Past credit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Gray collie syndrome is characterized by?

Select one:
a. Mobilization of marginated neutrophils and redistribution into
the circulatory neutrophil pool

b. Extensive growth of lymphoid cells in the visceral organs
c. Wasting of the muscles on the both sides of the head and eosinophilia
d. The appearance of neutropenic episodes that occur at 11 to 14 days interval

A

d. The appearance of neutropenic episodes that occur at 11 to 14 days interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An increase in plasma hydrogen ions or decrease in O2 stimulates the aortic and carotic body receptors that leads to increased ventilation. How is it called?

a. Central chemical control of alveolar ventilation
b. Peripheral chemical control of alveolar ventilation.
c. Formation of titratable acid
d. Formation of ammonium

A

b. Central chemical control of alveolar ventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized by an augmentation of normal clotting mechanisms which results in depletion of coagulation factors, deposition of fibrin clots in the microvasculature, the second activation of fibrinolytic mechanisms with the production of fibrin-degradation products (FDP) which have anticoagulant properties. There is pathophysiological paradox - ________ in the presence of haemorrhage.

Select one:

a. Uremia
b. Neoplasia
c. Proteolysis
d. Thrombosis

A

d. Thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Serotonin in an inflammatory response causes:

a. thrombolysis.
b. chemotaxis.
c. vasoconstriction.
d. venules dilatation and increased vascular permeability.

A

c. vasoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sustained fever is:

a. Extremly high temperature.
b. Febrile episodes lasting one or more days with intervening periods of normal temperature.
c. Lasting for several days or even weeks with minimal variations between successive measurements.
d. Daily increases in body temperature with intervening periods of (sub)normal temperature.

A

c. Lasting for several days or even weeks with minimal variations between successive measurements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Agranulocytosis means:

a. Disappearance of granules from granulocytes
b. Diminishing of granulocytes in the circulation
c. Multiple myeloma
d. Increase granulocyte count in the circulation

A

b. Diminishing of granulocytes in the circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Stress leukogram is caused by ________ and includes ___, ____, and ______.

a. Catecholamines, neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
b. Aldosterone, neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinofilia
c. Opioids, neutropenia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
d. Glucocorticoids, neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia

A

Glucocorticoids, neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypotonic dehydration is characterized by:

a. Loss of water is lower that loss of electrolytes in ECF.
b. Excess of water is equal to excess of electrolytes in ECF.
c. Excess of water is lower than excess of electrolytes in ECF.
d. Loss of water is higher than loss of electrolytes in ECF.

A

a. Loss of water is lower that loss of electrolytes in ECF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

It is not one of the cellular components in acute inflammation.

a. Diapedesis
b. Adhesion of blood cells to endothelial cells
c. Phagocytosis
d. Reparation

A

d. Reparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Relative polycythemia may arise from:

a. Haemoglobinopathies
b. Obesity
c. Dehydration
d. Chronic pulmonary disease

A

c. Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Whole body subcutaneous edema and transudate in the peritoneal cavity are:

a. Anasarca and ascites.
b. Anasarca and hydrothorax.
c. Ascites and hydropericardium
d. Hydrothorax and ascites.

A

a. Anasarca and ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Degenerative left shift means:

a. the immature neutrophils outnumber mature neutrophils an the total neutrophil count is normal or low
b. a decrease in total circulatory neutrophils
c. increased numbers of immature neutrophils present in blood
d. increased numbers of mature (segmented) neutrophils present in blood

A

a. the immature neutrophils outnumber mature neutrophils and the total neutrophil count is normal or low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

An agregate of inflammatory monocuclear cells arranged concentrically around the causative agent is:

a. hypertrophic scar.
b. abscess.
c. granuloma
d. keloid.

A

c. granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The gain of base or loss of strong acid by the ECF results in the process called_________

a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory alcalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Respiratory acidosis

A

a. Metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pernicious anaemia may arise from:

a. Lack of erythropoietin
b. Lack of intrinsic factor secretion
c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
d. Oxidative injury

A

Lack of intrinsic factor secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When it does not arise paradoxic aciduria?

a. Decreased K intake.
b. Abomasal HCl reflux and sequestration in abomasum/rumen.
c. Abomasum/rumen fluid retention.
d. Increased K intake.

