have maintained that allele in certain geographic locations. A likely explination for this observation is that
Individuals who are heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele are protected from malaria
81
The structure of a protein that involves the interaction between two distinct polypeptide chains is
Quaternary structure
82
The photoreceptor protein rhodopsin
is found in rod cells and is sensitive to weak light at many wavelengths
83
Red green colour blindness is more common in males than females because
Both the red and the green pigment genes are on the X chromosome
84
Which of the following is used in site-directed mutagenesis
Synthetic oligonucleotide
85
How are somatic mutations different from germline mutations
Only germline mutations are heritable
86
Which of the following is not considered a chromosomal rearrangement
Replication
87
Karyotypes generally remain constant within a species bases
Genetic instabilities produced by genomic changes usually are at a selective disadvantage
88
In higher organisms, it is usually difficult to distinguish with genetic analysis small deletions in one gene from
point mutations
89
During the pairing of homologues in prophase of meiosis 1, the region of a normal, nondeleted chromosome that has nothing with which to recombine forms a so-called
Deletion loop
90
Which of the following does not happen when an intragenic inversion occurs
The genes function remains unaffected
91
Robertsonian translocation results from which of the following
Breaks at or near the centromeres of two acrocentric chromosomes followed by the reciprocal exchange of broken parts
92
Which of the following would be most helpful in mapping the genes that cause down syndrome
93
In terms of evolution, what is the most frequent outcome of repeated duplications of different segments of a species genome
Gene families
94
In Drosophila, a gynandroporph, which is composed of equal parts of a male and female tissue, results from
An XX female losing one X chromosome during the first mitotic division after fertilization
95
Which of the following causes yellow corn kernals to gain red spots