PassMedicine Flashcards

1
Q

Urinary incontinence + gait abnormality + dementia =

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

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2
Q

This condition presents with dementia as well as psychiatric symptoms, the most common of which are hallucinations.

A

Lewy body dementia

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3
Q

is a Parkinson’s plus condition. Thus, the condition shares many of the core features of Parkinson’s disease (tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia) as well as additional symptoms

A

Multiple system atrophy

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4
Q

cardinal features of Parkinson’s disease

A

(tremor, rigidity and bradykinesia)

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5
Q

Newly diagnosed patient of black African or African–Caribbean origin with hypertension - add a

A

calcium channel blocker

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6
Q

have reduced efficacy in black patients and are therefore not used first-line

A

ACE inhibitors

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7
Q

typically causes an early diastolic murmur

A

Aortic regurgitation

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8
Q

most common valvular defect after infective endocarditis

A

aortic regurgitation

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9
Q

Intensity of the murmur is increased by the handgrip maneuver
Collapsing pulse
Wide pulse pressure

A

Aortic regurgitation

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10
Q

is a murmur that occurs with a patent ductus arteriosus, which is a type of congenital heart defect where the ductus arteriosus does not close after birth.

A

continuous machine-like murmur

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11
Q

An ejection systolic murmur is heard with

A

aortic stenosis

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12
Q

A low-pitched diastolic murmur, sometimes called a rumbling murmur, is caused by

A

mitral stenosis

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13
Q

A pansystolic murmur, or holosystolic murmur, is a murmur present throughout all of systole and is typical for

A

mitral regurgitation

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14
Q

This may cause a small volume pulse, a fourth heart sound and a thrill.

A

pansystolic murmur, or holosystolic murmur, mitral regurgitation

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15
Q

Headache caused by raised intracranial pressure due to brain cancer (or metastases) can be palliated with

A

dexamethasone

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16
Q

can reduce cerebral oedema, and therefore, reduce intracranial pressure, help alleviate symptoms of headaches and improve associated neurological deficits.

A

Dexamethasone

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17
Q

would not improve the raised intracranial pressure, and can take up to 72 hours to reach peak serum concentrations.

A

Fentanyl patch

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18
Q

is preferable to topiramate in women of childbearing age (i.e. the majority of women with migraine)

A

Propranolol

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19
Q

propranolol is preferable to topiramate, as the latter may be

A

teratogenic

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20
Q

it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives

A

topiramate

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21
Q

is a medication which can be used to prevent predictable menstrual migraine.

A

Frovatriptan

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22
Q

is considered a first-line option for migraine prophylaxis, but it can be teratogenic and it can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives

A

Topiramate

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23
Q

is a medication which can be used to prevent predictable menstrual migraine

A

Zolmitriptan

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24
Q

are used in the acute treatment of migraine

A

5-HT receptor agonists

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25
Q

First line management of acute pericarditis involves

A

combination of NSAID and colchicine

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26
Q

This might be a suitable choice if NSAIDs or colchicine were contraindicated or have failed or when there is a specific indication such as an autoimmune disease.

A

Prednisolone

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27
Q

Over-replacement with thyroxine increases the risk for

A

osteoporosis

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28
Q

reduced bone mineral density and osteoporosis

A

Over-replacement with thyroxine

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29
Q

is seen in thyrotoxicosis associated with Graves’ disease, due to the autoantibody-mediated activation of orbital fibroblasts.

A

Exophthalmos (proptosis)

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30
Q

is more commonly associated with hyperglycaemia, rather than hypoglycaemia.

A

Thyrotoxicosis

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31
Q

is a cause of high-output heart failure

A

Severe anaemia

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32
Q

as it causes cardiac stress through tachycardia and increased stroke volume.

A

high-output heart failure

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33
Q

This occurs when blood accumulates in the myocardium, usually following trauma.

A

Cardiac tamponade

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34
Q

It typically presents with Beck’s triad and requires immediate pericardiocentesis.

A

Cardiac tamponade

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35
Q

It does typically affect patients in this age group but is a genetic condition causing the heart muscle to be thicker, and is a cause of sudden death in young people. It is not related to severe anaemia.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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36
Q

is an inflammation of the heart muscle which can cause heart failure

A

Myocarditis

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37
Q

is an inflammation of the pericardium

A

Pericarditis

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38
Q

Discontinue SAMA (switch to SABA) if commencing LAMA

A

COPD

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39
Q

Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home are used to detect

A

occupational asthma

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40
Q

The onset of cough and wheeze after starting a new job coupled with the improvement of symptoms whilst on holiday suggests a diagnosis of

A

occupational asthma

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41
Q

A baker is a high-risk profession for occupational

A

asthma

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42
Q

Schistosomiasis is treated with

A

praziquantel

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43
Q

which commonly causes a ‘swimmer’s itch’, particularly in patients who return from Africa

A

schistosomiasis

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44
Q

This usually causes an itchy rash to form commonly on the legs due to swimming in infected water.

A

schistosomiasis

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45
Q

is commonly used in the management of cellulitis.

A

Flucloxacillin

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46
Q

can be used for the management of nematodes.

A

Thiabendazole

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47
Q

is a parasitic flatworm infection

A

Schistosomiasis, or bilharzia

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48
Q

Definitive diagnosis of sickle cell disease is by

A

haemoglobin electrophoresis

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49
Q

This patient is presenting with a history of thrombotic crises, typical of

A

sickle cell anemia

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50
Q

the sickle-shaped red blood cells occlude the vessels causing

A

momentary ischemia

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51
Q

The treatment is supportive, with analgesia and abundant fluids.

A

sickle-shaped red blood cells occlude the vessels causing momentary ischemia.

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52
Q

Serum-free light chain assay is used to diagnose

A

multiple myeloma

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53
Q

is a contraindication to statin therapy

A

Pregnancy

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54
Q

Thymomas are commonly associated with

A

myasthenia gravis

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55
Q

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is commonly associated with

A

small-cell lung cancer

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56
Q

is a life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment with pericardiocentesis

A

Cardiac tamponade

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57
Q

triad consists of muffled heart sounds, raised JVP and hypotension.

A

Beck’s triad

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58
Q

Cardiac tamponade is an emergency and requires immediate

A

pericardiocentesis to drain the blood in the pericardium.

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59
Q

is a procedure used to aspirate air from the pleural cavity in patients with a tension pneumothorax.

A

Thoracocentesis

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60
Q

It is important to remember that strokes can be caused by

A

hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity

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61
Q

which usually also presents with bone marrow infiltration, splenomegaly and sometimes lymphadenopathy.

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia

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62
Q

Pyridostigmine is a long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that reduces the breakdown of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction, temporarily improving symptoms of

A

myasthenia gravis

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63
Q

are used to treat myasthenic crisis where there is respiratory muscle weakness

A

Plasmapheresis and IV immunoglobulin

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64
Q

Immunosuppressive agents such as prednisolone can be used to treat relapses however it may take months of treatment to achieve remission.

A

myasthenia gravis

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65
Q

would be considered if the disease is not easily controlled by pyridostigmine or there was evidence of a thymoma to prevent local invasion.

A

Thymectomy

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66
Q

Posterior MI typically present on ECG with

A

tall R waves V1-2

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67
Q

usually occurs due to an occlusion of the posterior descending artery (posterior interventricular artery).

A

Posterior myocardial infarction

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68
Q

In 80% of people, this artery branches from the right coronary artery.

A

posterior descending artery (posterior interventricular artery)

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69
Q

In this case there is a high risk wound and symptoms so tetanus ___________would be advised alongside a muscle relaxant such as diazepam, and ventilatory support if needed.

A

immunuglobulin

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70
Q

Wounds burns needing surgery delayed more than 6 hours
Wounds contaminated with soil
Compound fractures
Wounds containing foreign bodies
Wounds/burns in people with systemic sepsis

A

High risk wounds

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71
Q

Signs of right-sided heart failure are

A

raised JVP, ankle oedema and hepatomegaly

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72
Q

describes the hypertrophy of the right ventricle and right heart failure that are caused by pulmonary arterial hypertension.

A

Cor pulmonale

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73
Q

hypoxia induces pulmonary vasoconstriction, eventually causing

A

pulmonary hypertension

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74
Q

Shortness of breath on exertion, orthopnoea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea are more indicative of

A

left-sided heart failure

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75
Q

Chest pain on exertion is indicative of angina due to

A

coronary artery disease.

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76
Q

is a sign of right-sided heart failure

A

Hepatomegaly

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77
Q

sign may be seen in pancreatic cancer

A

The ‘double duct’

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78
Q

New onset diabetes (HbA1C of 7.3%) in someone of this age should ring alarm bells for

A

pancreatic cancer and prompt referral.

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79
Q

A raised serum lipase and painless jaundice also add to the case.

A

pancreatic cancer and prompt referral.

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80
Q

this is seen on brain imaging and can indicate progressive supranuclear palsy (PSP)

A

Hummingbird sign

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81
Q

Pulmonary stenosis is louder on

A

inspiration

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82
Q

causes an ejection systolic murmur that is louder on inspiration.

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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83
Q

An ejection systolic murmur that is louder on expiration is characteristic of

A

aortic stenosis

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84
Q

A holo-systolic murmur that is louder on expiration is indicative of

A

mitral regurgitation.

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85
Q

A holo-systolic murmur that is louder on inspiration is indicative of

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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86
Q

Late systolic murmurs indicate

A

mitral valve prolapse and coarctation of the aorta

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87
Q

A mid-systolic click is caused by

A

prolapse of the mitral valve

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88
Q

is the gold standard test for diagnosing venous sinus thrombosis

A

MR Venogram

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89
Q

slow-onset severe headache, diplopia, nausea and seizures. These are all features of

A

increased intracranial pressure

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90
Q

past medical history of antiphospholipid syndrome coupled with pregnancy, which induces a

A

hypercoagulable state, lead to a diagnosis of venous sinus thrombosis.

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91
Q

is defined as a thrombotic obstruction of the cerebral veins and/or dural sinuses.

A

Venous sinus thrombosis

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92
Q

MR venogram is a form of MRI which is used to diagnose this condition

A

Venous sinus thrombosis

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93
Q

This is the investigation of choice to diagnose meningitis, which would present with fever, photophobia and neck stiffness

A

Lumbar puncture - CSF sent for cell counts and gram stain

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94
Q

This is the investigation of choice to diagnose a subdural haematoma when a CT head is negative

A

Lumbar puncture with CSF sent for xanthochromia

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95
Q

severe, sudden onset thunderclap headache, photophobia and neck stiffness

A

subdural haematoma

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96
Q

is normal in around 70% of patients affected by venous sinus thrombosis.

A

Non-contrast CT head scan

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97
Q

describes patients with ischaemic symptoms suggestive of an ACS and no elevation in troponins, with or without electrocardiogram changes indicative of ischaemia

A

Unstable angina

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98
Q

This patient is presenting with chest pain accompanied by deeply inverted T waves in V2-3 and a 0.5mm ST depression in the same leads.

A

unstable angina

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99
Q

would present with a sharp, tearing pain in the anterior chest or back.

A

Aortic dissection

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100
Q

It is a type of progressive cellulitis that invades the floor of the mouth and soft tissues of the neck.

A

Ludwig’s angina

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101
Q

presents with chest pain and ST-segment depression

A

Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction

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102
Q

needs an ST elevation greater than 1.5 mm in V2-3 in women to be diagnosed and elevated troponin levels.

A

ST elevation myocardial infarction

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103
Q

classically presents as visible haematuria following a recent URTI

A

IgA nephropathy

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104
Q

episodes of macroscopic haematuria, typically associated with a recent respiratory tract infection and mild proteinuria.

A

IgA nephropathy

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105
Q

which is caused by immune complex (IgG, IgM, and C3) deposition in the glomeruli.

A

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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106
Q

This happens more slowly, typically 7-14 days following a group A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus infection and causes proteinuria.

A

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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107
Q

is an X-linked dominant disease. It presents with microscopic haematuria, bilateral sensorineural deafness, and lenticonus.

A

Alport’s syndrome

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108
Q

can present as nephrotic syndrome, haematuria, or proteinuria.

A

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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109
Q

disease is very common in children, but nearly always presents as nephrotic syndrome.

A

Minimal change

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110
Q

causes renal failure by tubular cell necrosis

A

Myoglobinuria

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111
Q

The history and a very high serum creatine kinase give a diagnosis of

A

rhabdomyolysis

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112
Q

can cause a restrictive lung defect on spirometry

A

Kyphoscoliosis (e.g. ankylosing spondylitis)

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113
Q

a normal chest examination along with a normal chest x-ray make clinically significant ILD unlikely

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

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114
Q

The x-ray may show emphysema, flattened hemidiaphragms and hyperinflation. In obstructive lung disease, the FEV1/FVC ratio is < 0.7.

A

COPD

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115
Q

should be stopped in AKI as may worsen renal function

A

ACE inhibitors

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116
Q

is a 5α-reductase inhibitor and treats benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) by blocking dihydrotestosterone synthesis.

A

Finasteride

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117
Q

‘Unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms are typically treated for

A

6 months

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118
Q

is used to suppress nausea and vomiting with intracranial tumours

A

Dexamethasone

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119
Q

can reduce the oedema of CNS tumor can relieve nausea and vomiting.

A

Dexamethasone

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120
Q

is commonly prescribed in malignant nausea, it is not the best drug for nausea secondary to brain tumours because it does not directly treat the cause of nausea.

A

histamine H1-receptor antagonist (antihistamine)cyclizine

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121
Q

helps to reduce labyrinth disorders related symptoms.

A

Prochlorperazine

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122
Q

is analogous to chlorpromazine; both of these agents antagonize dopaminergic D2 receptors in various pathways of the central nervous system.

A

Prochlorperazine

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123
Q

the antiemetic action of ____________is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the central nervous system, it will not reduce the oedema of the tumour which causes the symptoms

A

metoclopramide

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124
Q

is a type of benzodiazepine which will reduce his agitation

A

Lorazepam

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125
Q

should be urgently referred for assessment by specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery)

A

degenerative cervical myelopathy

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126
Q

degenerative cervical myelopathy

A

Cervical decompressive surgery

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127
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitors have been linked to necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum (Fournier’s Gangrene)

A

Dapagliflozin

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128
Q

is an SGLT-2 inhibitor used in type 2 diabetes. It acts to inhibit sodium glucose co-transporter 2 in the proximal convoluted tubule which reduces glucose reabsorption and increases urinary glucose excretion.

A

Dapaglifozin

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129
Q

Ileocaecal resection may result in

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

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130
Q

is absorbed in the terminal ileum, therefore resection of the terminal ileum as part of ileocaecal resection would reduce

A

vitamin B12

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131
Q

would cause anaemia and glossitis

A

Iron deficiency

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132
Q

Cortisol: suppressed
ACTH: suppressed

A

High-dose dexamethasone suppression test with a pituitary adenoma

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133
Q

Suppressed ACTH and cortisol on high-dose dexamethasone suppression

A

Cushing’s disease (pituitary adenoma)

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134
Q

Suppressed ACTH but unsuppressed cortisol on high-dose dexamethasone

A

adrenal adenomas

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135
Q

Unsuppressed ACTH and cortisol on high-dose dexamethasone suppression

A

Ectopic ACTH syndrome

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136
Q

following possible exposure give immunglobulin + vaccination

A

Rabies

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137
Q

there will be an abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration, known as pulsus paradoxus

A

In cardiac tamponade

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138
Q

drop in blood pressure on inspiration

A

pulsus paradoxus

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139
Q

The symptoms three months ago were likely due to optic neuritis, a common presenting feature of ___________.

A

multiple sclerosis

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140
Q

The combination of low platelet counts and raised FDP in this setting make ________ the most likely diagnosis.

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

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141
Q

is most commonly caused by cavernous sinus tumours.

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

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142
Q

the nasopharyngeal malignancy has locally invaded the left cavernous sinus

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

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143
Q

Diagnosis is based on signs of pain, opthalmoplegia, proptosis, trigeminal nerve lesion (opthalmic branch) and Horner’s syndrome.

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

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144
Q

Measure of disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis

A

DAS28

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145
Q

Helps estimate the risk of a patient having a deep vein thrombosis

A

Wells score

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146
Q

Mini-mental state examination - used to assess cognitive impairment

A

MMSE

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147
Q

Used in the assessment of suspected obstructive sleep apnoea

A

Epworth Sleepiness Scale

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148
Q

Indicates prognosis in prostate cancer

A

Gleason score

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149
Q

is the second most common association of HNPCC after colorectal cancer

A

Endometrial cancer

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150
Q

are ‘critical’ medicines which should not be stopped on acute admissions and must be delivered on time

A

Levodopa and other antiparkinsons drugs

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151
Q

presents with the triad of sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

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152
Q

Gallstones are likely to cause a greater increase in

A

ALP

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153
Q

causes a rise in bilirubin after an acute stress on the body eg: illness or fasting.

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

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154
Q

DVT investigation: if the scan is negative, but the D-dimer is positive

A

→ stop anticoagulation and repeat scan in 1 week

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155
Q

Sexual dysfunction is an important side effect of

A

thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide

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156
Q

Due to it’s action as an insulin secretagogue, it can cause hypoglycaemia.

A

Gliclazide

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157
Q

Hypsarrhythmia on EEG suggests

A

infantile spasms (West’s syndrome)

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158
Q

typically present with tonic-clonic movements and a loss of consciousness, with a history of fever, most commonly between the ages of 6 months and 3 years.

A

Febrile seizures

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159
Q

typically presents in adolescence with infrequent generalised seizures.

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

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160
Q

Nasogastric tubes are safe to use if

A

pH <5.5 on aspirate

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161
Q

develops in around 10% of primary sclerosing cholangitis patients

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

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162
Q

is the most common cause of an exudative pleural effusion

A

Pneumonia

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163
Q

protein level >35 and the LDH >200 point

A

exudative effusion

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164
Q

can immediately be ruled out as they are both transudative.

A

heart failure and renal failure

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165
Q

ITP - give oral

A

prednisolone

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166
Q

is the first-line treatment for immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) which is defined as an isolated low platelet count

A

Oral prednisolone

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167
Q

3 sets of blood cultures are recommended in the investigation of

A

infective endocarditis

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168
Q

is used for symptomatic bradycardia if atropine fails

A

External pacing

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169
Q

typically presents with haematuria, proteinuria/oedema, hypertension and oliguria

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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170
Q

periorbital oedema, oliguria, proteinuria and haematuria after impetigo.

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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171
Q

profuse diarrhoea due to infection with Escherichia coli O157

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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172
Q

presents similarly and also occurs after an upper respiratory tract infection, but has a shorter latency period (1-2 days following the infection)

A

IgA nephropathy

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173
Q

It could result in dark (‘cola coloured’) urine due to myoglobinuria

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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174
Q

infection is a common cause for non-specific urethritis (dysuria +/- urethral discharge)

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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175
Q

most common symptom of Crohn’s disease in children?

A

Abdominal pain

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176
Q

COPD - still breathless despite using SABA/SAMA and asthma/steroid responsive features →

A

add a LABA + ICS

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177
Q

is used first-line to prevent angina attacks

A

A beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker

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178
Q

Newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who has a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus - add

A

an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker regardless of age

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179
Q

Motor (6 points) Verbal (5 points) Eye opening (4 points). Can remember as ‘654…MoVE’

A

GCS

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180
Q

A sudden anemia and a low reticulocute count indicates parvovirus

A

sickle cell anaemia

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181
Q

It is important to remember that strokes can be caused by

A

hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity

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182
Q

UTI in a pregnant woman in the third trimester - use

A

amoxicillin or cefalexin

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183
Q

is the recommended treatment for symptomatic UTI in pregnant women near term

A

Cefalexin

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184
Q

is the treatment of choice for some sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia in pregnant women

A

Azithromycin

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185
Q

postural hypotension may be seen in Parkinson’s disease the ataxic gait point towards a diagnosis of

A

multiple system atrophy

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186
Q

is associated with faecal-oral spread, commonly affecting shellfish and pork products. Blood results show elevated bilirubin and significant transaminitis.

A

Hepatitis E

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187
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci penumonia is treated with

A

co-trimoxazole, which is a mix of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

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188
Q

are the investigation of choice in genital herpes

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

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189
Q

Optic neuritis can be a feature of

A

multiple sclerosis

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190
Q

should first be investigated with a Holter monitor after initial bloods/ECG

A

Palpitations

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190
Q

should first be investigated with a Holter monitor after initial bloods/ECG

A

Palpitations

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191
Q

are best visualized by MRI of the cerebellopontine angle

A

Acoustic neuromas

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192
Q

Regular opioid medication can lead to

A

medication overuse headaches

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193
Q

In life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection treatment is with

A

ORAL vancomycin and IV metronidazole

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194
Q

are generally used first-line in the management of patients with warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Steroids (+/- rituximab)

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195
Q

Lying/standing blood pressure is a very important investigation in the elderly who present with

A

falls

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196
Q

often presents with raised CK and leukocytosis

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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197
Q

accounts for the majority of lung cancer cases in non-smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

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198
Q

is an X linked disorder affecting red cell enzymes.

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

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199
Q

PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin, or

PPI + metronidazole + clarithromycin

A

H. pylori eradication:

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200
Q

is associated with Takayasu’s arteritis

A

Renal artery stenosis

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201
Q

Patients with a suspected pulmonary embolism should be initially managed with a

A

direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

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202
Q

There is no need for prophylactic antibiotics for Lyme disease in

A

asymptomatic patients bitten by a tick

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203
Q

causes peripheral neuropathy

A

Isoniazid

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204
Q

are first-line in benign prostatic hyperplasia if the patient has troublesome symptoms

A

Alpha-1 antagonists

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205
Q

pseudopolyps seen on endoscopy

A

Ulcerative colitis

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206
Q

should be prescribed in all patients with suspected hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose

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207
Q

Obese, young female with headaches / blurred vision think

A

idiopathic intracranial hypertension

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208
Q

painless bright red vaginal bleeding

A

Placenta praevia

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209
Q

Right upper quadrant tenderness and bilious fluid in the intra-abdominal drain would suggest

A

bile leak following the cholecystectomy

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210
Q

Patients with GORD being considered for fundoplication surgery require

A

oesophageal pH and manometry studies

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211
Q

disease is a cause of hypoglycaemia

A

Addison’s

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212
Q

A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by

A

heparin therapy, haemophilia or antiphospholipid syndrome

213
Q

include flu-like symptoms and a dry cough, relative bradycardia and confusion. Blood tests may show hyponatraemia

A

Stereotypical features of Legionella

214
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor - add

A

a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic

215
Q

Guidelines continue to recommend the use of IM diclofenac in the acute management of

A

renal colic

216
Q

Pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is associated with

A

cold sores

217
Q

If a uterine fibroid is less than 3cm in size, and not distorting the uterine cavity, medical treatment can be tried

A

(e.g. IUS, tranexamic acid, COCP etc)

218
Q

is the persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, e.g. cancer

A

Illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)

219
Q

Isolated fever in well patient in first 24 hours following surgery?

A

Think physiological reaction to operation

220
Q

should be stopped in AKI as may worsen renal function

A

Angiotensin II receptor antagonists

221
Q

must be temporarily stopped when a macrolide antibiotic is started

A

Statins

222
Q

Adult with asthma not controlled by a SABA -

A

add a low-dose ICS

223
Q

This is a common cause of itch in the third trimester of pregnancy

A

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

224
Q

a high ALP and GGT, with a lesser rise in ALT

A

cholestatic picture of liver function tests (LFTs)

225
Q

are now the first-line test for acromegaly

A

Serum IGF-1 levels

226
Q

is at risk with duodenal ulcers on the posterior wall

A

Gastroduodenal artery

227
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis - the M rule

A

IgM
anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, M2 subtype
Middle aged females

228
Q

should be offered to women with a previous baby with early- or late-onset GBS disease

A

Maternal intravenous antibiotic prophylaxis

229
Q

can cause orange tears/urine

A

Rifampicin

230
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia is most common cause in newborns

A

Ambiguous genetalia

231
Q

most commonly affects neonates in the first 30 days of life and is most commonly bilious

A

Malrotation

232
Q

Pregnant women who have a first degree relative with diabetes should be screened for gestational diabetes with an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at

A

24-28 weeks

233
Q

is a dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint with an associated fracture of the radius

A

A Galeazzi fracture

234
Q

test is the most reliable test to confirm ovulation

A

Day 21 progesterone

235
Q

Patients with raised ICP may exhibit Cushing’s triad:

A

widening pulse pressure
bradycardia
irregular breathing

236
Q

To detect a subarachnoid haemorrhage the LP should be done at least

A

12 hours after the start of the headache

237
Q

is used in non-falciparum malaria to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

A

Primaquine

238
Q

purpura classically presents with abdominal pain, arthritis, haematuria and a purpuric rash over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

239
Q

A young woman complains of feeling lonely. She has stopped seeing her old friends as she is worried about not being liked or criticised -

A

avoidant personality disorder

240
Q

if both parents are carriers (heterozygote) there is a 25% chance of having an affected (homozygote) child

A

autosomal recessive conditions

241
Q

Prolactin release is persistently inhibited by

A

dopamine

242
Q

External rotation (on both active and passive movement) is classically impaired in

A

adhesive capsulitis

243
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma secreting ACTH can cause

A

Cushing’s syndrome

244
Q

Chest x-ray in transient tachypnoea of the newborn may show

A

hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure

245
Q

is the most effective form of emergency contraception and is not affected by BMI

A

The copper intra-uterine device

246
Q

The presence of proximal muscle weakness with dermatological signs should raise suspicion of

A

dermatomyositis

247
Q

Careful speculum examination to look for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault is the first-line investigation for

A

preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes

248
Q

is the most common metabolic complication in patients with cancer

A

Hypercalcaemia

249
Q

maternal fever, tachycardia and neutrophilia (note that the normal range is elevated during pregnancy).

A

Chorioamnionitis

250
Q

classically presents as visible haematuria following a recent URTI

A

IgA nephropathy

251
Q

inhibits the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

A

Furosemide

252
Q

Bisphosphonates can cause a variety of

A

oesophageal problems

253
Q

in infants use a two-thumb encircling technique for chest compression

A

Paediatric BLS

254
Q

is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

255
Q

Investigation for diabetes insipidus

A

water deprivation test

256
Q

this is 7 days before the end of the lady’s regular cycle when progesterone levels should be tested.

A

Day 28

257
Q

Haemoarthroses are a common feature of

A

haemophilia

258
Q

can present several weeks after the initial head injury

A

Subdural haematomas

259
Q

Urinary incontinence in a man with a history of gonorrhoea may be due to a

A

urinary stricture

260
Q

is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Multiple pregnancy

261
Q

Lip smacking + post-ictal dysphasia are localising features of a

A

temporal lobe seizure

262
Q

The most appropriate treatment of a patient with signs and symptoms consistent with _______________ is urgent, same day referral for assessment by an opthalmologist

A

anterior uveitis

263
Q

once-daily insulin dose should generally be reduced by 20% on the day before and the day of surgery

A

Surgery / diabetes

264
Q

In an infant, the appropriate places to check for a pulse are the brachial and femoral arteries

A

Paediatric BLS

265
Q

are known to exacerbate plaque psoriasis

A

Beta-blockers

266
Q

Ligamentous injuries of the knee joint are best confirmed through

A

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

267
Q

Isoniazid inhibits the

A

P450 system

268
Q

classically associated with a pansystolic murmur

A

Ventricular septal defect

269
Q

is the investigation of choice for intussusception

A

Ultrasound

270
Q

Pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae is associated with

A

cold sores

271
Q

A complication of epidural anesthesia is a

A

epidural haematoma

272
Q

is the number one cause of painless massive GI bleeding requiring a transfusion in children between the ages of 1 and 2 years.

A

Meckels diverticulum

273
Q

Urinary incontinence - first-line treatment:

A

urge incontinence: bladder retraining

stress incontinence: pelvic floor muscle training

274
Q

is associated with a history of recurrent self-harm and intense interpersonal relationships that alternate between idealization and devaluation

A

Borderline (emotionally unstable) personality disorder

275
Q

is a contraindication for injectable progesterone contraceptives

A

Current breast cancer

276
Q

is a key investigation for a suspected perforated peptic ulcer

A

An erect chest x-ray

277
Q

are seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome

A

Gastrointestinal side-effects such as diarrhoea

278
Q

presents with the triad of sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, and tender hepatomegaly

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

279
Q

Gottron’s papules, roughened red papules over the knuckles mainly, are seen in

A

dermatomyositis

280
Q

direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) should be offered first-line for reducing stroke risk in

A

atrial fibrillation (AF)

281
Q

may also present with shoulder pain and upper limb neurological signs due to local extension of the tumour

A

As well as Horner’s syndrome, Pancoast tumours

282
Q

Patients who have received an organ transplant are at risk of

A

skin cancer (particularly squamous cell carcinoma) due to long-term use of immunosuppressants

283
Q

Liver transplantation criteria in paracetamol overdose

A

pH < 7.3 more than 24 hours after ingestion

284
Q

The standard HbA1c target in type 2 diabetes mellitus is

A

48 mmol/mol

285
Q

demonstrated by severe itching, jaundice, obstructive LFTs, normal WBC and no evidence of coagulopathy.

A

cholestasis of pregnancy

286
Q

If a uterine fibroid is less than 3cm in size, and not distorting the uterine cavity, medical treatment can be tried (e.g.

A

IUS, tranexamic acid, COCP etc)

287
Q

is associated with ‘tear drop’ poikilocytes on blood film

A

Myelofibrosis

288
Q

is a non-cancerous growth of squamous epithelium that is ‘trapped’ within the skull base causing local destruction.

A

Cholesteatoma

289
Q

are ANA positive, therefore it is a useful rule out test

A

Over 99% of patients with SLE

290
Q

An itchy rash affecting the face and scalp distribution is commonly caused by

A

seborrhoeic dermatitis

291
Q

if both parents are carriers (heterozygote) there is a 50% chance of having a carrier (heterozygote) child

A

For autosomal recessive conditions

292
Q

may be diagnosed in patients who are overly sensitive and can be unforgiving if insulted, question loyalty of those around them and are reluctant to confide in others

A

Paranoid personality disorder

293
Q

is the most common hereditary sensorimotor neuropathy

A

Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

294
Q

is the most suitable management option for epistaxis where the bleed site is difficult to localise

A

Anterior packing

295
Q

COPD symptoms in a young person - think

A

alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency

296
Q

is a complication of acute pancreatitis

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

297
Q

Human bites, like animal bites, should be treated with

A

co-amoxiclav

298
Q

typically involves loss of motor or sensory function. May be caused by stress

A

Conversion disorder

299
Q

sudden painless loss of vision, severe retinal haemorrhages on fundoscopy

A

Central retinal vein occlusion

300
Q

HRT: unopposed oestrogen increases risk of

A

endometrial cancer

301
Q

hyperpigmentation of the palmar creases

A

Addison’s disease

302
Q

is the imaging of choice in suspected renal colic

A

Non-contrast CT-KUB

303
Q

should be continued during an acute attack in patients presenting with an acute flare of gout who are already established on treatment

A

Allopurinol

304
Q

Pneumocystis jiroveci penumonia is treated with

A

co-trimoxazole, which is a mix of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

305
Q

Newly diagnosed patient with hypertension (< 55 years) - add an

A

ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker

306
Q

Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed by either a:

A

fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L, or

2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L

307
Q

fibrinolysis should be offered within 12 hours of onset of symptoms if primary PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes

A

STEMI management

308
Q

is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure

A

Oxycodone

309
Q

Behcet’s syndrome is associated with

A

erythema nodosum

310
Q

should be suspected in patients with continuous dribbling incontinence after prolonged labour and from an area with limited obstetric services.

A

Vesicovaginal fistulae

311
Q

Use of the contraceptive pill should be ceased before an operation to prevent a

A

pulmonary embolism

312
Q

Coeliac disease increases the risk of developing enteropathy-associated

A

T cell lymphoma

313
Q

are recommended for superficial thrombophlebitis

A

Compression stockings

314
Q

The main ECG abnormality seen with hypercalcaemia is

A

shortening of the QT interval

315
Q

Diagnosis of a mesothelioma is made on histology, following a

A

thoracoscopy

316
Q

is the investigation of choice for suspected aortic dissection (depending on stability of patient)

A

CT angiography

317
Q

normally presents within 5-10 days post-operatively. The shortness of breath makes a diagnosis of

A

Venous thromboembolism

318
Q

ultrasound with Doppler flow studies is very sensitive and should be the initial radiological investigation

A

Budd–Chiari syndrome

319
Q

X-ray changes of osteoarthritis (LOSS)

A

Loss of joint space
Osteophytes forming at joint margins
Subchondral sclerosis
Subchondral cysts

320
Q

Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy - first step is to

A

check antibodies

321
Q

If 2 pills missed in week 3, finish the pills in the current pack and start new pack immediately, omitting pill-free interval

A

COCP

322
Q

is used in patent ductus arteriosus to promote duct closure

A

Indomethacin or ibuprofen

323
Q

neuroimaging findings: ventriculomegaly in the absence of, or out of proportion to, sulcal enlargement

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

324
Q

HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive, IgG anti-HBc negative -

A

previous immunisation

325
Q

A protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus and only positive in active infection.

A

HBsAg - hepatitis B surface antigen

326
Q

hepatitis B surface antibody. Individuals produce anti-HBs following natural infection or vaccination. Therefore, positive anti-HBs indicates immunity but does not differentiate between previous infection or previous vaccination.

A

Anti-HBs (sometimes written HBsAb)

327
Q

These are antibodies produced against the hepatitis B core antigen. The vaccine does not contain core antigen, only exposure to the hepatitis B virus gives positive anti-HBc. IgM antibodies indicate current infection (high titre indicates acute infection, low titre indicates chronic infection), while IgG antibodies indicate a previous infection.

A

Anti-HBc (HBcAb) - hepatitis B core antibody.

328
Q

HBsAg positive
anti-HBs negative
IgG anti-HBc negative
IgM anti-HBc positive (high titre)

A

Acute infection:

329
Q

HBsAg positive
anti-HBs negative
IgG anti-HBc negative
IgM anti-HBc positive (low titre)

A

Chronic infection:

330
Q

HBsAg negative
anti-HBs positive
IgG anti-HBc positive
IgM anti-HBc negative

A

Immune due to natural infection:

331
Q

HBsAg negative
anti-HBs negative
IgG anti-HBc negative
IgM anti-HBc negative

A

No immunity or infection:

332
Q

is the most common inherited clotting disorder

A

Von Willebrand’s disease

333
Q

should be used for children with pneumonia if mycoplasma is suspected

A

A macrolide e.g. erythromicin

334
Q

is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Multiple pregnancy

335
Q

Elderly, alcoholic, head injury, insidiuous onset symptom -

A

subdural haematoma

336
Q

Passage of meconium after 48 hours is a red flag

A

Hirschsprung’s disease

337
Q

Red or black lump, oozes or bleeds, sun-exposed skin

A

Nodular melanoma

338
Q

Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway in

A

acute epiglottitis

339
Q

Trophoblastic disease is a risk factor for

A

hyperemesis gravidarum

340
Q

An effective treatment for borderline personality disorder is

A

dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)

341
Q

Any person on anticoagulants with a head injury must receive a

A

CT head within 8 hours

342
Q

hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill should be offered to women until the age of 51 years

A

Premature ovarian insufficiency

343
Q

Membranous nephropathy is frequently associated with

A

malignancy

344
Q

should be used as the first-line treatment in opioid detoxification

A

Methadone or buprenorphine

345
Q

ulcers usually occur around the medial malleolus (gaiter region)

A

Venous

346
Q

are first-line treatment for prolactinomas, even if there are significant neurological complications

A

Dopamine agonists (e.g. cabergoline, bromocriptine)

347
Q

slapped-cheek syndrome, also known as erythema infectiosum.

A

parvovirus b19

348
Q

Dysphagia, aspiration pneumonia, halitosis → ?

A

pharyngeal pouch

349
Q

syndrome produces pain on passive stretch

A

Compartment

350
Q

A common endocrine complication of small cell lung cancer is

A

SIADH

351
Q

As well as xanthochromia, CSF findings consistent with subarachnoid haemorrhage include a

A

normal or raised opening pressure

352
Q

Bone pain, tenderness and proximal myopathy (→ waddling gait) → ?

A

osteomalacia

353
Q

Benzylpenicillin is the antibiotic of choice for ________prophylaxis

A

GBS

354
Q

Patients are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for

A

prostate cancer

355
Q

Bilious vomiting on the first day is likely due to

A

intestinal atresia

356
Q

Bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the most common cause of

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

357
Q

Unstable angina or NSTEMI?

A

Elevation in troponin points towards NSTEMI

358
Q

if the patient is conscious and able to swallow the first-line treatment is a fast-acting carbohydrate by mouth i.e.. glucose liquids, tablets or gels

A

Hypoglycaemia treatment

359
Q

Retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, thrombocytopenia in returning traveller → ?

A

dengue

360
Q

Corticosteroids may cause

A

proximal myopathy

361
Q

If a hernia cannot be reduced it is referred to as

A

an incarcerated hernia

362
Q

The low-dose (overnight) dexamethasone suppression test is the best test to diagnosis

A

Cushing’s syndrome

363
Q

Use of the contraceptive pill should be ceased before an operation to prevent a

A

pulmonary embolism

364
Q

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome - classically caused by

A

E coli 0157:H7

365
Q

is a common cause of bacterial otitis media

A

Haemophilus influenzae

366
Q

should be considered if a bradycardia doesn’t respond to drugs or transcutaneous pacing

A

Transvenous pacing

367
Q

is elevated in biliary atresia

A

Conjugated bilirubin

368
Q

Neutrophil predominant leucocytosis is present in 80–90% of people with

A

appendicitis

369
Q

can cause AKI due to acute tubular necrosis

A

Rhabdomyolysis

370
Q

raises the possibility of Ramsey-Hunt syndrome but this is actually quite common in Bell’s palsy

A

The pain around the ear

371
Q

T2DM with abnormal LFTs - ?

A

non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

372
Q

Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus + ophthalmoplegia are features of

A

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

373
Q

is an important side effect of amiodarone

A

Thyroid dysfunction

374
Q

A child aged 6-11 years should be administered adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml), repeated every 5 minutes if necessary

A

Anaphylaxis

375
Q

The AST/ALT ratio in alcoholic hepatitis is

A

2:1

376
Q

extend beyond the limits of the incision.

A

Keloid scars

377
Q

if the fasting plasma glucose is < 7 mmol/l a trial of diet and exercise should be offered for 1-2 weeks

A

Gestational diabetes

378
Q

hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

A

Addison’s disease management

379
Q

can cause fluid retention and is therefore contraindicated in patients with heart failure.

A

Pioglitazone

380
Q

A tension pneumothorax should not be investigated if suspected but should be immediately

A

decompressed with a needle

381
Q

is the mainstay for acute PR bleeds if patient is haemodynamically stable

A

Supportive management

382
Q

Rapid correction of hyponatraemia can cause

A

osmotic demyelination syndrome

383
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis + bacterial vaginosis are associated with a pH

A

> 4.5

384
Q

are first line for lower back pain

A

NSAIDS

385
Q

acute treatment: subcutaneous sumatriptan + 100% O2

A

Cluster headache

386
Q

is a risk factor for developing adhesive capsulitis

A

Diabetes mellitus

387
Q

may present with upper quadrant abdo pain

A

Lower lobe pneumonia

388
Q

is a restrictive lung condition. Therefore spirometry results will commonly show a normal or slightly reduced FEV1 and a reduced FVC

A

Pneumoconiosis

389
Q

Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme

A

inductor

390
Q

The standard target time for thrombectomy in acute ischaemic stroke is

A

6 hours

391
Q

Multiple painful genital ulcers, sexually active -

A

genital herpes

392
Q

acute alcohol intake is not associated with an increased risk of developing hepatotoxicity and may actually be protective

A

Paracetamol overdose

393
Q

The main ECG abnormality seen with hypercalcaemia is

A

shortening of the QT interval

394
Q

Complications of thyroid surgery - damage to parathyroid glands can result in

A

hypocalcaemia

395
Q

Ptosis + dilated pupil = third nerve palsy; ptosis + constricted pupil =

A

Horner’s

396
Q

is a highly specific test for SLE

A

Anti-dsDNA

397
Q

stroke causes leg weakness but not face weakness or speech impairment

A

Anterior cerebral artery

398
Q

rule out thyroid disease

A

Anxiety

399
Q

is recommend for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours

A

A combination of thrombolysis AND thrombectomy

400
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis + bacterial vaginosis are associated with a pH

A

> 4.5

401
Q

The sudden fall in haemoglobin without an appropriate reticulocytosis is typical of an

A

aplastic crisis, usually secondary to parvovirus infection

402
Q

Organophosphate insecticide

A

atropine

403
Q

helps to distinguish pseudogout from gout

A

Chondrocalcinosis

404
Q

In life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection treatment is with

A

ORAL vancomycin and IV metronidazole

405
Q

In women at risk of neural tube defects, folic acid should be started

A

before conception

406
Q

Investigating suspected PE: if the CTPA is negative then consider a

A

proximal leg vein ultrasound scan if DVT is suspected

407
Q

symptoms suggests idiopathic Parkinson’s

A

Asymmetrical

408
Q

Dominant hemisphere middle cerebral artery strokes cause

A

aphasia

409
Q

is an option for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, but it should not be used for more than 5 days due to the risk of extrapyramidal effects

A

Metoclopramide

410
Q

is a good first line anti-emetic for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting

A

Cyclizine

411
Q

is used for long-term prophylaxis of cluster headaches

A

Verapamil

412
Q

increased risk of breast and cervical cancer

protective against ovarian and endometrial cancer

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill

413
Q

toxicity - avoid beta-blockers

A

Cocaine

414
Q

levels can indicate an upper GI bleed versus lower GI bleed

A

High urea

415
Q

cancer may present with cholestatic LFTs

A

Pancreatic

416
Q

Tracheal deviation, resonant to percussion and absent breath sounds in the context of respiratory distress and shock - think a

A

tension pneumothorax

417
Q

Hormonal contraception can be started immediately after using levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for

A

emergency contraception

418
Q

fever, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain

A

Charcot’s cholangitis triad:

419
Q

Gastrointestinal side-effects such as diarrhoea and bloating are a common side effect with

A

metformin

420
Q

Otoacoustic emission test is used to screen newborns for

A

hearing problems

421
Q

is a risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Breech presentation

422
Q

Fever on alternating days, think

A

malaria

423
Q

although surgery is definitive management, patients must be medically managed before surgery using alpha blocker then beta blocker

A

Phaeochromocytoma

424
Q

in breastfeeding must be avoided

A

Lithium

425
Q

can present with sweating, tremor, confusion and hyperreflexia

A

Serotonin syndrome

426
Q

is the screening test for adult polycystic kidney disease

A

Ultrasound

427
Q

Activated protein C resistance (Factor V Leiden) is the most common inherited

A

thrombophilia

428
Q

HNPCC/Lynch syndrome is a strong risk factor for

A

endometrial cancer

429
Q

A patient develops acute heart failure 5 days after a myocardial infarction. A new pan-systolic murmur is noted on examination -

A

ventricular septal defect

430
Q

HOCM may present with

A

exertional dyspnoea

431
Q

Pernicious anaemia predisposes to

A

gastric carcinoma

432
Q

Diabetes treated with SGLT-2 inhibitors are at particular risk of

A

necrotising fasciitis

433
Q

The most common causes of arrest in children are

A

respiratory

434
Q

malignant tumour that occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure

A

Osteosarcoma

435
Q

The short synacthen test is the best test to diagnose

A

Addison’s disease

436
Q

classically presents with abdominal pain, arthritis, haematuria and a purpuric rash over the buttocks and extensor surfaces of arms and legs

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

437
Q

is characterised by a sandpaper rash

A

Scarlet fever

438
Q

presents with flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly and deranged LFTs

A

Hepatitis A

439
Q

is a common complication in subarachnoid haemorrhages

A

Hyponatraemia

440
Q

it can develop up to 4 weeks after precipitating infection and can run a relapsing-remitting course over several months

A

Reactive arthritis

441
Q

are associated with a significant increase in mortality in dementia patients

A

Antipsychotics

442
Q

may cause precipitation of digoxin toxicity

A

Thiazides

443
Q

are the investigations of choice in primary sclerosing cholangitis

A

ERCP/MRCP

444
Q

is a cause of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

SLE

445
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic -

A

add a calcium channel blocker

446
Q

expectant management is not suitable if evidence of infection or increased risk of haemorrhage

A

Miscarriage

447
Q

Agranulocytosis/neutropenia is a life-threatening side effect of

A

clozapine - monitor FBC

448
Q

Visual loss, eye pain and red desaturation are all classical symptoms of

A

Optic neuritis

449
Q

is the most common cause of stridor in infants.

A

Laryngomalacia

450
Q

A prostaglandin analogue should be used first-line in patients with a history of asthma.

A

glaucoma

451
Q

increases the risk of lactic acidosis - suspend during intercurrent illness eg. diarrhoea and vomiting

A

Metformin

452
Q

infection can cause rose spots on the abdomen

A

Salmonella typhi

453
Q

can present as chewing, jaw pouting or excessive blinking due to late onset abnormal involuntary choreoathetoid movements in patients on conventional antipsychotics

A

Tardive kinesia

454
Q

Urinary incontinence - first-line treatment:

A

urge incontinence: bladder retraining

stress incontinence: pelvic floor muscle training

455
Q

are first-line in benign prostatic hyperplasia if the patient has troublesome symptoms

A

Alpha-1 antagonists

456
Q

Consider fibromuscular dysplasia in young female patients who develop AKI after the initiation of an

A

ACE inhibitor

457
Q

1st line of treatment for blepharitis is

A

hot compresses

458
Q

Ferritin and transferrin saturation are used to monitor treatment in

A

haemochromatosis

459
Q

High-resolution CT scanning is the diagnostic investigation of choice for

A

pancreatic cancer

460
Q

can be used within an hour of an aspirin overdose

A

Activated charcoal

461
Q

The first-line investigation of a testicular mass is an

A

ultrasound

462
Q

Non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation for

A

suspected stroke

463
Q

Sudden death, unusual collapse in young person - ?

