Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Passmed > Passmed medicine > Flashcards

Passmed medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Which conditions are each diuretics used for?

A

Ascites - Aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone).
Heart Failure - Furosemide.
HyperTension - Thiazides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What mnemonic is used to remember first line drugs for diabetic neuropathy?

A

‘All Diabetics Get Peripheral (neuropathy)’ - ADGP:

-Amitriptyline
-Duloxetine
-Gabapentin
-Pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which non-invasive ventilation is used for type 1 and type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Type 1 - CPAP
Type 2 - BiPAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are hba1c diabetic targets for each management?

A

<48 - diet/lifestyle controlled.
<53 - hypoglycaemic medication (not metformin).

On metformin:
>58 - add another medication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What can differentiate an upper and lower GI bleed?

A

High urea levels can indicate an upper GI bleed vs lower GI bleed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which antibiotics are used for each STI?

A

Syphilis - Benzathine benzylpenicillin.
Chlamydia - Doxycycline.
Gonorrhoea - Ceftriaxone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)?

A

Wet, wacky, wobbly:

-Incontinence, cognitive symptoms, abnormal gait.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drug removes potassium from the body rather than shifting it into cells?

A

Calcium resonium (calcium polystyrene sulphonate).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a way to remember the difference between Lambert Eaton syndrome and Myasthenia Gravis?

A

LA*mbert Eaton - Mainly affects LEgs and has Autonomic symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How long to keep eating gluten for before coeliac tests?

A

6 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long to stop PPI for before testing for H. Pylori?

A

2 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember motor innervation to the hand?

A

Rock, paper, scissors -> median, radial, ulnar (alphabetical).

Rock - clenching fist (median - finger flexion).
Paper - stretching hand (radial - finger extension).
Scissors - make scissors (ulnar - dinger abduction and adduction).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of dementia has visual hallucinations associated?

A

Lewy body dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the causes of hypokalaemia?

A

DIRE:

Drugs (loop and thiazide diuretics).
Intestinal loss/inadequate intake.
Renal tubular acidosis.
Endocrine (Conn’s, Cushing’s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the causes of of hyperkalaemia?

A

DREAD:

Drugs (K+ sparing diuretics, ACEi).
Renal failure.
Endocrine (Addison’s).
Artifact (clotted sample).
DKA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the reversible causes of cardiac arrest?

A

4 H’s:

Hypoxia, hypovolaemia, hypothermia, hyper/hypo (-kalaemia, -glycaemia).

4 T’s:

Thrombosis (cardiac/pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade (cardiac), toxins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which cancer are patients on long term immunosuppressants for organ transplantation more at risk for?

A

Skin cancer:
SCC, BCC, melanoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember the origin of breast metastases?

A

2L’s and 2B’s:

Lungs, liver, bones and brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What causes U waves on an ECG?

A

Hypokalaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which lung cancers secrete which hormones?

A

Small cell: ACTH, ADH.
Squamous cell: PTH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember murmurs and when they’re heard louder?

A

RILE:

Right sided - Inspiration.
Left sided - Expiration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which diuretics can cause ototoxicity?

A

Loop diuretics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a thyroid storm?

A

Complication of thyrotoxicosis - fever, hypertension, tachycardia, N+V, agitation/confusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which cancer does pernicious anaemia predispose patients to?

A

Gastric cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the mnemonics to remember the causes of the types of anaemia?

A

Microcytic - TAILS.
Normocytic - 3As and 2Hs.
Macrocytic - FAT RBC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why do patients with coeliac disease require regular immunisations?

A

Functional hyposplenism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mnemonic to remember anti-emetic mechanisms of action?

A

Anti emetics are 1, 2, 3:

1: Cyclizine H1 receptor.
2: Metoclopramide D2 receptor.
3: Ondansetron 5HT-3 receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Mnemonic to differentiate between IgA nephropathy and post-strep glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA (3 letters) = 3 days.
Post-streptococcal (17 letters) = 2-3 weeks.

(Presenting after initial symptoms).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the diagnosis when cardiac tamponade signs are present post MI?

A

Left ventricular free wall rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the diagnosis when there is pulmonary oedema post MI?

A

Papillary muscle rupture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is an indication that kidney disease is chronic and not acute?

A

Hypoglycaemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the community management of hypoglycaemia?

A

Oral glucose liquid/gel/tablet.
Glucogel or dextrogel.
Glucagon IM/SC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the hospital management of hypoglycaemia?

A

Alert: Quick acting carb (gel/liquid/tablet).
Unconsious or unable to swallow: IM/SC glucagon.
-If IV access - IV glucose 20%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does a retinal/ophthalmic artery occlusion present?

A

Amaurosis fugax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How does a basilar artery stroke present?

A

Locked in syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What reduced the incidence of contrast-induced AKI?

A

IV hydration with 0.9% NaCl before and after infusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are four normal ECG variants in athletes?

A

Sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, Mobitz type 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the most modifiable risk factor in thyroid eye disease?

A

Smoking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the lung fibrosis patterns for asbestosis and coal/silicosis?

A

Asbestosis - lower lobes.
Coal/silicosis - upper lobes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember causes of delirium?

A

PINCHME:

Pain, infection, nutrition, constipation, hydration, medication, environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

Low TSH, T4 and T3 due to systemic illness - reversible and no treatment is needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember drugs that cause a long QT interval?

A

METHCATS:

Methadone.
Erythromycin.
Terfenadien.
Haloperidol.
Citalopram/chloroquine.
Amiodarone.
Tricyclics.
Sotalol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe the spirometry findings of pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Restrictive:

FEV:FVC >70%, decreased FVC, reduced TLCO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the characteristic organism responsible for food poisoning after reheating rice?

A

Bacillus Cereus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a mnemonic to remember drugs to stop during AKI?

A

CANADA:

Contrast media
ACE inhibitors
NSAIDS - apart from cardioprotective aspirin.
Aminoglycosides
Diuretics
ARBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the management of a myasthenic crisis?

A

Immunoglobulins and plasmapheresis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is given to to patients with a CD4 count less than 200/mm3 and why?

A

Co-trimoxazole for prophylaxis against PCP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a key difference of Lambert Eaton syndrome to Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Lambert Eaton normally affects the legs worse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the difference between lateral medullary syndrome and lateral pontine syndrome?

A

LMS - PICA, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss.
LPS - AICA, ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which type of dementia presents with fluctuating cognition compared to other types of dementia?

A

Lewy body dementia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Describe the differences between CN III, IV and VI nerve palsy.

A

CNIII - Ptosis, ‘down and out’ eye, dilated, fixed pupil.

CNIV - Defective downward gaze, vertical diplopia.

CNVI - Defective abduction, horizontal diplopia.

52
Q

What are the blood transfusion thresholds of patients with and without ACS?
What temperature are RBCs stored at and what is the non-urgent transfusion time?

A

Without ACS - 70 g/L.
With ACS - 80 g/L.

4 degrees celcius.
90-120 minutes.

53
Q

What is an essential tremor associated with?

A

Tremor present with sustained muscle tone in hands.
Can also affect vocal chords.

54
Q

What is klebsiella pneumonia associated with?

A

Alcoholics.

55
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia?

A

Strep pneumoniae.

56
Q

Describe what mycoplasma pnuemoniae is associated with.
How is it diagnosed?

A

Atypical - erythema multiforme, haemolytic anaemia, ITP.

-Serology.

57
Q

Describe what legionella pnuemophilia is associated with.
How is it diagnosed?

A

Atypical - lymphopenia, hyponatraemia, recent holiday (aircon).

-Urinary antigen.

58
Q

Who is staph aureus pneumonia most common in?

A

In people after recent influenza infection.

59
Q

What are the three main bacteria responsible for infective endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans
Staph aureus - IVDU and prosthetic valves
Staph epidermidis - prosthetic valves

60
Q

When IM adrenaline is administered, where is it given?

A

Anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh.

61
Q

What is the acute management of hypercalcaemia and hypocalcemia?

A

Hyper - IV fluids (saline).

Hypo - IV calcium gluconate.

62
Q

Which HPV strains cause 90% of genital warts?

A

HPV 6 and 11.

63
Q

What should all TIA patients be offered if they’re not a candidate for endarterectomy?

A

Urgent carotid doppler ultrasound.

64
Q

Mnemonic for furosemide side effects?

A

OH DANG:

Ototoxicity
Hypokalaemia
Dehydration
Allergy
Nephritis
Gout

65
Q

Why is there no forehead sparing in Bell’s palsy?

A

LMN condition - affects entire side of the face

66
Q

Mnemonic for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

WE CAN:

(Wernicke’s encephalopathy)

Confusion
Ataxia
Nystagmus

67
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a ill patient with decreased pO2 and a non-cardiorespiratory problem?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

68
Q

What is the secondary prevention for MI patients with AF?

A

Aspirin 300mg - 2 weeks
Then DOAC/warfarin

69
Q

What is acute tubular necrosis?

A

Most common cause of renal AKI:

Occurs when there is damage to tubular cells from prolonged ischaemia or presence of toxins (NSAIDs).
Kidneys no longer to can concentrate urine or retain sodium leading to high urinary sodium and low urine osmolality.

70
Q

How can ATN be shown on urinalysis?

A

Urine sodium >40 mmol/L

71
Q

How do sulfonylurea drugs work?

A

Increase pancreatic insulin secretion - only effective if function pancreatic beta cells are.
-Bind to ATP dependent channel on beta cell membranes.

72
Q

What are two side effects of sulfonylurea drugs?

A

Hypoglycaemia
Weight gain

73
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of HOCM.

A

mc - mutations in the gene encoding beta-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C
-results in predominantly diastolic dysfunction (decreased compliance and cardiac output due to LVH)
-characterised by myofibrillar hypertrophy with chaotic and disorganised fashion myocyte and fibrosis on biopsy

74
Q

Which drugs are to be avoided in Lewy body dementia?

A

Avoid HARM drugs:

Haloperidol
Antipsychotics
pRochloperazine
Metoclopramide

75
Q

What are the most common causes of bone metastases?

A

Five B’s in order of frequency:

Breast
Bronchus
Brostate
Bidney
Byroid

76
Q

What is a campylobacter infection characterised by?

A

Prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

77
Q

Can ACE inhibitors be prescribed in renovascular disease?

A

No

78
Q

Describe sodium levels in pre-renal AKI and ATN (renal AKI).

A

Pre-renal - kidneys work hard to keep sodium in the body
ATN - tubular kidney cells dead, can’t keep sodium in so you also get hypokalaemia and hypotension

79
Q

Why does Addison’s disease cause hyperpigmentation?

A

ACTH derived from POMC.
When POMC is cleaved to form ACTH, other melanocyte-simulating hormones (MSH) are produced.
MSH affect melanocytes in skin to produce melanin.

80
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

Sudden transient episode of muscle weakness typically triggered by strong emotions such as laughter, anger or surprise.
Often associated with narcolepsy.

81
Q

What are Stokes-Adams attacks?

A

Refers to syncopal episodes that occur from cardiac arrhythmia.
mc bradycardia in the form of:
-2nd degree type II AV block
-complete heart block
-sick sinus syndrome

82
Q

What initial tests are needed before commencing amiodarone?

A

TFT, LFT, U+Es, CXR

CXR - pulmonary fibrosis
U+Es - to detect hypokalaemia
TFTs - thyrotoxic

83
Q

What is the most common cause of diarrhoea in patients with HIV?

A

Cryptosporidium and other protozoa

84
Q

How often should type 1 diabetics check their blood glucose levels?

A

Blood glucose at least 4 times a day:
-including before each meal and before bed

85
Q

What is a big clue to typhoid fever?

A

Constipation

86
Q

What is an ECG characteristic of a posterior MI?

A

Causes ST depression on 12-lead ECG
-Tall R waves in anterior leads (V1-V2)

87
Q

Which medications should a patient receive after PCI for a STEMI?

A

CRABS (clopidogrel, rampiril, aspirin, beta-blocker, statin).

Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin and clopidogrel/ticagrelor), beta blocker, ACEi, statin.

88
Q

Where do you get hepatitis E from?

A

Faceo-oral route - the sea

89
Q

In a patient with Crohn’s after an ileo-caecal resection with a normal CRP, what is given and why?

A

Cholestyramine due to bile acid malabsoprtion.

90
Q

Which heart rhythm does a tension pneumothorax cause?

A

PEA - pulseless electrical activity

91
Q

What are the eGFR variables?

A

CAGE:

Creatinine, age, gender, ethnicity

92
Q

Describe spirometry in obstructive lung disease.
Give examples of obstructive lung disease.

A

FEV1 - significantly reduced
FVC - reduced or normal
FEV1/FVC - reduced

Asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis

93
Q

Describe spirometry in restrictive lung disease.
Give examples of restrictive lung disease.

A

FEV1 - reduced
FVC - significantly reduced
FEV1/FVC - normal or increased

Pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, ARDS, obesity, neuromuscular disorders

94
Q

Explain the types of diabetes insipidus and their medications.

A

DI - ADH not effective, no anti-diuresis so polyuria (ADH retains water).

-Cranial DI - ADH not produced. DESMOPRESSIN

-Nephrogenic DI - Kidneys don’t respond to ADH - THIAZIDE DIURETIC

95
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic subdural haematomas on CT scan?

A

Acute - hyperdense
Chronic - hypodense

96
Q

What reverses rivaroxaban and apixaban?

A

Andexanet alfa

97
Q

What is the treatment for medication overuse headache?

A

Simple analgesia and triptans - stop abruptly
Opioid analgesia - withdraw gradually

98
Q

Classic history of acoustic neuroma?

A

Vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus and absent corneal reflex

99
Q

Which medication class is beneficial in proteinuria CKD?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor - regardless of diabetic status

100
Q

ACEi in AKI and CKD?

A

Stop in AKI
Beneficial in ACEi

101
Q

What causes dysphagia when on steroid therapy?

A

Oesophageal candidiasis

102
Q

Most common cause of infective COPD exacerbation?

A

H. influenzae

103
Q

Which blood cancer does coeliac disease put you at risk of?

A

T cell lymphoma

104
Q

What are the first line treatment for spasticity for MS?

A

Baclofen and gabapentin

105
Q

Treatment of gonorrhoea vs chlamydia?

A

Gonorrhoea - IM ceftriaxone
Chlamydia - Doxycycline

106
Q

What is the treatment of Addison’s disease?

A

Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

107
Q

Describe Hep B serology.

A

HBsAg - surface antigen (acute or chronic infection)
IgG - chronic
IgM - acute

108
Q

Most common cause of SVC obstruction?

A

Small cell lung cancer

109
Q

Describe klebsiella in the lungs.

A

Causes cavitating pneumonia in upper lobes
Mainly in diabetics and alcoholics

110
Q

Two most common causes of bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy?

A

Sarcoidosis and TB

111
Q

Electrolyte abnormality seen in prolonged diarrhoea?

A

Metabolic acidosis with hypokalaemia

112
Q

How can diabetic patients sometimes present with MI?

A

Without chest pain

113
Q

What anion gap does diarrhoea cause?

A

Normal anion gap acidosis

114
Q

What is a high-stepping gait a sign of?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

115
Q

Three EBV related malignancies?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

116
Q

Treatment for Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Pabrinex - IV B/C vitamins

117
Q

Diabetic sick day rules for patients of insulin?

A

Not stop insulin due to DKA risk

Continue normal insulin regime but check blood sugars frequently

118
Q

ECG features of ECG?

A

Small/absent or inverted T waves
Prolonged PR
ST depression
Long QT
U waves

119
Q

First thing to do when a cardiac arrest is witnessed on a monitor?

A

Maximum of three successive shocks

120
Q

When is cardiac endarterectomy indicated?

A

In a patient who has had a TIA with carotid artery stenosis exceeding 70% on side contralateral to symptoms

121
Q

Mnemonic for quadrantanopia?

A

PITS:

Parietal - Inferior quadrantanopia
Temporal - Superior quadrantanopia

122
Q

What is the 1-2-12 rule for STEMI?

A

1 - Primary PCI is #1 choice for STEMI
2 - Transport to PCI centre if within 2h (if not - thrombolysis)
12 - Symptoms start within 12h - PCI

123
Q

Side effects of TB antibiotics?

A

Isoniazide - peripheral neuropathy
Ethambutol - Uveitis
Rifampicin - Orange/red tears/urine

124
Q

Which electrolyte abnormality does chronic alcoholism cause?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

125
Q
A

Passmed (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions