Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PSA > Passmed > Flashcards

Passmed Flashcards

1
Q

what should people with STEMI undergoing thrombolysis be given

A

Alteplase and antithrombin (fondaparinux)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what drugs can cause ear ringing

A

Aspirin/NSAIDs
Aminoglycosides
Loop diuretics
Quinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

first line for acute bronchitis

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which type of carcinoma is associated with polycythemia

A

renal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

widening of the mediastinum

A

vascular problems: thoracic aortic aneurysm
lymphoma
retrosternal goitre
teratoma
tumours of the thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Ulnar nerve motor innvervation

A

medial two lumbricals
aDductor pollicis
interossei
hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi
flexor carpi ulnaris

responsible for finger abduction, thumb adduction, and muscle bulk of hypothenar eminence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ulnar nerve sensory innervation

A

medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Trachea pushed away from white-out CXR

A

Pleural effusion
Diaphragmatic hernia
Large thoracic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Trachea pulled toward the white-out

A

Pneumonectomy
Complete lung collapse e.g. endobronchial intubation
Pulmonary hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most common organism for osteomyelitis

A

stpah aureus most common except in those with sickle-cell disease, where salmonella species dominate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HAP treatment

A

within 5 days: co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime
more than 5 days: piperacillin with tazobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Immediate management of acute angle closure glaucoma

A
  • parasympathomimetic eyedrops (pilocarpine)
  • beta blocker eye drops (timolol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is required before fundoplication can occur

A
  • oesophageal ph
  • manometry studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HUS triad

A
  • acute kidney injury
  • microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
  • thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wernike’s encephalopathy

A

chronic alcohol –> thiamine deficiency

  • confusion
  • gait ataxia
  • nystagmus + opthalmoplegia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Kleinfelters vs Kallman

A

Kleinfelters
- small testes
- infertility
- gynaecomastia
- above average height

Kallmans
- anosmia
- NO gynaecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which organism stains with India Ink

A

cryptococcus neoformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

heart failure management

A

1st - ACEi and Beta blocker
2nd - Aldosterone antagonist or ARB or hydralazine and nitrate (especially in people of African or Carribean origin)
3rd - cardiac resynchronisation therapy OR digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

aphasia regions and artery supplie

A

Wernike’s - superior temporal gyrus supplied by inferior MCA

broce’s - inferior frontal gyrus supplied by superior MCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ataxia - where in the cerebellum

A

peripheral ‘ finger-nose ataxia’ - cerebellar hemisphere

gait ataxia - cerebellar vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where is th elesion cut-off for autonomic dysreflexia

A

T6 or above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

bells palsy

A
  • give oral prednisolone within 72 hours
  • if no sign of improvement in 3 weeks, then urgent referral to ENT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

brain absess management

A

surgery
a craniotomy is performed and the abscess cavity debrided
the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage.
IV antibiotics: IV 3rd-generation cephalosporin + metronidazole
intracranial pressure management: e.g. dexamethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what area of the brain does Huntington’s affect

A

caudate nucelus of the basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what area of the brain does Parkinsons suggest

A

substantia nigra of the basal gangia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

brown sequard syndrome

A
  • ipsilateral weakness below lesion
  • ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
  • contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

common peroneal nevre lesion

A

weakness of foot dorsiflexion
weakness of foot eversion
weakness of extensor hallucis longus
sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg
wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy causes

A

Bell’s palsy
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (due to herpes zoster)
acoustic neuroma
parotid tumours
HIV
multiple sclerosis*
diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

4th nerve palsy

A

vertical diplopia
deviate upwards and outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

damage at the wrist - median nerve

A

paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles and opponens pollicis (ape hand deformity)
sensory loss to palmar aspect of lateral (radial) 2 ½ fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

damage at the elbow - median nerve

A

unable to pronate forearm
weak wrist flexion
ulnar deviation of wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

LOAF muscles of the hand

A

Lateral 2 lumbricals
Opponens pollicis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Flexor pollicis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

narcolepsy symptoms

A

typical onset in teenage years
hypersomnolence
cataplexy (sudden loss of muscle tone often triggered by emotion)
sleep paralysis
vivid hallucinations on going to sleep or waking up

33
Q

investigation for genital herpes

A

NAAT

34
Q

spastic MS treatment

A

baclofen or gabapentin

35
Q

blood film of hyposplenism

A

target cells
howell-jolly bodies

36
Q

what dementia is associated with MND

A

frontotemporal dementia

37
Q

chronic schistosoma features

A

frequency
haematuria
bladder calcification

‘eggshell calcification’

