passmed 28/12 Flashcards

1
Q

a low lying placenta is found at the 20 week anatomy scan. what happens next?

A

Rescan at 32 weeks, which allows for potential correction due to natural uterine growth upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

classical triad present in disseminated gonococcal infection

A

tenosynovitis
migratory polyarthritis
dermatitis

later complications can manifest as Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome: perihepatitis, septic arthritis, endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nephrotic syndrome triad

A

hypoalbuminaemia
oedema
proteinuria

children most common cause = minimal change disease, no renal complications seen on blood results. Responds well to steroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pre eclampsia

A

new onset hypertension >140 after 20 weeks + 1 or more of proteinuria ++/+++ or evidence of end organ involvement e.g. neurological, renal, etc.

If new reading >160, ADMIT for obstetric review.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

blood pressure targets for all patients under 80 years old

A

clinic <140/90

home <135/85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

why is the APTT raised in antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

APS is a prothrombotic condition. The platelets are all used up in clotting, so none are left and paradoxically raising the APTT,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

vwb disease causes more mucosal type bleeding, but haemophilia more haemarthroses.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

stereotypical PCOS biochemical results

A

FSH:LH ratio raised

testosterone normal or mildly elevated

SHBG normal to low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

PCOS can be diagnosed if 2/3 of the criteria are met:

A

Clinical features of hyperadrogenism e.g. acne, hirsutism

PCOS on TVUS

Biochemical features of hyperandrogenism e.g. raised FSH:LH, normal to slightly elevated testosterone, low SHBG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Management of latent TB

A

rifampicin and isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

latent TB = positive IGRA test, no CXR or symptoms

rifamycins are contraindicated in patients with HIV or have undergone organ transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why is pyridoxine (vitamin B6) given in TB treatment?

A

To prevent the peripheral neuropathy that can be brought on by isoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

pulmonary stenosis results in what type of heart failure?

A

right sided heart failure, with raised JVP, hepatomegaly and ankle oedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

maternal GD is a risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia. How do you manage neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

If symptomatic OR very low blood glucose, admit to NICU and give IV 10% dextrose.

Symptoms would include jitteriness and irregular respirations.
IV dextrose is to prevent neurological complications such as seizures, coma or apnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

features of osteomalacia

A

bone pain, tenderness over long bones, proximal myopathy causing waddling gait

due to vitamin D deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly