Part Two Flashcards
The anesthetized patient may respond to surgical stimulation if the anesthetic depth is inadequate. Response to a painful stimulus may be indicated by all of the following except (A considerable increase in heart rate and an increase in blood pressure, A decrease in lacrimation and salivation, an increase in rr, or sweating on the foot pads)
B. Decrease in lacrimation and salivation
Which agent in the table above can maintain the patient under anesthesia at the lowest alveolar concentration? (A, B, C, or D)
C
Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised? A: Hepatic B: Renal C: Cardiovascular D:All body systems
C
When monitoring the mucous membrane color of an anesthetized patient with pigmented gingivae, you could use each of the following alternative sites except A: Pinnae B: Tongue C: Buccal mucous membranes D: Membranes lining the prepuce or vulva
A. Pinnae
The drug xylazine is best described as an A: Antiinflammatory B: Analgesic and sedative C: Antiemetic D: Anesthetic
B. Analgesic and sedative
Detomidine is approved for use in A: Dogs B: Cats C: Horses D: Cattle
C. Horses
Epinephrine A: Increases the heart rate B: Decreases the heart rate C: Decreases the blood pressure D: Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
A. increases heart rate
The responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient’s vital signs and recording observations at approximately A: 10-minute intervals B: 5-minute intervals C: 2-minute intervals D: 15-second intervals
B. 5-minute intervals
Butorphanol is best described as a/an A: Antiinflammatory B: Analgesic C: Anesthetic D: Diuretic
B. analgesic
The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to
A: Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
B: Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement
C: Increase the dose of butorphanol
D: Increase the dose of xylazine
A. Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
In the US, xylazine is not approved for use in…
Cattle
In the anesthetized surgical patient, pale mucous membranes can indicate all of the following, except A: Inadequate oxygen levels B: Cyanosis C: Excessive blood loss D: Decreased tissue perfusion
B. Cyanosis
The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is A: 70 L B: 700 L C:7000 L D: 2200 L
C. 7000 L
Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide A: Analgesia B: Muscle relaxation C: Anesthesia D: Diuresis
B.Muscle relaxation
Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is
A: Useful to prevent movement
B: Not to be used for cesarean section
C: An excellent caudal analgesic
D: An old procedure with little value in veterinary anesthesia today
C. an excellent caudal analgesic
Once extubated, all animals should be placed in
A: Right lateral recumbency with the neck extended
B: Left lateral recumbency with the neck in a normal, flexed position
C: Sternal recumbency with the neck extended
D: Whatever position is most comfortable for the patient
c. sternal recumbency with the neck extended
Which drug is the most potent sedative? A: Xylazine B: Detomidine C: Acepromazine D: Diazepam
B. Detomidine
The active phase of normal breathing is
A: Shorter in duration than the passive phase
B: The same duration as the passive phase
C: Longer in duration than the passive phase
D: Variable in duration, sometimes shorter, sometimes longer
A. shorter in duration than the passive phase
Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia
A: Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
B: Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
C: Slows the induction process
D: Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required
B. Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses? A: Diazepam B: Butorphanol C: Acepromazine D: Flunixin meglumine
C. Acepromazine
Which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body?
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Halothane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
Nitrous oxide
D. nitrous oxide
Phenothiazine tranquilizers
A:
Cause nausea
B:
Increase the seizure threshold
C:
Cause vasoconstriction
D:
Suppress the sympathetic nervous system
D
During CPR, adequate cardiac massage is present when
A:
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal.
B:
The heart rate is 60 beats/min.
C:
A peripheral pulse can be palpated.
D:
The mucous membranes are pink.
C
What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution.
A:
24 ml
B:
40 ml
C:
60 ml
D:
65 ml
B
The combination drug Telazol contains
A:
Diazepam and ketamine
B:
Diazepam and xylazine
C:
Zolazepam and tiletamine
D:
Xylazine and tiletamine
C
Which of the following anesthetic agents may provide some analgesia in the postoperative period?
A:
Propofol
B:
Sevoflurane
C:
Ketamine
D:
Isoflurane
C
A 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter?
A:
1 mg
B:
0.01 mg
C:
1 µg
D:
0.1 mg
D
Pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of
A:
Respiratory rate
B:
Cardiac output
C:
Percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood
D:
Oxygen content of arterial blood
C
All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except
A:
Acepromazine
B:
Diazepam
C:
Isoflurane
D:
Neuromuscular blocking agents
D
No more than ______ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient.
A:
40%
B:
50%
C:
60%
D:
70%
D
Which drug is an antagonist of xylazine?
A:
Butorphanol
B:
Detomidine
C:
Yohimbine
D:
Pentazocine
C
The following general anesthetic agents can be delivered to effect except
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Telazole given IM
C:
Ketamine/diazepam IV
D:
Thiopental IV
B
Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is
A:
High cost
B:
Difficulty of administration
C:
Poor analgesia
D:
Movement of the patient
D
Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs?
A:
Isoflurane
B:
Halothane
C:
Sevoflurane
D:
Nitrous oxide
B
The preanesthetic mix abbreviated BAA contains
A:
Buprenorphine, atropine, acepromazine
B:
Butorphanol, atipamezole, atropine
C:
Buprenorphine, atropine, atipamezole
D:
Butorphanol, acepromazine, atropine
D
An isoflurane-anesthetized cat suddenly begins breathing 30 times a minute during a surgical procedure. Your first response should be to
A:
Turn down the oxygen flow rate
B:
Immediately begin to bag the patient
C:
Turn up the anesthetic concentration
D:
Evaluate vital organ function and endotracheal tube placement and make necessary adjustments
D
If 180 ml of a 5% solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150-kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered?
A:
30
B:
60
C:
90
D:
15
B
Measures that help decrease waste anesthetic gas exposure include all except
A:
Frequent changing of the soda lime canister
B:
Properly fitting endotracheal tube cuffs
C:
Avoiding use of masks or induction chambers
D:
Leak testing the anesthesia machine
A
Neuromuscular blocking agents are used for all of the following except
A:
Analgesia
B:
Facilitation of fracture reduction
C:
Facilitation of ocular surgery to immobilize the eye
D:
Prevention of spontaneous inspiratory efforts by the patient
A
In nonbrachycephalic breeds of dogs recovering from anesthesia, the endotracheal tube should be removed when the
A:
Palpebral reflex returns
B:
Swallowing reflex returns
C:
Pupils resume a central position
D:
Animal shows voluntary movement of the limbs
B
Daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include all of these except
A:
Leak testing
B:
Weighing the charcoal canister
C:
Calibrating of the vaporizer
D:
Filling the vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent
C
When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is
A:
10 cm H2O
B:
20 cm H2O
C:
60 cm H2O
D:
70 cm H2O
B
Mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-anesthetized horse
A:
Can be used as an indication of anesthetic depth
B:
Is not important
C:
Is not practical to monitor
D:
Is important for long procedures only
A
Balanced anesthesia commonly includes all of the following agents except
A:
Nitrous oxide and an inhalant anesthetic
B:
Muscle-paralyzing agents
C:
Thiobarbiturates
D:
Dissociative agents
D
Which of the following can activate the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system?
A:
Intubation
B:
Handling viscera
C:
Administration of opioids
D:
Painful stimuli
D
Which of these species is most prone to developing malignant hyperthermia?
A:
Equine
B:
Porcine
C:
Ovine
D:
Feline
B
Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed
A:
Direct monitoring
B:
Central venous pressure
C:
Indirect monitoring
D:
Peripheral venous pressure
A
Which drug is a narcotic antagonist?
A:
Naloxone
B:
Atropine
C:
Pancuronium
D:
Droperidol
A
The false statement regarding postsurgical pain is
A:
The pain serves a useful purpose by preventing activity that could cause further tissue injury.
B:
An animal that experiences postoperative pain is more likely to have a poor anesthetic recovery.
C:
Inhalation anesthetics currently used in small-animal practice do not provide significant, postoperative pain control.
D:
If a procedure is known to be painful in humans, it should be regarded as such in animal patients.
A
Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as
A:
Anesthetics
B:
Analgesics
C:
Antiinflammatories
D:
Antihistamines
B
Vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following, except the
A:
Method of regulating output
B:
Method of vaporization
C:
Location in the anesthetic circuit
D:
Type of breathing circuit with which they can be used
D
A patient in ASA class I physical status is
A:
A normal patient with no organic disease
B:
A moribund patient
C:
An adult animal with no signs of evident disease on physical examination
D:
In absolutely no danger while under anesthesia
A
For which of the following species is ketamine use approved?
A:
Cats
B:
Birds
C:
Horses
D:
Dogs
A
Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?
A:
Glycopyrrolate
B:
Acepromazine
C:
Xylazine
D:
Diazepam
B
Which of the following is not a good reason to use a preanesthetic?
A:
Calms the patient
B:
Minimizes the dose of induction agent needed
C:
Smoothes induction and recovery
D:
Increases vagal activity
D
What is the best technique to secure an endotracheal tube to an animal?
A:
It is best not to secure the tube to the animal, so that it can move freely if the animal starts to wake up.
B:
It should be secured by gauze strips around the head in cats and brachycephalic dogs and caudal to the upper canines in other breeds of dogs.
C:
It can be secured by several wraps of cloth and tape around the animal’s nose and the tube.
D:
A rubber band can be looped tightly around the tube and the animal’s nose.
B
The oxygen flush valve
A:
Allows oxygen to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer
B:
Increases the anesthetic concentration within the circuit
C:
Causes the patient to breathe deeper
D:
Is used primarily to keep the reservoir bag deflated
A
During CPR, 2% lidocaine is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias. A complication that may occur after intravenous infusion of lidocaine is
A:
Bradycardia
B:
Coughing
C:
Tachycardia
D:
Vomiting
A
Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?
A:
Phenobarbital
B:
Thiopental
C:
Pentobarbital
D:
Propofol
D
A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains
A:
10 mg/ml
B:
100 mg/ml
C:
20 mg/ml
D:
40 mg/ml
B
Treatment for hypotension during anesthesia includes
A:
Turning up the anesthetic gas
B:
Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids
C:
Increasing the flow of oxygen
D:
Giving ventilating breaths
B
Diazepam is used to produce
A:
Analgesia
B:
Hypnosis
C:
Muscle relaxation
D:
Vomiting
C
Concerning physical stimulation of the recovering anesthetized patient, which statement is least accurate?
A:
Stimulation should not include rubbing the chest, because it may interfere with respiration.
B:
Stimulation can include talking to the patient, moving the limbs, or pinching the toes.
C:
Stimulation increases the flow of information to the reticular activation center of the brain.
D:
A lack of stimulation may cause drowsiness in the conscious animal.
A
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to
A:
Treat cardiac arrhythmias
B:
Produce positive inotropic effects
C:
Stimulate respiration
D:
Combat acidosis
D
A patient’s hydration status can be assessed by all the following except
A:
Respiratory rate
B:
PCV
C:
Total solids
D:
Skin turgor
A
The oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent rebreathing of exhaled gases with an Ayre’s T piece is
A:
0.5 L/min
B:
1 L/min
C:
2 L/min
D:
Greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation
D
Soda lime granules in the CO2 absorber canister should be checked for color change
A:
Immediately before a starting a procedure
B:
Three to 6 hours after the procedure
C:
One hour before starting the procedure
D:
During and up on completing the procedure
D
A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except
A:
The induction agent
B:
Difficulty intubating
C:
Hypoxemia
D:
Breathing oxygen-enriched air
D
The causes of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except
A:
Progression from light to moderate anesthesia
B:
Response to metabolic acidosis
C:
Response to a mild surgical stimulus
D:
Presence of pulmonary edema
A
Recovery from barbiturate anesthesia is prolonged by all of the following except
A:
Increased blood glucose concentration
B:
Sight hounds
C:
Liver disease
D:
Elevated cardiac output
D
A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it
A:
Decreases the arterial PaO2
B:
Increases the arterial PaO2
C:
Slows the induction time
D:
Prolongs the recovery time
A
If the unidirectional valves are missing from an anesthetic machine, it is
A:
Okay to use the machine until you find them
B:
Okay to use the machine if soda lime is new
C:
Okay to use the machine with the pop-off valve closed
D:
Definitely not okay to use the machine, except with a nonrebreathing circuit
D
Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except
A:
Longer duration of action
B:
Crosses the placental barrier
C:
Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias
D:
Smaller dose volume
B
Acepromazine should be avoided in
A:
Patients with a history of seizures
B:
Aggressive patients
C:
All old dogs
D:
All Dobermans
A
If IV access is difficult, emergency drugs can be administered safely and effectively by the ______ route.
A:
Intracardiac
B:
Intraperitoneal
C:
Intratracheal
D:
Intramuscular
C
While monitoring a horse receiving oxygen at the rate of 8 L/min, isoflurane 2.5%, and fluids at the rate of 10 ml/kg/hr, you note that the blood pressure suddenly falls to 60 mm Hg, and the peripheral pulse becomes weak. Your first response should be to
A:
Administer a vasoactive agent
B:
Lower the isoflurane concentration and increase fluid delivery rate
C:
Turn down the oxygen flow
D:
Not be concerned
B
At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?
A:
Decreases
B:
No effect
C:
Increases
D:
Prevents a decrease
D
By which route can short-acting barbiturate drugs be safely administered to induce general anesthesia?
A:
IV
B:
IM
C:
Oral
D:
SQ
A
The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog?
A:
2
B:
4
C:
6
D:
8
B
Never use nitrous oxide
A:
In a closed anesthesia circuit
B:
In cats
C:
With rubber tubes on the anesthesia machine
D:
With isoflurane
A
The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it
A:
Does not cause cardiac arrhythmias
B:
Produces a short period of analgesia
C:
Has antiemetic properties
D:
Is an antiinflammatory
B
The pressure in a full cylinder of compressed oxygen is ______ psi.
A:
1000
B:
750
C:
500
D:
2000
D
Which of the following statements regarding brachycephalic breeds is incorrect?
A:
They may have stenotic nares.
B:
Brachycephalics have a hypoplastic trachea.
C:
A long, floppy soft palate may occlude the trachea.
D:
Brachycephalics often suffer from laryngospasm.
D
Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that
A:
Its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx.
B:
The adaptor is just caudal to the incisors.
C:
It is deep enough to prevent backing out.
D:
Its tip just reaches the third rib.
A
Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may
A:
Cause colic
B:
Slow the heart rate
C:
Cause excitement
D:
Increase salivation
A
Cardiac arrhythmias that occur during anesthesia are commonly associated with all of the following except
A:
Normocapnia
B:
Excessive halothane concentration
C:
Hypoxemia
D:
Myocardial ischemia
A
Using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth?
A:
Pinna reflex
B:
Pedal reflex
C:
Jaw muscle tone
D:
Eye position
D
Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure?
A:
Shorten the recovery time
B:
Prolong the recovery time
C:
Leave the recovery time unaltered
D:
Necessitate increasing the dose of induction agent
B
Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except
A:
Hypotension
B:
Pain
C:
Light plane of anesthesia
D:
Xylazine overdose
D
How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain?
A:
5
B:
10
C:
20
D:
30
C
Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of
A:
Pentobarbital
B:
Thiamylal
C:
Ketamine
D:
Guaifenesin
C
Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration?
A:
Tachycardia
B:
Excessive salivation
C:
Mydriasis
D:
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
B
In patients with which of the following characteristics is it recommended to wait a longer period before extubation because of the likelihood of vomiting or airway obstruction?
A:
Dolichocephalic
B:
Undershot mandible
C:
Brachycephalic
D:
Cleft palate
C
In cattle, an epidural block is performed by inserting the needle between
A:
T13 and L1
B:
L7 and the sacrum
C:
The sacrum and C1
D:
Cy1 and Cy2
D
Mask inductions are
A:
Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction
B:
Best used in aggressive dogs and cats
C:
Absolutely the best way to induce anesthesia in all dogs and cats
D:
More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats
D
Halothane concentrations of 1% to 2% may produce any of the following except
A:
Hypotension
B:
Hypoventilation
C:
Hypothermia
D:
Increased cardiac output
D
The adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are
A:
Nothing to worry about
B:
Never present with smaller doses
C:
Dose dependent
D:
Not dose dependent
C
The approximate volume of oxygen in an E cylinder is
A:
70 L
B:
700 L
C:
7000 L
D:
2200 L
B
A half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of
A:
375 psi
B:
2200 psi
C:
750 psi
D:
50 psi
C
A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy?
A:
Propranolol
B:
Quinidine
C:
Lidocaine
D:
Atropine
C
The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is
A:
Increased heart rate
B:
Increased respiratory rate
C:
Active palpebral reflex
D:
Responsive movement
D
Whole blood should be administered in which of the following presurgical situations?
A:
PCV 30%
B:
PCV 14%
C:
Von Willebrand positive
D:
Chronic anemia, PCV 25%
B
Which of the following is not an advantage for endotracheal intubation?
A:
Ensures a patent airway
B:
Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation
C:
Prevents aspiration pneumonitis
D:
Improves oxygenation of arterial blood
B
The usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is
A:
0.25% to 1%
B:
3.3% to 4%
C:
0.5% to 2%
D:
1% to 3%
B
An intravenous catheter should be
A:
Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
B:
As small as possible to avoid pain
C:
Placed in critically ill patients only
D:
Left in place for at least 3 days after surgery
A
In rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins?
