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Anesthesia VTNE > Part One > Flashcards

Part One Flashcards

1
Q

Detomidine is approved for use in…

A

Horses

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2
Q 
The combination drug Telazol contains
A: Diazepam and ketamine 
B: Diazepam and xylazine 
C: Zolazepam and tiletamine 
D: Xylazine and tiletamine
A

C. Zolazepam and tiletamine

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3
Q 
The most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is
A: Increased heart rate 
B: Increased respiratory rate 
C: Active palpebral reflex 
D: Responsive movement
A

D. Responisive movement

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4
Q 
Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?
A: Glycopyrrolate 
B: Acepromazine 
C: Xylazine 
D: Diazepam
A

B. Acepromazine

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5
Q 
Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may
A: Cause colic 
B: Slow the heart rate 
C: Cause excitement 
D: Increase salivation
A

A, Cause colic

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6
Q

When an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, the animal should be placed in
A: Sternal recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck
B: Sternal recumbency with its head and neck extended
C: Lateral recumbency with its head at a 90-degree angle to the neck
D: Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

A

D. Lateral recumbency with its head, neck, and back extended

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7
Q 
A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains
A: 10 mg/ml 
B: 100 mg/ml 
C: 20 mg/ml  
D: 40 mg/ml
A

B.100 mg/mL

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8
Q

The combination of xylazine and butorphanol is used to
A: Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone
B: Cause central nervous system (CNS) excitement
C: Increase the dose of butorphanol
D: Increase the dose of xylazine

A

A. Provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation than either drug can alone

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9
Q

An intravenous catheter should be
A: Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs
B: As small as possible to avoid pain
C: Placed in critically ill patients only
D: Left in place for at least 3 days after surgery

A

A. Large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery, if cardiac arrest occurs

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10
Q 
Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?
A: Thiopental sodium 
B:Ketamine 
C: Xylazine 
D: Acepromazine
A

B. Ketamine

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11
Q 
Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised?
A: Hepatic 
B: Renal 
C: Cardiovascular 
D: All body systems
A

C. cardiovascular

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12
Q 
Immediately after tracheal intubation in a 3-kg cat you notice extreme respiratory distress. The most likely cause is
A: Light plane of anesthesia 
B: Hypoxemia 
C: Nothing; this is normal. 
D: Bronchial intubation
A

D. Bronchial intubation

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13
Q 
The following general anesthetic agents can be delivered to effect except
A: Isoflurane 
B: Telazole given IM 
C: Ketamine/diazepam IV 
D: Thiopental IV
A

B. Telazole given IM

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14
Q 
The values of the PCV/TP may indicate that all of the following are present except
A: Anemia 
B: Hypoproteinemia  
C: Dehydration 
D: Infection
A

D. Infection

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15
Q 
Which of the following is a component of a Bain anesthetic circuit?
A: Reservoir bag 
B: Unidirectional valves 
C: Oxygen flush valve 
D: Carbon dioxide absorber
A

A. Reservoir bag

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16
Q 
Opioid drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as
A: Anesthetics  
B: Analgesics 
C: Antiinflammatories 
D: Antihistamines
A

B. Analgesics

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17
Q 
Butorphanol is best described as a/an
A: Antiinflammatory 
B: Analgesic 
C: Anesthetic 
D: Diuretic
A

B. Analgesic

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18
Q 
Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses?
A: Diazepam 
B: Butorphanol
C:Acepromazine 
D: Flunixin meglumine
A

C. Acepromazine

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19
Q 
Doxapram may produce all of the following except
A: CNS excitement 
B: Increased ventilation rate 
C: Respiratory alkalosis 
D: Hypoventilation
A

D. Hypoventilation

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20
Q 
Phenothiazine tranquilizers
A: Cause nausea 
B. Increase the seizure threshold 
C: Cause vasoconstriction 
D: Suppress the sympathetic nervous system
A

D. Suppress the sympathetic nervous system

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21
Q 
The oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood can be assessed by measuring all of the following except
A: PCV 
B: Hematocrit 
C: Total solids 
D: Hemoglobin
A

C. Total solids

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22
Q 
The effect of intravenous administration of any anesthetic drug is usually detected in
A: 30 to 60 seconds 
B: 3 to 5 minutes 
C: 15 to 20 minutes 
D: 1 hour
A

A. 30-60 seconds

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23
Q 
Postanesthetic myositis is most likely to occur in
A: Pigs 
B: Horses 
C: Ruminants 
D: Rabbits
A

B. Horses

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24
Q 
The drug xylazine is best described as an
A: Antiinflammatory 
B: Analgesic and sedative 
C: Antiemetic 
D: Anesthetic
A

B. Analgesic and sedative

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25
Q

Which of the following statements regarding avian anesthesia is incorrect?
A: IM injections should be given in the pectoral muscle only.
B: A cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia.
C: A nonrebreathing circuit should be used in birds.
D: Ketamine is not effective in birds.

A

B. a cuffed tube should be used to maintain inhalant anesthesia

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26
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage for endotracheal intubation?
A: Ensures a patent airway
B: Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation
C: Prevents aspiration pneumonitis
D: Improves oxygenation of arterial blood

A

B. Increases dead space and allows for more efficient ventilation

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27
Q

The only accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of respiration is by
A: Observing abdominal and chest movements during respiration
B: Counting the respiratory rate
C: Feeling air move through the endotracheal tube or nostrils
D: Measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures

A

D. measuring the arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressures

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28
Q 
In the United States, xylazine is not approved for use in
A:Dogs 
B: Cats 
C: Horses 
D: Cattle
A

D. CAttle

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29
Q 
Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color?
A: Green 
B: Gray 
C: Blue 
D: Brown
A

C. Blue

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30
Q 
Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide
A: Analgesia 
B: Muscle relaxation 
C: Anesthesia 
D: Diuresis
A

B. Muscle relaxation

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31
Q 
A cardiac rhythm disturbance detected shortly after induction of anesthesia may be the result of any of the following except
A: The induction agent 
B: Difficulty intubating 
C: Hypoxemia 
D: Breathing oxygen-enriched air
A

D. breathing oxygen-enriched air

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32
Q 
Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except 
A: Isoflurane 
B: Halothane  
C: Sevoflurane 
D: Nitrous oxide
A

D. Nitrous oxide

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33
Q 
The usual vaporizer maintenance setting for sevoflurane is
A: 0.25% to 1% 
B: 3.3% to 4% 
C: 0.5% to 2% 
D: 1% to 3%
A

B. 3.3% to 4%

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34
Q 
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include
A: Aspirin and xylazine 
B: Diazepam and acetaminophen 
C: Carprofen and ketoprofen 
D: Acetylpromazine and ibuprofen
A

C. Carprofen and ketoprofen

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35
Q 
Which drug is the most potent sedative?
A: Xylazine 
B: Detomidine 
C: Acepromazine 
D: Diazepam
A

B. Detomidine

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36
Q 
Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is
A: High cost 
B: Difficulty of administration 
C: Poor analgesia 
D: Movement of the patient
A

D. Movement of the patient

37
Q 
Which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs?
A: Isoflurane 
B: Halothane 
C: Sevoflurane 
D: Nitrous oxide
A

B. Halothane

38
Q 
Which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body?
A: Isoflurane 
B: Halothane 
C: Sevoflurane
D: Nitrous oxide
A

D. Nitrous oxide

39
Q

Indications of poor cardiac function include all of the following except
A: Cyanosis in patients with a PCV of 45%
B: Poor perfusion
C: Cardiac arrhythmias
D: Normal pulse

A

D. Normal pulse

40
Q 
Which of these is a cyclohexamine agent?
A: Ketamine 
B: Acetylpromazine  
C: Xylazine 
D: Propofol
A

A. Ketamine

41
Q 
The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it
A: Does not cause cardiac arrhythmias 
B: Produces a short period of analgesia 
C: Has antiemetic properties 
D: Is an antiinflammatory
A

B. Produces a short period of analgesia

42
Q

Once extubated, all animals should be placed in
A: Right lateral recumbency with the neck extended
B: Left lateral recumbency with the neck in a normal, flexed position
C: Sternal recumbency with the neck extended
D: Whatever position is most comfortable for the patient

A

C. sTernal recumbency with the neck extended

43
Q 
The dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg, and the maximum dose is 4 mg. How many milligrams would you administer to a 60-kg dog?
A: 2 
B: 4 
C: 6 
D: 8
A

B. 4

44
Q 
The ideal inhalant anesthetic should have all of the following characteristics except
A: Low vapor pressure 
B: High solubility coefficient 
C: Low MAC 
D: Provide good muscle relaxation
A

B. High solubility coefficient

45
Q 
All of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except
A: Acepromazine 
B: Diazepam 
C: Isoflurane 
D: Neuromuscular blocking agents
A

D. Neuromuscular blocking agents

46
Q

Which statement concerning use of intravenous anesthesia in large animals is least accurate?
A: It is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias.
B: It works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of the patient.
C: It should not be used on procedures that require more than 45 to 50 minutes to complete.
D: It requires use of a preanesthetic for sedation and a barbiturate.

A

B. it works well on procedure that require complete immobilization of the patient

47
Q 
A 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter?
A: 1 mg 
B: 0.01 mg 
C: 1 µg 
D: 0.1 mg
A

D. 0.1 mg

48
Q 
An abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving intravenous fluids may indicate
A: Intravenous fluid overload 
B: Increased cardiac output 
C: Dehydration 
D: Liver disease
A

A. IV fluid overload

49
Q 
In dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except
A: Respiratory depression 
B: Decreased heart rate 
C: Analgesia 
D: Excitement
A

D. Excitement

50
Q 
Which drug is not classified as a barbiturate?
A: Phenobarbital 
B: Thiopental 
C: Pentobarbital 
D: Propofol
A

D. Propofol

51
Q

Ways to minimize exposure to waste anesthetic gas include
A: Use of loose-fitting masks
B: Properly inflate the endotracheal tube cuff
C: Immediately disconnect of the patient from the anesthesia machine once the procedure is completed
D: Connect the patient to the breathing circuit after both the oxygen and isoflurane are turned on

A

B. Properly inflate the ET tube cuff

52
Q

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except
A: Longer duration of action
B: Crosses the placental barrier
C: Less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias
D: Smaller dose volume

A

B. Crosses the placental barrier

53
Q 
If a dog is too deeply anesthetized, all of the following may be seen except
A: Tachycardia 
B: Bradycardia 
C: Pale mucous membranes 
D: Increased jaw muscle tone
A

D. Increased jaw muscle tone

54
Q 
All are traits of sevoflurane except
A: Low lipid solubility 
B: Smooth recovery 
C: Nonpungent odor 
D: Severe heart depression
A

D. Severe heart depression

55
Q 
No more than \_\_\_\_\_\_ nitrous oxide should be delivered to an anesthetized patient.
A: 40% 
B: 50% 
C: 60% 
D: 70%
A

D. 70%

56
Q 
The piece of equipment that facilitates intubating a patient is the 
A: Esophageal stethoscope 
B: Laryngoscope 
C: Ophthalmoscope 
D: Otoscope
A

B. Laryngoscope

57
Q

The causes of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except
A: Progression from light to moderate anesthesia
B: Response to metabolic acidosis
C: Response to a mild surgical stimulus
D: Presence of pulmonary edema

A

A. Progression from light to moderate anesthesia

58
Q

Daily preanesthesia check of the anesthesia machine should include all of these except
A: Leak testing
B: Weighing the charcoal canister
C: Calibrating of the vaporizer
D: Filling the vaporizer with anesthetic gas agent

A

C. Calibrating of the vaporizer

59
Q 
How much halothane is biotransformed in the body?
A: About 1% 
B: About 12% 
C: About 20% 
D: About 50%
A

C. about 20%

60
Q

You have just completed filling the cuff on the endotracheal tube. The pressure relief valve is stuck in the closed position. Your best option is to
A: Turn up the oxygen flow rate
B: Start bagging the pet
C: Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine
D: Continue prepping the pet for surgery, and fix the valve release knob after the surgery is finished

A

C. Disconnect the patient from the anesthesia machine

61
Q 
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is used to
A: Treat cardiac arrhythmias 
B: Produce positive inotropic effects 
C: Stimulate respiration 
D: Combat acidosis
A

D. Combat acidosis

62
Q 
Tachycardia in an anesthetized patient may be an indication of any of the following except
A:Hypotension 
B: Pain 
C: Light plane of anesthesia 
D: Xylazine overdose
A

D. Xylazine overdose

63
Q 
A 10-kg dog with a ventricular arrhythmia is treated with an IV lidocaine drip at 50 µg/kg/min. How many drops per minute from a minidrip infusion set (60 drops/ml) are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1 mg/ml?
A: 3 
B: 5 
C: 30 
D: 50
A

C. 30

64
Q 
At normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate?
A: Decreases 
B: No effect 
C: Increases 
D: Prevents a decrease
A

D. Prevents a decrease

65
Q 
Apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with use of
A: Pentobarbital 
B: Thiamylal 
C: Ketamine 
D: Guaifenesin
A

C. Ketamine

66
Q 
98. The minimum acceptable heart rate (beats per minute) for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is
A: 40 bpm 
B: 60 bpm 
C: 80 bpm 
D: 100 bpm
A

B. 60 bpm

67
Q 
Which drug is a narcotic antagonist?
A: Naloxone 
B: Atropine 
C: Pancuronium 
D: Droperidol
A

A. Naloxone

68
Q 
What is the maximum effective length for a scavenger hose used with a passive system?
A: 5 feet 
B: 10 feet 
C: 15 feet 
D: 20 feet
A

D. 20 feet

69
Q 
During the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, respiratory rates lower than how many breaths/min may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian?
A: 5 
B: 8 
C: 10 
D: 12
A

B. 8

70
Q 
When inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is
A: 10 cm H2O 
B: 20 cm H2O 
C: 60 cm H2O 
D: 70 cm H2O
A

B. 20 cm H2O

71
Q

Mask inductions are
A: Best used in dogs and cats with airway obstruction
B: Best used in aggressive dogs and cats
C: Absolutely the best way to induce anesthesia in all dogs and cats
D: More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

A

D. More appropriately used in calm dogs and cats

72
Q 
Highly volatile anesthetics are best suited for
A: IV administration 
B: Precision vaporizers 
C: Draw-over vaporizers 
D: Open-drop or cone systems
A

B. Precision vaporizers

73
Q

Why is apnea sometimes prolonged after barbiturates are administered too rapidly?A: Apnea is part of the excitement phase.
B: Apnea is part of the parasympathetic nervous system stimulation.
C: Barbiturates cause hypotension.
D: Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide.

A

D.Barbiturates suppress the respiratory center, making it less sensitive to carbon dioxide

74
Q

Depressant preanesthetic medication may have what effect on the anesthesia procedure?
A: Shorten the recovery time
B: Prolong the recovery time
C: Leave the recovery time unaltered
D: Necessitate increasing the dose of induction agent

A

B. Prolong the recovery time

75
Q

The volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least
A: The same as the patient’s tidal volume
B: Three times the patient’s tidal volume
C: Six times the patient’s tidal volume
D: Nine times the patient’s tidal volume

A

B. three times the patient’s tidal volume

76
Q 
Diazepam is used to produce
A: Analgesia 
B: Hypnosis 
C: Muscle relaxation 
D: Vomiting
A

C. Muscle relaxation

77
Q 
Epinephrine
A: Increases the heart rate 
B: Decreases the heart rate 
C: Decreases the blood pressure 
D: Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine
A

A. Increases heart rate

78
Q

Use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia
A: Increases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
B: Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required
C: Slows the induction process
D: Has no effect on the time or amount of anesthetic required

A

B. Decreases the amount of inhalation anesthetic required

79
Q

What drugs will not slow the heart rate?
A: Anticholinergics
B: Phenothiazine tranquilizers C: Alpha-2 agonists
D: Gas anesthetics

A

A. Anticholinergics

80
Q 
What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution.
A: 24 ml 
B: 40 ml 
C: 60 ml 
D: 65 ml
A

B. 40 mL

81
Q 
Gas cylinders that are a part of the anesthetic machine are attached to it by a
A: Y piece 
B:Vaporizer 
C: Yoke  
D: Reducing valve
A

C. Yoke

82
Q 
A dog anesthetized with halothane in 99% oxygen develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the drug of choice for therapy?
A: Propranolol 
B: Quinidine 
C: Lidocaine 
D: Atropine
A

C. Lidocaine

83
Q 
To minimize waste anesthetic exposure in the surgical suite, a realistic goal is to have the level of halothane no higher than
A: 2 ppm 
B: 50 ppm 
C: 100 ppm 
D: 1000 ppm
A

A. 2 ppm

84
Q

Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by
A: Decreased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels
B: Decreased carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen levels
C: Increased oxygen levels and decreased carbon dioxide levels
D: Increased oxygen levels and increased carbon dioxide levels

A

A. Decreased oxygen levels and increased CO2 levels

85
Q 
A disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide is that it
A: Decreases the arterial PaO2 
B: Increases the arterial PaO2 
C: Slows the induction time 
D: Prolongs the recovery time
A

A. decreases the arterial PaO2

86
Q

In a Siamese cat, the endotracheal tube should be removed
A: As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed
B: Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
C: When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine
D: As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

A

D. as soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough

87
Q 
How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain?
A: 5 
B: 10 
C: 20 
D: 30
A

C. 20

88
Q 
The drug that has the longest duration of effect after one injection is
A: Butorphanol 
B: Morphine 
C: Buprenorphine 
D: Oxymorphone
A

C. Buprenorphine

89
Q

Which statement concerning eye position, pupil size, and responsiveness to light as indicators of anesthetic depth is least accurate?
A: In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light.
B:In stage III, plane 2 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually rotated ventrally with slightly dilated pupils.
C: In stage II of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central, and the pupils may be dilated and responsive to light.
D: In stage IV of anesthesia, the eyes are central with widely dilated pupils that are unresponsive to light.

A

A: In stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia, the eyes are usually central to slightly eccentric, with normal pupils that are responsive to light.

Anesthesia VTNE (2 decks)

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