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NAPLEX > passRXnow > Flashcards

passRXnow Flashcards

1
Q

Zolpidem is the generic name for what brand name medication?

A

Ambien

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2
Q

What is the generic name of Eloxatin?

A

Oxaliplatin
_____________

Generic Name: Oxaliplatin
Brand name: Eloxatin
Category or Use: For the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer
Dosage Forms & Strengths: Injection

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3
Q

What is the active ingredient of Actos?

A

Pioglitazone
_____________________________

Generic name: Pioglitazone HCI
Brand name: Actos
Category or use: Antidiabetic
Dosage Forms & Strengths: Tablets (15, 30, 60, and 45 mg)

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4
Q

What is the category of Oseltamivir?

A

Antiviral

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5
Q

In what strength(s) is Oxycodone available?

A

10, 15, 20, 30, 40, 60, and 80 mg
_________________________

Generic name: Oxycodone
Brand name: OxyContin
Category or use: Narcotic analgesic
Dosage form: Tablets

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6
Q

What is the generic name of Neulasta?

A

pegfilgastrim
__________________________

Generic name: Pegfilgrastim
Brand name: Neulasta
Category or use: Hematopoietic stimulant
Dosage form and strength: Injection, 6mg

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7
Q

What is the category of use of Mirapex?

A

Antiparkinsonian
__________________________

Generic name: Pramipexole
Brand name: Mirapex
Dosage form and strength: Tab. (0.125, 0.25, 0.5, 1, and 1.5 mg)

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8
Q

What strengths are warfarin tablets available in?

A 
1 mg
2 mg
2 1/2 mg
3 mg
4 mg
5 mg
6 mg
7 1/2 mg
10 mg
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9
Q

What are the brand names of Oxycodone/APAP?

A

Percocet-5
Roxicet
Endocet
Tylox

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10
Q

What measurements are required to use USP nomograms that estimate BSA (body surface area) for children?

A

Height
Weight
____________________________________
USP nomograms can estimate both adult and pediatric Body Surface Area (BSA).

It consists of three parallel lines: Height, BSA and Weight from left to right. Based on patients’ height and weight a line is drawn between the two outside lines. The intercept in the middle line is the body surface area.

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11
Q

What entity selects generic drug names?

A

USAN (United States Adopted Names) establishes the non proprietary drug names.

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12
Q

Chewable tablets are formulated with what sweetener?

A

Mannitol
___________________________________
Mannitol is an ideal sweetener because it is easily compressed by wet granulation, it is not as sweet as the other sweeteners, and it is not hygroscopic.

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13
Q

Which of the following drug formulations do NOT follow first-order kinetics?

  • Capsules
  • Oral suspensions
  • Oral solutions
  • Tablets
  • Suppositories
A

Oral suspensions
___________________________________
Drugs in oral suspensions follow zero-order kinetics because there is a limiting factor; the amount of drug in solution.

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14
Q

What is the first sign that indicates that an epinephrine solution has decomposed?

A

Pink color
___________________________________
Epinephrine is a catecholamine that is very sensitive to oxidation which has a first sign of pink color that darkens to form a brown precipitate.

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15
Q

Which one of the following references is useful in evaluating pharmacoeconomics of new drugs?

  • PDR
  • USP/NF
  • Medical Letter
  • Facts and Comparisons
  • Merck Index
A

Medical Letter
___________________________________
The Medical Letter is a newsletter that describes mainly newly marketed drugs including pharmacokinetics, clinical studies, comparisons with respect to efficacy and cost of therapy.

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16
Q

Impalpable substances refer to what characteristic?

A

Not perceptible to touch.
___________________________________
An impalpable substance is a very fine particle that cannot be perceived by touch. Usually a particle size is 50 µm or smaller is desired

17
Q

What is Tartrazine’s role when included in drug products?

A

Coloring agent
___________________________________
Tartrazine (F D & C Yellow 5) is a popular coloring agent or dye in solutions and oral tablets.

18
Q

Which of the following is (are) considered to be posterior pituitary hormones?
(Select ALL that apply)

  • Progesterone
  • Human growth hormone
  • Oxytocin
  • Vasopressin
  • Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
A

Oxytocin & Vasopressin
___________________________________
Oxytocin and vasopressin are the hormones produced by posterior pituitary gland.
Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone (HCG) is produced by the placenta during pregnancy.
Human growth hormone is released by the anterior pituitary gland.
Progesterone is produced in the ovaries.

19
Q

Ofloxacin is classified as which antibacterial class?

A

Fluoroquinolone

20
Q

What two agents are used in combination to treat hypoparathyroidism?

A

Dihydrotachysterol
Calcium supplement
__________________________________
Dihydrotachysterol is similar to vitamin D.