38
Q

chronic schistomoa investigations

A

asymptomatic - schistosome antibodies preferred

symptomatic - urine ot stool microscopy looking for eggs

39
Q

SE - nicorandil

A

ulceration anywhere in the GI tract

40
Q

reynolds pentad

A
  • fever
  • RUQ pain
  • jaundice
  • hypotension and confusion
41
Q

stable angina - investigations

A

1st - CT coronary angiography

42
Q

pain relief to use in CKD

A

mild-moderate: oxycodone
severe: bupremorphien or fentanyl

43
Q

electrolyte anomaly most associated with RBC transfusion

A

hyperkalaemia

44
Q

ITP treatment

A

1st - oral prednisolone
if urgent prcedure required IVIG

45
Q

when is aortic valve replacement considered

A

if asymptomatic but valvular gradient > 40 mmHg and with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction then consider surgery
if symptomatic then valve replacement

46
Q

role of hypoglossal nerve

A
  • motor innervation of the tongue
  • lesion will cause the tongue to deviate towards the affected side
47
Q

what medication needs to be stopped before a CT scan

A

metformin

48
Q

serum osmolaitiy equation

A

2 x(Na) + Urea + glucose

49
Q

visual difference between BCC and SCC

A

BCC - pale, rolled edges, slow in growth, overlying telangiectasia

SCC - usually red, more rapid in growth

50
Q

which anti-TB drug needs visual monitoring

A

ethambutol

51
Q

PTH in primary hyperparathyroidism vs bony metasteses

A

pirmary - normal or raised

bony metasteses - suppressed

52
Q

indiaction for bariatric surgery

A

obesity in patients with BMI > 40 kg/m2, or BMI > 35
kg/m2 with comorbidities such as diabetes and hypertension

53
Q

lesion is macula sparing…

A

occipital cortex

54
Q

when is radiotherapy offered - brest cancer

A

all women with wide-local excision

mastectomy - only if tumor T3-T4 and those with 4 or more positive axillary nodes

55
Q

cellulitis near the nose

A

co-amoxiclav

56
Q

adverse effects of sulfalezine

A

oligospermia
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
pneumonitis / lung fibrosis
myelosuppression, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia
may colour tears → stained contact lenses

57
Q

DKA when to start potassium and glucose

A

glucose <14 - infusion of 10% dextrose at 125mls/hr

Potassium between 3.5 - 5.5

58
Q

DKA resolution definition

A

pH >7.3
blodo ketones <0.6 and
bicarb >15

59
Q

primary hyperaldosteronism - invesitgations

A

1st plasma aldosterone/renin ration

high -resolution CT
if CT normal, adrenal venous sampling can distinguish between adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia

60
Q

cut-offs for impaired glucose tolerance

A

fasting glucose greater than or equal to 6.1 - 7

OGTT >= 7.8 and <11.1

61
Q

bacterial keratitis causes

A

staphylococcus aureus

contact lenses - psudomonas aeruginosa

62
Q

AAA screenign results

A

<3 -dishcarge
3 - 4.4 - rescan every 12 months
4.5 - 5.4 - rescan every 3 months
5.5 and above - refer to vascular 2 week wait

63
Q

chromosome anomaly of Turner’s

A

45XO

64
Q

squamous cell carcinoma of the oropharynx - assocation

A

HPV

65
Q

hodgekins lymphoma - 1 st line

A

chemotherapy

66
Q

sodium correction complications

A

hyponatraemia - osmotic demyelination syndrome

hypernatraemia - cerebral oedema

67
Q

lateral epicondylitis

A

wrsit extension
elbow supination with extended forearm

68
Q

medial epicondylitis

A

wrist flexion
pronation

69
Q

what is given with isoniazid

A

pyridoxine

prevent peripheral neuropathy

70
Q

eletrolyte anomaly - prolonged diarrhoea

A

hypokalaemia

71
Q

what medicaiton should all people with CKD be given

A

statin

72
Q

propofol

A

anti- emetic properties
maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anaesthesia and daycase surgery

73
Q

sodium thiopentone

A

used for rapid sequence of induction

74
Q

ketamine

A

induction of anaesthesia
best for those heamodynamically unstable

75
Q

etomidate

A

no analgesic properties
post-op vomititng common

76
Q

medication in STEMI treated with PCI

A

aspirin 300 mg

praugrel/ticagrelor/clopidogrel
unfractionated heparin + bailout glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor (tirofiban)

77
Q

medication in STEMi treated with fibrinolysis

A

aspirin 300mg

alteplase + antithrombin

follwing procedure give ticagrelor

78
Q

medication in NSTEMI

A

300 mg aspirin and fondaparinux if no immediate PCI planned

low risk
- ticagrelor/clopidogrel

high risk
- ticagrelor/prasugrel
- unfractionated heparin

79
Q

medication of preventative oesophagela bleeds

A

propanolol

80
Q

yellow nail syndrome

A

yellow nails
lymphoedema
pleural effusion

81
Q

vaccination in splenectomy

A

if elective - done 2 weeks prior to operation

Hib, meningitis A&C
annual influenza vacciantion
pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years

PSA (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions