PASSMED 04/04 - 07/04 Flashcards

1
Q

UKMEC 3 conditions:

A

> 35 years old and smoking <15 cigarettes per day
BMI >35
FHx thromboembolic disease
Controlled hypertension
Wheelchair use
Carrier of BRCA1/2
Current gallbladder disease

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2
Q

UKMEC 4 conditions:

A

> 35 years old and smoking >15 cigarettes a day
Thromboembolic disease
Migraine with aura
Current breast cancer
Post partum and breastfeeding <6 weeks
Uncontrolled hypertension
Positive antiphospholipid antibodies e.g. SLE
History of stroke / VTE

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3
Q

Triad of renal cell cancer:

A

Loin pain
Haematuria
Abdominal mass

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4
Q

An unresolving varicocele can be due to renal tract cancer, due to compression. What are the investigation steps?

A

Cystoscopy if painless haematuria because could be bladder cancer.

Renal tract cancer = renal tract ultrasound.

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5
Q

Non-shockable rhythms:

A

PEA
Asystole

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6
Q

Shockable rhythms:

A

VF
Pulseless VT

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7
Q

VF / Pulseless VT witnessed vs non-witnessed management:

A

Witnessed: 3 successive shocks

Non-witnessed: 1 shock then CPR

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8
Q

Drug delivery during cardiac arrest:

A

IV first line

IO if IV not available

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9
Q

Non-shockable rhythms initial management:

A

Adrenaline asap for non-shockable rhythms

(Adrenaline is given in shockable rhythms after the 3rd shock, alongisde amiodarone 300mg)

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10
Q

Red flags of secondary dysmenorrhoea:

A

Ascites +/or pelvic or abdominal mass
Abnormal cervix
Persistent IMB or PCB (without associated PID symptoms)

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11
Q

SSRI of choice for children and adolescents:

A

Fluoxetine

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12
Q

Lithium toxicity can be precipitated by dehydration, renal failure, and certain drugs. List some of the drugs, and give 2 management options.

A

Diuretics esp thiazides, ACEi/ARB, NSAIDs and metronidazole.

IV fluids with isotonic saline. Monitor sodium closely to watch for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.

Haemodialysis for severe cases e.g. seizures, profound renal failure.

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13
Q

Cut off protein level for exudates and transudates, and light’s criteria:

A

> 30 = exudate
<30 = transudate

Pleural fluid protein / serum protein >0.5

Pleural fluid LDH / serum LDH >0.6

Pleural fluid LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH

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14
Q

What does a) low glucose b) raised amylase c) low complement and d) heavy blood staining indicate in pleural fluid?

A

a) RA, TB
b) Pancreatitis, oesophageal perforation
c) SLE
d) Mesothelioma, PE, TB

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15
Q

A pleural infection is suspected - when should a chest tube be placed to drain it?

A

Fluid is cloudy / turbid

Fluid is clear but pH is <7.2

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16
Q

Most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults?

A

Membranous GN

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17
Q

Management of membranous GN;

A

ACEi or ARB (reduce proteinuria)

Only give steroids + cyclophosphamide if severe

?anticoagulation

18
Q

Triad of shaken baby syndrome:

A

Subdural haemorrhage
Retinal haemorrhage
Encephalopathy

19
Q

Diagnosis of G6PD deficiency:

A

At and 3 months after presentaiton

G6PD ENZYME ASSAY

20
Q

Treatment for suspected epididymo-orchitis:

A

IM Ceftriaxone once only + Oral doxycycline for 10-14 days

21
Q

First line investigation for cholangitis, and management:

A

US to look for bile duct dilatation and stones

IV abx and ERCP after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction

22
Q

Which steroid is used for fetal lung maturation?

A

Dexamethasone

23
Q

Weakened femoral pulses, upper limb hypertension, left sternal edge / back murmur, tachycardia:

A

Coarctation of the aorta

24
Q

Cyanosis, tet spells, harsh systolic ejection murmur, RVH, reduced o2 sats:

25
Q

pda and coarctation are which type of shunt?

A

Left to right shunt

26
Q

Features of PDA:

A

continuous machinery murmur
Bounding pulses, wide pulse pressure, respiratory distress. O2 sats typically normal unless pulmonary hypertension develops.

27
Q

6th nerve palsy (abducens):

A

Lateral rectus affected; eye abduction limited.

CNVI has a long intracranial course therefore making it more likely to be damaged by raised ICP.

28
Q

Familial hypercholesterolaemia is an AD inherited disorder. Which protein is mutated in this condition?

A

LDL receptor

29
Q

What does a positive head impulse test indicate?

A

Pathology with the vestibulocochlear nerve on the IPSILATERAL side of the positive test.

30
Q

Discuss the meaning of uni and bidirectional nystagmus:

A

Unilateral is reassuring, likely to be peripheral in origin.

When the nystagmus changes direction or is vertical, it is more likely to be central in origin.

Bidirectional is highly specific for stroke - saccadic movement beats in the direction that the patient is looking.

31
Q

Hoffman’s sign positive indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. Give 2 diseases that a positive Hoffman’s sign may be associated with:

A

Degenerative cervical myelopathy

Multiple sclerosis

32
Q

Management pathway for endometriosis:

A

NSAIDs / paracetamol

COCP or progestogen

GnRH analogue (inducing pseudomenopause)

Laparoscopic excision or ablation to improve chances of conception

33
Q

How often should a patient with a spontaneous pneumothorax be followed up?

A

2-4 days until resolution

34
Q

4 ways to assess frailty in primary care:

A

PRISMA-7 questionnaire

Informal gait speed assessment

Self reported health status

Formal assessment of gait speed - >5 second to walk 4m = frail

35
Q

2 extra tools to assess frailty that can be used in the outpatient settingL

A

Timed Up and Go test

Physical Activity Scale for the Elderly

36
Q

What tool can be used to optimise elderly patient’s medications?

A

STOPP / START

37
Q

% values for 1SD, 2SD and 3SD of the mean:

A

68.3%

95.4%

99.7%

38
Q

Most common cause of pleural exudate vs transudate respectively:

A

Pneumonia exudate

Heart failure transudate

39
Q

Causes of transudative pleural effusion:

A

Heart failure

Hypoalbuminaemia e.g. nephrotic syndrome, liver disease, malabsorption

Hypothyroididm

Meig’s syndrome

40
Q

Causes of exudative pleural effusion:

A

Pneumonia
TB
CTD e.g. RA, SLE
Lung cancer, mesothelioma, mets
Pancreatitis
PE
Dressler’s syndrome