21
Q

Which of the following is used for the treatment of Cytomegalovirus (CMV)?
(Select ALL that apply)

  • Foscarnet
  • Ganciclovir
  • Penciclovir
  • Acyclovir
  • Cidofovir
  • Valganciclovir
A

Foscarnet
Ganciclovir
Cidofovir (in pts w/ HIV only)
Valganciclovir (drug of choice)

22
Q

All of the following need dose adjustments in renal dysfunction EXCEPT:

 Ganciclovir  
 Valacyclovir  
 Penciclovir  
 Famciclovir  
 Acyclovir
A

Penciclovir

23
Q

With what comorbidities/conditions is rosovastatin contraindicated?

A 
Pregnancy
Potential pregnancy
Breastfeeding
Active liver disease
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Rosuvastatin (Crestor) is pregnancy category X. It is contraindicated for breastfeeding patients as well as patients with potential pregnancy. It increases LFT's and is thus contraindicated for use in active liver disease.
24
Q

What is the purpose of simethicone in antacids?

A

Antiflatulent
________________________________
Simethicone is an ingredient in antacids that is used for its antiflatulent characteristic. Simethicone acts to lower the surface tension of gas bubbles.

25
Q

What is the generic name for Advicor?

A

Niacin + Lovastatin

26
Q

Name the cardio-selective beta-blockers.

A 
Bisoprolol
Atenolol
Metoprolol
Betaxolol
Acebutolol

(BAMBA)

27
Q

What is the only thiazide diuretic that will not lose efficacy if CrCl

A

Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
_______________________________
Loop diuretics are alternatives for CrCl

28
Q

All of the following diuretics have a ceiling dose EXCEPT for:

 Metolazone  
 Lozol  
 Chlorthalidone  
 Hydrochlorothiazide  
 Torsemide
A

Torsemide
_______________________________
All thiazide diuretics have a ceiling dose, loop diuretics do not.
Torsemide is a loop diuretic.

29
Q

Which of the following can cause pulmonary fibrosis? (Select ALL that apply)

  • Cytarabine
  • Vincristine
  • Vinblastine
  • Bleomycin
  • Carmustine
A 
Bleomycin
Carmustine
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Bleomycin (Bienoxane) - antibiotic
Carmustine (BiCNU) - alkylating agent
30
Q

Which of the following drugs most likely produces a reddish-orange urine color?

 Iodine  
 Hydrochlorothiazide  
 Rifampin 
 Levothyroxine  
 Carbamazepine
A

Rifampin
_______________________________
Rifampin (used for tx of tuberculosis) commonly causes a red-orange urine discoloration because it is a highly red colored substance.

31
Q

A headache that is localized in the periorbital that worsens in the morning can be classified as which of the following?

A

Sinus headache
_______________________________
(worse in the morning because of the accumulations of fluid in the sinus cavities)

32
Q

Which of the following tuberculosis treatment is not an option for the treatment of tuberculosis caused by drug-susceptible organisms following a continuous phase?

  • Rifampin
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Streptomycin
  • Ethambutol
A

Streptomycin
_______________________________
Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol are all treatment options for Tuberculosis caused by drug-susceptible organisms following a continuous phase.

Streptomycin is used for drug resistant tuberculosis or as a substituent to Ethambutol.

33
Q

“Gray Baby Syndrome” is a side effect of which antibiotic?

A

Chloramphenicol
_______________________________
When chloramphenicol is administered during the first few days of a newborn it causes the gray baby syndrome because of a lack of enzyme to metabolize the drug at this early age.

34
Q

What is the purpose of mannitol when used as a therapeutic agent?

A

Osmotic diuretic drug diluent
_______________________________
When given as a hypertonic solution (10%; 25%) mannitol promotes urine flow in conditions such as acute renal failure.

35
Q

Which of the following drugs will most likely cause headache as a side effect?

 Carbamazepine  
 Hydrochlorothiazide  
 Zolpidem  
 Clonidine  
 Nitroglycerin
A

Nitroglycerin
_______________________________
Nitroglycerin is a peripheral vascular tissue and coronary vasodilator.
It causes decrease in blood pressure, increase in blood flow to the myocardium and causes headaches because of cranial vasodilation.

36
Q

Which of the following drugs increases gastric emptying?

  • Ondansetron
  • Metoclopramide
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Promethazine
A

Metoclopramide
_______________________________
All of the above are used as antiemetics through different mechanism of action.
Metoclopramide is a potent antiemetic and it also stimulates GI motility and thus it increases gastric emptying.

37
Q

The “F” value of a drug refers to what?

A

Absolute bioavailability
_______________________________
F is calculated for different drug dosage forms by comparing the different relative AUCs to the AUC of the IV dosage form.

F= 1 is the most ideal value, indicating complete drug absorption.

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