A

d. Increased K intake.

a-c is correct for paradoxical aciduria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the mechanisms does not cause edema?

a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
b. An increased capillary hydrostatic pressure.
c. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure.
d. An increased capillary permeability.

A

a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A localized collection of pus in cavity is:

Select one:

a. lymphoedema.
b. granuloma.
c. cardial edema.
d. abscess

A

d. abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hypertonic hyperhydration is characterized by:

Select one:

a. loss of water is lower than loss of electrolytes in ECF.
b. loss of water is higher than loss of electrolytes in ECF.
c. excess of electrolytes is higher than excess of water in ECF.
d. excess of water is higher than excess of electrolytes in ECF.

A

c. excess of electrolytes is higher than excess of water in ECF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hypertonic dehydration is characterized by:

Select one:

a. Excess of electrolytes is higher than excess of water in ECF.
b. Loss of water is higher than loss of electrolytes in ECF.
c. Loss of water is lower that loss of electrolytes in ECF.
d. Loss of water is equal to loss of electrolytes in ECF.

A

b. Loss of water is higher than loss of electrolytes in ECF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which cells enter the inflammatory area first in acute inflammation?

Select one:

a. vasocontriction
b. lymphocytes
c. neutrophils
d. monocytes

A

c. neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Paroxysmal hemoglobinuria is caused by:

Select one:

a. Isotonic dehydration.
b. Isotonic hyperhydration.
c. Hypotonic hyperhydration.
d. Hypertonic dehydration.

A

Hypotonic hyperhydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lysis is:

Select one:

a. daily increases in body temperature with intervening periods of
(sub) normal temperature.

b. sudden decrease of body temperature.
c. gradual decrease of body temperature.
d. extremly high temperature.

A

c. gradual decrease of body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A keloid is:

Select one:
a. Chemoatractant.

b. A raised scar but remains within the original boundaries of the wound.
c. Excessive wound contraction in healing.
d. A raised scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound.

A

d. A raised scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Temporal retrogression of some symptoms of disease is

Select one:

a. exacerbation
b. subclinical disease
c. remission
d. recurrence

A

c. remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

It is not one of vascular reactions in acute inflammation

Select one:

a. reparation
b. vasocontriction
c. passive hyperemia
d. an incrreased vascular permeability

A

a. reparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Wound contraction is caused by:

Select one:

a. chemoatractans
b. myofibroblasts
c. selectins
d. monocytes

A

b. myofibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Intermittent fever is characterized by:

a. Febrile episodes lasting one or more days with intervening periods of
normal temperature.

b. Lasting for several days or even weeks with minimal variations between successive measurements.
c. Extremly high temperature.
d. Daily increases in body temperature with intervening periods of (sub)normal temperature.

A

a. Febrile episodes lasting one or more days with intervening periods of
normal temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Histamine in an inflammatory response causes:

Select one:

a. vasoconstriction.
b. thrombolysis.
c. venules dilatation and increased vascular permeability.
d. chemotaxis.

A

c. venules dilatation and increased vascular permeability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hypoaldosteronism and acidosis can lead to:

Select one:

a. Hyperkaliemia.
b. Hypokaliemia.
c. Hypernatremia.
d. Paradoxic aciduria.

A

a. Hyperkaliemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following pathological states are not related to hepatic shunting?

Select one:

a. Oesophageal varices
b. Ascites
c. Ruminal acidosis
d. Splenomegaly

A

Ruminal acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Diabetes insipidus is of two types

Select one:

a. Clinical, subclinical
b. Exogenous, endogenous c. Primary and secondary
d. Central and nephrogenic

A

Central and nephrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following statements is false? Consequences of
malabsorption are

Select one:

a. Hyperkalaemia
b. Steatorroea c. Anaemia
d. Diarrhoea

A

Hyperkalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

_____ occurs when there is excessive destruction of RBCs

Select one:

a. Hepatic icterus
b. Prehepatic icterus
c. Intrahepatic icterus
d. Posthepatic incterus

A

Prehepatic icterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Acute ruminal alkalosis is caused by

Select one:

a. overfeeding of proteins or fast soluble proteins
b. failed eructation of the free gas because of physical interference with eructation
c. ingestion of excessive quantities of highly fermentable carbohydrates
d. overfeeding of non- protein nitrogen

A

Overfeeding of non- protein nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following etiological factors is not related to acute pancreatitis

Select one:

a. Ketosis
b. Surgical procedures near the pancreas c. Hyperkalaemia
d. Uremia

A

Ketosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is ileus?

Select one:
a. Spontaneous urination in night

b. Abnormal loss of blood proteins into the lumen of intestine
c. Dilatation of lymph channels
d. Prolonged transit time of passage of digesta in the intestine

A

Prolonged transit time of passage of digesta in the intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Agranulocytosis means

Select one:

a. Increase granulocyte count in the circulation
b. Disappearance of granules from granulocytes c. Diminishing of granulocytes in the circulation d. Multiple myeloma

A

Diminishing of granulocytes in the circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pulmonary oedema is characterized by

Select one:
a. An inflammation of the lungs
b. The collapse of a portion of lungs
c. The accumulation of excess fluid in the extravascular space
and tissues of the lungs
d. Collapse of the lung following the entrance of atmospheric air into the pleural space

A

The accumulation of excess fluid in the extravascular space and tissues of the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anisocytosis is

Select one:

a. Variation in colour among red blood cells
b. Variation in the shape of red blood cells
c. Variation in the size of red blood cells
d. Variation in the number of red blood cells between species

A

Variation in the size of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

pH of meat after slaugher in dark, firm and dry pork (DFD) syndrome is

Select one:

a. 5.8
b. 6.2
c. 5.5
d. 6.0

A

pH 6.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The tolerance to increasing amounts of potassium is known as

Select one:

a. Paradoxical aciduria
b. Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
c. Potassium adaptation
d. Feline kaliumpenic polymyopathy and nephropathy

A

Potassium adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Persistent vomiting of both gastric and intestinal content may result in

Select one:

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis

A

Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Gastric diarrhoe may arise from

Select one:

a. xerostomia
b. hypersecretion of gastric juice
c. hyposecretion of gastric juice d. dysphagia

A

hyposecretion of gastric juice

45
Q

_____ and ______ shock are forms of distributive (vasogenic) shock

Select one:

a. Cardiogenic, traumatic
b. Anaphylactic, septic
c. Haemorrhagic, surgical
d. Surgical, traumatic

A

Anaphylactic, septic

46
Q

Tremor is ________

Select one:
a. disorder of proximal muscle postural fixation with wild
movement of the limb
b. alterations in muscle tone, muscle resistance to passive movement of a rigid limb
c. a rapid involuntary movement induced by reflex contraction of agonists and their antagonists skeletal muscles
d. slowness of voluntary movements

A

A rapid involuntary movement induced by reflex contraction of agonists and their antagonists skeletal muscles

47
Q

Overdose of NaHCO3- and CaCO3-, increased retention of bases and sodium in the body, loss of potassium from the body are common conditions that result in

Select one:

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Respiratory acidosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis

48
Q

Which of the following describes prerenal causes of acute renal failure?

Select one:

a. Urinary bladder rupture
b. Obstruction of excretory urinary tract
c. Sequestration of ECF, hypovolemia, cardiac failure
d. Inflammatory disease, drug-induced injury of kidney

A

Sequestration of ECF, hypovolemia, cardiac failure

49
Q

Acute inflammation classification on the basis of differences in the nature of the exudate are:

Select one:

a. serous, purulent, suppurative, haemorrhagic
b. serous, haemorrhagic, suppurative
c. haemorrhagic, modified, serous,
d. serous, fibrinous, purulent, haemorrhagic

A

Serous, fibrinous, purulent, haemorrhagic

50
Q

_______ alterations are caused by pathogenic agent and ______
alterations are caused by decrease in PO2

Select one:

a. acute, chronic
b. exogenous, endogenous
c. clinical, subclinical
d. primary, secondary

A

d. primary, secondary

51
Q

Which of the following describes Addison ́s disease?

Select one:

a. It is caused by excessive production of ACTH
b. It is caused by excessive administration of glucocorticoids
c. It is caused by a deficiency in ACTH
d. It is caused by destruction of adrenal cortices

A

It is caused by destruction of adrenal cortices

Addison’s disease = Hypoaldosteronism

52
Q

Type III hypersensitivity is characterized by

Select one:
a. Specifically sentisized T lymphocytes and does not involve
antibody
b. Antibody –dependent cytotoxic hypersensitivity and destruction of a target cells through the action of antibodies IgG and IgM against an antigen on the cell plasma membrane
c. Production of antigen-specific IgE after exposure to antigen
d. Immune-complex hypersensitivity

A

d. Immune-complex hypersensitivity

53
Q

Which of the following statement is true?

Select one:
a. Iatrogenic disease is disease with unknown aetiology.
b. Recurrence means an appearance of the symptoms of the same disease after complete restitution.
c. Remission means sudden reinforcement of the disease.
d. Exacerbation means temporal retrogression of some symptoms
of the disease.

A

Recurrence means an appearance of the symptoms of the same disease after complete restitution.

54
Q

Cardiac oedema is caused by

Select one:

a. increased capillary membrane permeability
b. increased blood (capillary) hydrostatic pressure c. lymphatic obstruction
d. decreased plasma oncotic pressure

A

b. increased blood (capillary) hydrostatic pressure

55
Q

Which of the following statements is false? Malabsorptive diarrhoea
may be caused by

Select one:

a. Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
b. Obstruction of bile duct system
c. Lactase deficiency
d. Hypersecretion of gastric juices

A

Lactase deficiency

56
Q

Purpura is __________

Select one:

a. Excessive food intake
b. Haemorrhagic discoloration in the subcutaneous tissues
c. The presence of undigested muscle fibres in feces
d. Dilation of lymph chanells

A

b. Haemorrhagic discoloration in the subcutaneous tissues

57
Q

Myxoedema may arise from

Select one:

a. Hypothyroidism
b. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
c. Lymphatic obstruction
d. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure

A

a. Hypothyroidism

58
Q

__________ occurs most frequently in young, rapid growing calves, lambs, goat kids and foals born from dams which have been fed for long period on diet low in Se and vitamin E.

Select one:

a. Enzootic calcinosis
b. Splayleg syndrome
c. Arthrogryposis
d. White muscle disease (nutritional muscular dystrophy)

A

d. White muscle disease (nutritional muscular dystrophy)

59
Q

Which of the following statements is false? Consequences of hypoparathyroidism are

Select one:

a. Osteomalatia
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Tetany
d. Increased neuromuscular excitability

A

a. Osteomalatia

60
Q

Which of the following describes Conn ́s syndrome?

Select one:

a. Excessive unregulated secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex
b. It is caused by a deficiency in ACTH
c. It is caused by excessive production of ACTH
d. It is caused by destruction of adrenal cortices

A

a. Excessive unregulated secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex

61
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one:

a. Conduction refers to heat loss through electromagnetic waves.
b. Convention is the transfer of heat through currents of gases to liquids.
c. Radiation refers to heat loss by direct molecule-to molecule transfer from one surface to another.
d. Heat stroke is an inherited muscle disorder in pig

A

b. Convention is the transfer of heat through currents of gases to liquids

62
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is characterized by

Select one:

a. Production of antigen-specific IgE after exposure to antigen.
b. Immune-complex hypersensitivity
c. Antibody –dependent cytotoxic hypersensitivity and destruction of a target cells through the action of antibodies IgG and IgM against an antigen on the cell plasma membrane.
d. Specifically sentisized T lymphocytes and does not involve antibody.

A

d. Specifically sentisized T lymphocytes and does not involve antibody.

63
Q
\_\_\_\_\_ is disorder characterized by mechanical blockage of the GIT.
Select one:
a. Spastic ileus
b. Mechanical ileus 
c. Paralytic ileus
d. Adynamic ileus
A

b. Mechanical ileus

64
Q
Which of the following statements is false? Secretory diarrhoea may be caused by
Select one:
a. The slowing of intestinal mobility
b. Removal of ileum
c. Microbial and parasitic agents 
d. Unabsorbed fatty acids
A

a. The slowing of intestinal mobility

65
Q
Melena means
Select one:
a. Impairment of the normal sequence of swallowing
b. A prodrome of vomiting
c. Dark, tarry faeces, blood in feces
d. The presence of blood in the vomiting
A

c. Dark, tarry faeces, blood in feces

66
Q

Which of the following describes Cushing ́s syndrome?