A:
Femoral
B:
Jugular
C:
Auricular
D:
Cephalic
C
Propofol is a/an
A:
Xylazine antagonist
B:
Ultrashort-acting barbiturate
C:
Ketamine-like dissociative
D:
Nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential
D
In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except
A:
Respiratory depression
B:
Decreased heart rate
C:
Analgesia
D:
Excitement
D
What reflex may still be present under a light surgical plane of anesthesia?
A:
Patellar
B:
Palpebral
C:
Pinnal
D:
Pharyngeal
B
When comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing
A:
Respiratory depression
B:
Potency of the agent
C:
Cardiovascular effects
D:
Solubility coefficients
B
Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?
A:
Thiopental sodium
B:
Ketamine
C:
Xylazine
D:
Acepromazine
B
Which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times?
A:
Nitrous oxide
B:
Isoflurane
C:
Halothane
D:
Sevoflurane
C
A small animal patient’s systolic blood pressure was measured at 50 mm Hg. What is your best course of action?
A:
Turn up the oxygen flow rate.
B:
Turn up the concentration of gas anesthetic.
C:
Close the pop-off valve.
D:
Increase the drip rate of the IV fluids.
D
Gas cylinders that are a part of the anesthetic machine are attached to it by a
A:
Y piece
B:
Vaporizer
C:
Yoke
D:
Reducing valve
C
Precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed
A:
In the circle
B:
Out of the circle
C:
Either in or out of the circle
D:
In the high-pressure portion of the anesthetic system
B
After placing, lubricating, and inflating the cuff of the endotracheal tube, you note a sudden decrease in heart rate. The most likely cause is
A:
Low oxygen flow
B:
Too deep a plane of anesthesia
C:
Cuff is underinflated
D:
Cuff may be overinflated, producing vagal-induced bradycardia
D
The advantages of a nonrebreathing system, as compared with a circle breathing system, include all of the following, except
A:
Reduced resistance to breathing
B:
Greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed
C:
Reduced mechanical dead space
D:
No soda lime required
B
In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed
A:
As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed
B:
Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
C:
When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine
D:
As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
B
The MAC of an anesthetic agent will change for all of the following reasons except
A:
Preanesthetic drug administration
B:
Patient’s age
C:
Patient’s breed
D:
Anemia
C
The minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by the
A:
Patient’s metabolic rate
B:
Patient’s respiratory rate
C:
Drugs used for premedication
D:
Size of the soda lime canister
A
All inhalant anesthetic machines should have
A:
A nitrous oxide flowmeter
B:
Blood pressure monitors
C:
Respiratory monitors
D:
An anesthetic waste gas scavenging system
D
The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least
A:
The same as the patient’s tidal volume
B:
Three times the patient’s tidal volume
C:
Six times the patient’s tidal volume
D:
Nine times the patient’s tidal volume
B
When inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more than what volume of air?
A:
2 ml
B:
5 ml
C:
7 ml
D:
10 ml
B
______ is a concern when recovering a patient from anesthesia if nitrous oxide has been used.
A:
Solubility
B:
Diffusion hypoxia
C:
Biotransformation
D:
Inflammation
B
An epidural agent would be administered where in a dog?
A:
Between L7 and the sacrum
B:
Just cranial to C1
C:
Immediately caudal to T13
D:
Directly into the spinal cord at T1
A
Which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate?
A:
It removes carbon dioxide from the breathing circuit.
B:
Its capacity should be at least one to two times the patient’s tidal volume.
C:
It can be nonfunctional and still maintain its original color.
D:
It should be changed once a month.
D
To minimize waste anesthetic exposure in the surgical suite, a realistic goal is to have the level of halothane no higher than
A:
2 ppm
B:
50 ppm
C:
100 ppm
D:
1000 ppm
A
A 10-kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 µg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml?
A:
3
B:
5
C:
30
D:
50
C
If the rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, all of the following may be the cause, except
A:
The oxygen flow may be too high.
B:
The oxygen flow may be too low.
C:
There may be a leak in the system.
D:
The waste gas scavenging system is not working properly.
A
Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color?
A:
Green
B:
Gray
C:
Blue
D:
Brown
C
All of the following drugs predispose the animal to bloat, except
A:
Atropine
B:
Medetomidine
C:
Glycopyrrolate
D:
Midazolam
D
According to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is
A:
2 ppm
B:
4 ppm
C:
6 ppm
D:
8 ppm
A