A

HOCM

464
Q

Coal workers’ pneumoconiosis typically causes

A

upper zone fibrosis

465
Q

Prophylactic IV antibiotics are given prior to

A

appendicectomy

466
Q

Complete heart block following a MI? -

A

right coronary artery lesion

467
Q

is the antibiotic of choice for cellulitis in pregnancy if the patient is penicillin allergic

A

Erythromycin

468
Q

demonstrated by jaundice, mild pyrexia, hepatitic LFTs, raised WBC, coagulopathy and steatosis on imaging.

A

acute fatty liver of pregnancy

469
Q

is a common complication in subarachnoid haemorrhages

A

Hyponatraemia

470
Q

Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia is an early x-ray feature of

A

rheumatoid arthritis

471
Q

Patients with a suspected pulmonary embolism should be initially managed with a

A

direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

472
Q

Patients with tachycardia and signs of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia or heart failure should receive

A

up to 3 synchronised DC shocks

473
Q

Hypertension in diabetics - ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are first-line regardless of

A

age

474
Q

The classical history of vestibular schwannoma includes a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and

A

an absent corneal reflex

475
Q

Hypothermia, hyporeflexia, bradycardia and seizures, think

A

myxoedemic coma

476
Q

An elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice for

A

biliary colic

477
Q

presents with the 6 P’s: pale, pulseless, pain, paralysis, paraesthesia, perishingly cold

A

Acute limb-threatening ischaemia

478
Q

DPP-4 inhibitors increase levels of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP

A

Sitagliptin

479
Q

in elevated JVP, persistent hypotension and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation in a patient with chest wall trauma

A

Consider cardiac tamponade

480
Q

side effects of antipsychotics include dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus

A

Metabolic

481
Q

release serotonin, so will cause a raised urinary 5-HIAA

A

Carcinoid tumours

482
Q

Disproportionate microcytic anaemia - think

A

beta-thalassaemia trait

483
Q

is a good first line anti-emetic for intracranial causes of nausea and vomiting

A

Cyclizine

484
Q
  • radioactive iodine is the treatment of choice
A

Toxic multinodular goitre

485
Q

increases the risk of developing enteropathy-associated T cell lymphoma

A

Coeliac disease

486
Q

is associated with erythema multiforme

A

Mycoplasma

487
Q

in diabetics - ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are first-line regardless of age

A

Hypertension

488
Q

Scrotal swelling you can’t get above:

A

inguinal hernia

489
Q

is the only test recommended for H. pylori post-eradication therapy

A

Urea breath test

490
Q

The presence of pain distinguishes scleritis from

A

episcleritis

491
Q

Liver transplantation criteria in paracetamol overdose

A

pH < 7.3 more than 24 hours after ingestion

492
Q

is the investigation of choice for suspected aortic dissection (depending on stability of patient)

A

CT angiography

493
Q

are the commonest extra-renal manifestation of ADPKD

A

Liver cysts

494
Q

must be taken within 72 hours of UPSI

A

Levonorgestrel

495
Q

Patients with intracranial bleeds, who become unresponsive should receive an urgent CT scan to check for

A

hydrocephalus

496
Q

has a longer half-life than amylase when investigating suspected acute pancreatitis and may be useful for late presentations > 24 hours

A

Serum lipase

497
Q

absolutely contraindicated in women over 35 smoking 15 cigarettes or more a day

A

combined hormonal contraception

498
Q

More than 90% of colorectal cancers are

A

adenocarcinomas

499
Q
  • carbamazepine is first-line
A

Trigeminal neuralgia

500
Q
Somatisation = Symptoms
hypoChondria = Cancer
A

Unexplained symptoms

501
Q

accelerations present, variability >5bpm, no decelerations, HR 110-160

A

Normal CTG

502
Q

In patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) testing is recommended to aid diagnosis of

A

liver fibrosis

503
Q

In a young woman taking COCP, cervical ectropions are a common finding in the context of

A

post-coital bleeding

504
Q

An isolated rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress is typical of

A

Gilbert’s syndrome

505
Q

is a risk factor for embolic acute limb ischaemia

A

Atrial fibrillation

506
Q

are associated with drug-induced lupus

A

Antihistone antibodies

507
Q

ECT is indicated in life-threatening major depressive disorder, where

A

catatonia in present

508
Q

You cannot interpret TTG level in coeliac disease without looking at the

A

IgA level

509
Q

are first-line in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Alpha-1 antagonists

510
Q

Myelodysplasia may progress to

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

511
Q

tumours are the most common cause of brain metastases

A

Lung primary

512
Q

In Cushing’s disease, cortisol is not suppressed by low-dose dexamethasone but is suppressed by

A

high-dose dexamethasone

513
Q

needs to be excluded in all adults presenting with painless jaundice.

A

Pancreatic cancer

514
Q

Lambert-Eaton syndrome or myasthenia gravis?

A

Weakness in Lambert Eaton improves after exercise, unlike myasthenia gravis; which worsens after exercise

515
Q

should be used to treat acute gout if NSAIDs are contraindicated for example a peptic ulcer.

A

Colchicine

516
Q

Most common clinical sign in a PE

A

tachypnoea (96%)

517
Q

A total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, in addition, is advisable for all postmenopausal women with

A

atypical endometrial hyperplasia, due to the risk of malignant progression

518
Q

is far the most likely cause of primary post-partum haemorrhage.

A

An atonic uterus

519
Q

For an SVT, the Resus Council recommend escalating adenosine doses of

A

6mg → 12mg → 18 mg

520
Q

are ANA positive, therefore it is a useful rule out test

A

Over 99% of patients with SLE

521
Q

Target saturations in COPD are

A

94-98% if CO2 is normal on ABG

522
Q

An asymmetrical presentation suggests psoriatic arthritis rather than

A

rheumatoid

523
Q

Aspirin is a common cause of

A

urticaria

524
Q

Patients with focal seizures may experience

A

post-ictal weakness (Todd’s paresis)

525
Q

intrauterine system (Mirena) is first-line

A

Menorrhagia

526
Q

Moderate-severe aortic stenosis is a contraindication to

A

ACE-i

527
Q

CSF lymphocytosis combined with a glucose greater than half the serum level points towards a

A

viral meningitis

528
Q

Migraine

acute:

A

triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol

prophylaxis: topiramate or propranolol

529
Q

Normal laboratory findings in pregnancy:

A

Reduced urea, reduced creatinine, increased urinary protein loss