Select one:

a. It is caused by excessive unregulated secretion of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex b. It is caused by a deficiency in ACTH
c. It is caused by excessive production or administration of glucocorticoids
d. It is caused by destruction of adrenal cortices

A

It is caused by excessive production or administration of glucocorticoids (Increased aldesterone)

67
Q
Depression of vasomotor centre and bleeding into the injured areas are the principal causes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ shock and most common hypovolaemic shock is \_\_\_\_\_\_ shock.
Select one:
a. surgical, haemorrhagic
b. septic, anaphylactic
c. haemorrhagic, traumatic 
d. traumatic, haemorrhagic
A

d. traumatic, haemorrhagic

68
Q
Iron deficiency can lead to
Select one:
a. Macrocytic normochromic anaemia
b. Basophilic stippling
c. Microcytic hypochromic anemia 
d. Macrocytic hypochromic anaemia
A

c. Microcytic hypochromic anemia

69
Q

An increase in thrombocyte count in the blood refers to
Select one:
a. Thrombocytosis
b. Colony-forming unit – megakaryocyte c. Thrombastenia
d. Thrombocytopenia

A

a. Thrombocytosis

70
Q

A right shift means

Select one:

a. Increased numbers of immature neutrophils present in blood
b. An increase numbers of mature (segmented) neutrophils present in blood
c. The immature neutrophils outnumber mature neutrophils and the total neutrophil count is normal or low
d. A decrease in total circulating neutrophils

A

b. An increase numbers of mature (segmented) neutrophils present in blood

71
Q

When hydrogen ions are added to the ECF, each base of each buffer pair wil bind hydrogen ion. This interrelationship is referred to as

Select one:

a. The isohydric principle
b. Conservation of filtered bicarbonate
c. The haemoglobin buffer system
d. The bicarbonate buffer system

A

a. The isohydric principle

72
Q

Chronic ruminal alkalosis is caused by

Select one:

a. overfeeding of non- protein nitrogen
b. ingestion of excessive quantities of highly fermentable catbohydrates
c. failed eructation of the free gas because of physical interference with eructation
d. overfeeding of proteins or fast soluble proteins

A

d. overfeeding of proteins or fast soluble proteins

73
Q

Severe proteinuria (albuminuria), hypoalbuminemia, peripheral oedema, hyperlipidaemia and fat bodies in the urine are typical for ____.

Select one:

a. chronic heart failure
b. chronic inflammation
c. glomerulonephritis
d. nephrotic syndrome

A

d. nephrotic syndrome

74
Q

Deep, rapid respiration, polyuria, hyperkalcinuria, hyperkaliemia are indicative of ________ and dizziness, confusion, hypocalcaemia, tachypnoea are indicative of _________.

Select one:

a. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis, metabolic acidosis
c. Metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis
d. Metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis

A

d. Metabolic acidosis, respiratory alkalosis

75
Q

Type I immune hypersensitivity (IgE – mediated allergic reaction) is characterized by

Select one:

a. Production of antigen-specific IgE after exposure to antigen.
b. Antibody –dependent cytotoxic hypersensitivity and destruction of a target cells through the action of antibodies IgG and IgM against an antigen on the cell plasma membrane.
c. Specifically sentisized T lymphocytes and does not involve antibody.
d. Immune-complex hypersensitivity.

A

a. Production of antigen-specific IgE after exposure to antigen.

76
Q

Which of the following describes glomerulophritis?

Select one:

a. It is characterized by the rapid deterioration of renal function resulting in accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood (azotemia) and imbalance of internal envirnment or diminished urine volume (oliguria)
b. It is caused by structural alterations of the glomerulus which lead to hematuria, proteinuria, reduced glomerular filtration rate and hypertension
c. It is characterized by severe proteinuria (albuminuria), hypoalbuminemia, peripheral oedema, hyperlipidaemia and fat bodies in the urine
d. It is characterized by gradual decrease of renal functions, prolonged azotemia leads to combination of adaptive metabolic changes and clinical signs known as uremic

A

b. It is caused by structural alterations of the glomerulus which lead to hematuria, proteinuria, reduced glomerular filtration rate and hypertension

77
Q

Which of the following statements is false? Osmotic diarrhoea may be caused by

Select one:

a. Lactase deficiency
b. Unabsorbed fatty acids
c. The slowing of intestinal mobility
d. Non-milk carbohydrate diet

A

b. Unabsorbed fatty acids

78
Q

Nephrotic syndrome can lead to

Select one:

a. Oedema due to increased capillary permeability
b. Oedema due to decrease plasma oncotic pressure
c. Oedema due to increased blood hydrostatic pressure d. Oedema due to lymphatic obstruction.

A

b. Oedema due to decrease plasma oncotic pressure

79
Q
Hypokalaemia may arise from
Select one:
a. Hypoaldosteronism
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Addison ́s disease
d. Feline kaliumpenic polymyopathy and nephropathy
A

d. Feline kaliumpenic polymyopathy and nephropathy

80
Q
Regenerative anaemia can arise from
Select one:
a. Blood loss
b. Lack of erythropoietin 
c. Vit B12 deficiency
d. Iron deficiency
A

a. Blood loss

81
Q

Progression in circulatory shock includes:
Select one:
a. Toxic shock, multiple organ dysfunction shock, circulatory shock
b. Alarm shock, resistance shock and exhaustion shock
c. Non-progressive shock, progressive shock, irreversible shock
d. First-degree shock, second –degree shock, third-degree shock

A

c. Non-progressive shock, progressive shock, irreversible shock

82
Q
Haematemesis means
Select one:
a. The presence of blood in the vomiting
b. Blood in feces
c. A prodrome of vomitnig
d. Impairment of the normal sequence of swallowing
A

a. The presence of blood in the vomiting

83
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one:
a. In stadium decrementi heat production of the body is higher than that of
loss.
b. Higher body temperatures increase serum levels of of iron, zinc, and copper.
c. Hyperpyrexia depresses immune responses.
d. Recurrent fever is characterized by febrile episodes lasting one or more days with intervening periods of normal temperature

A

c. Hyperpyrexia depresses immune responses.

84
Q

_________ is the drug-induced, often fatal stress syndrome which occurs in susceptible pigs within 3 minutes following the inhalation of a mixture of halothane and oxygen. Susceptible pigs develop limb rigidity and hyperthermia which may result in death.

Select one:

a. Thyroid storm (crisis)
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Malignant hyperthermia
d. Heat stroke

A

c. Malignant hyperthermia

85
Q

Combination in various proportions of external haemorrhage, bleeding into injured tissues, and dehydration is

Select one:

a. surgical shock
b. cardiogenic shock
c. traumatic shock
d. burn shock

A

a. surgical shock

86
Q

Hypernatremia may arise from

Select one:

a. Suction of ascitic fluid
b. Metabolic acidosis and prolonged vomiting
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Conn ́s disease

A

d. Conn ́s disease

87
Q
There are five macroscopic signs of inflammation redness, heat, swelling, pain and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. Chemotaxis
b. Loss of function
c. Decrease immune response 
d. Phagocytosis
A

b. Loss of function

88
Q
Primary ruminal tympany is caused by
Select one:
a. Salivary bloat
b. Hypocalcemia in milk fever 
c. Free-gas bloat
d. Frothy bloat
A

d. Frothy bloat

89
Q

_____ occurs when there is obstruction of biliary channels or bile duct.

Select one:

a. Intrahepatic icterus
b. Hepatic icterus
c. Posthepatic icterus
d. Prehepatic icterus

A

c. Posthepatic icterus

90
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is functional disorder that is characterized by increased tonus of intestinal wall and tonic spasm.
Select one:
a. Intussusception 
b. Mechanical ileus 
c. Adynamic ileus 
d. Spastic ileus
A

d. Spastic ileus

91
Q

Which of the following pathological states are not related to hepatic shunting?

Select one:

a. Oesophageal varices
b. Ruminal acidosis
c. Splenomegaly
d. Ascites

A

b. Ruminal acidosis

92
Q

Which of the following statements is false? Causes of the „Downer Cow syndrome“ are
Select one:
a. Complications of hypocalcaemic parturient paresis
b. The traumatic injuries
c. Selenium and vitamin E deficiency
d. Difficult parturition

A

c. Selenium and vitamin E deficiency

93
Q
Which of the following statements describes hypercalcitoninism?
Select one:
a. Milk fever
b. Osteopetrosis 
c. Osteomalatia 
d. Tetany
A

Osteopetrosis

94
Q

Inherited myopathies are
Select one:
a. Splayleg syndrome, arthrogryposis
b. Arthrogryposis, splayleg syndrome, hepatosis dietetica
c. Splayleg syndrome, mulberry heart disease
d. Splayleg syndrome, arthrogryposis, Downer cow syndrome

A

a. Splayleg syndrome, arthrogryposis

95
Q

In calves, cattle (from 2 months to 1 year of age) excessive intake of water per os leads to so called ______________.

Select one:

a. Sodium chloride poisoning
b. Paroxysmal haemoglobinuria
c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Dehydration hyperthermia

A

b. Paroxysmal haemoglobinuria

96
Q
Hyponatremia may arise from
Select one:
a. Hyperaldosteronism
b. Hypoaldosteronism
c. Secondary hypoparathyroidism d. Primary hyperparathyroidism
A

Hypoaldosteronism

97
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
Select one:
a. Brisket disease is characterized by dyspnoea, pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular enlargement and
oedema.
b. Decreased thyroid hormone increases heart rate.
c. Third-degree burns involve the entire dermis, sparing hair follicles and sweat glands.
d. Drop of body temperature below 18-20O C is lethal.

A

Brisket disease is characterized by dyspnoea, pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular enlargement and
oedema.

98
Q
Which of the following statements describes hypercalcitoninism?
Select one:
a. Milk fever
b. Osteomalatia 
c. Tetany
d. Osteopetrosis
A

Osteopetrosis

99
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs in newborn piglets and is characterized by temporary inability to stand with the hindlimbs and their hindlimbs are splayed sideways and the animals are resting in sternal recumbency.
Select one:
a. Asymmetric hindquater
b. Arthrogryposis
c. Enzootic calcinosis 
d. Splayleg syndrome
A

d. Splayleg syndrome

100
Q

Which of the following describes chronic renal failure?

Select one:
a. It is characterized by the rapid deterioration of renal function resulting in accumulation of nitrogenous wastes in the blood (azotemia) and imbalance of internal environment or diminished urine volume (oliguria)

b. It is caused by structural alterations of the glomerulus which lead to hematuria, proteinuria, reduced glomerular filtration rate and hypertension
c. It is characterized by gradual decrease of renal functions, prolonged azotemia leads to combination of adaptive metabolic changes and clinical signs known as uremic syndrome
d. It is characterized by severe proteinuria (albuminuria), hypoalbuminemia, peripheral oedema, hyperlipidaemia and fat bodies in the urine

A

It is characterized by gradual decrease of renal functions, prolonged azotemia leads to combination of adaptive metabolic changes and clinical signs known as uremic syndrome

101
Q
Nocturia is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Select one:
a. Excessive water intake
b. The presence of undigested fat in feces 
c. Excessive food intake
d. Spontaneous urination in night
A

d. Spontaneous urination in night

102
Q

Ascites is caused by

Select one:

a. Lymphatic obstruction
b. Cirhosis, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome and malnutrition
c. Paroxysmal haemoglobinuria
d. Increased capillary permeability

A

b. Cirrhosis, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome and malnutrition

103
Q

Pathological consequences of hyponatremia are

Select one:

a. Paradoxical aciduria
b. Systemic oedema
c. A decreased circulating blood volume, hypotension, peripheral circulatory failure and renal failure
d. Metabolic alkalosis

A

c. A decreased circulating blood volume, hypotension, peripheral circulatory failure and renal failure

104
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

Select one:

a. Brisket disease is characterized by dyspnoea, pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular enlargement and oedema
b. Drop of body temperature below 18 - 20degree is lethal
c. Decreased thyroid hormone increases heart rate
d. Third-degree burns involve the entire dermis, sparing hair follicles and sweat glands

A

a. Brisket disease is characterized by dyspnoea, pulmonary hypertension, right ventricular enlargement and oedema

105
Q

Maturation phase in healing can last from

Select one:

a. 21 days to 1 year
b. 14 days to 1,5 year
c. 21 days to 2 years
d. 10 days to 6 months

A

c. 21 days to 2 years

106
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
Consequences of primary hyperparathyroidism are:
Select one:
a. Nephrolithiasis
b. Nephocalcinosis
c. Osteopetrosis
d. Fibrous osteodystrophy

A

c. Osteopetrosis

A typical consquence of primary hyperparathyrodism is HYPERCALCAEMIA

Osteopetrosis is caused due to Hypercalcitonism/Calcaemia and not due to hyperparathyrodism

107
Q

Consequences of secondary hyperparathyroidism is?

Select one:

a. Osteopetrosis
b. Fibrous ostedystrophy
c. Hypophosphataemia
d. Hyperphosphataemia

A

d. Hyperphosphataemia

108
Q

Which of the following statements is false?
Tetany is caused by

Select one:

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Hypercalcitonism
c. Hypocalcaemia
d. Magnesium deficiency

A

b. Hypercalcitonism