Part 91

Question 1

Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.

14 CFR 91.3

Answer 1

(a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

(b) In an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule of this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.

(c) Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

Question 2

Who is responsible for determining civil aircraft airworthiness?

14 CFR 91.7

Answer 2

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.

(b) The pilot in command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in condition for safe flight. The pilot in command shall discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

Question 3

Dropping Objects

14 CFR 91.15

Answer 3

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

Question 4

Alcohol or drugs: No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft…

14 CFR 91.17

Answer 4

(1) Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;

(2) While under the influence of alcohol;

(3) While using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or

(4) While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.

medical patient under proper care can be carried

Question 5

Can you operate a civil aircraft within the United States with knowledge that narcotic drugs, marihuana, and depressant or stimulant drugs or substances as defined in Federal or State statutes are carried in the aircraft.

14 CFR 91.19

Answer 5

No

Approved medical supplies are exempt

Question 6

No person may operate, nor may any operator or pilot in command of an aircraft allow the operation of, any portable electronic device on any of the following U.S.-registered civil aircraft:

14 CFR 91.21

Answer 6

(1) Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an operating certificate; or

(2) Any other aircraft while it is operated under IFR.

LFNP AO61 grants permission of the use of EFBs

Question 7

Can the FAA use reports submitted through the Aviation Safety Reporting Program for law enforcement action?

14 CFR 91.25

Answer 7

The Administrator of the FAA will not use reports submitted to the National Aeronautics and Space Administration under the Aviation Safety Reporting Program (or information derived therefrom) in any enforcement action except information concerning accidents or criminal offenses which are wholly excluded from the Program.

Question 8

Where do “Subpart B—Flight Rules” apply to?

14 CFR 91.101

Answer 8

This subpart prescribes flight rules governing the operation of aircraft within the United States and within 12 nautical miles from the coast of the United States.

Question 9

Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include—

14 CFR 91.103

Answer 9

(1) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which the pilot in command has been advised by ATC;
(2) For any flight, runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the following takeoff and landing distance information:
* For civil aircraft for which an approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual containing takeoff and landing distance data is required, the takeoff and landing distance data contained therein; and
* For civil aircraft other than those specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section, other reliable information appropriate to the aircraft, relating to aircraft performance under expected values of airport elevation and runway slope, aircraft gross weight, and wind and temperature.

Question 10

When must flight crewmembers be at their stations with seatbelts fastened?

14 CFR 91.105

Answer 10

(a) During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall—
1. Be at the crewmember station unless the absence is necessary to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs; and
2. Keep the safety belt fastened while at the crewmember station.

(b) Each required flight crewmember of a U.S.-registered civil aircraft shall, during takeoff and landing, keep his or her shoulder harness fastened while at his or her assigned duty station. This paragraph does not apply if—
1. The seat at the crewmember’s station is not equipped with a shoulder harness; or
2. The crewmember would be unable to perform required duties with the shoulder harness fastened.

Remember to brief occupants on seat belt usage

Question 11

Operating near other aircraft restrictions

14 CFR 91.111

Answer 11

(a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

Question 12

Right-of-way rules (Except water operations)

14 CFR 91.113

Answer 12

• The less maneuverable aircraft has the right of way (balloons>gliders>powered AC>etc…)
• Right hand aircraft has right of way
• Overtake on the right
• Head on: alter course to the right

Right, Right, Right

Question 13

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes:

14 CFR 91.119

Answer 13

(a) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(b) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open air assembly of persons, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

(c) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

(d) Helicopters, powered parachutes, and weight-shift-control aircraft. If the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface—
1. A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (b) or (c) of this section, provided each person operating the helicopter complies with any routes or altitudes specifically prescribed for helicopters by the FAA; and
2. A powered parachute or weight-shift-control aircraft may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section.

Question 14

ATC light signals

14 CFR 91.125

Answer 14

Steady green
* Cleared for takeoff
* Cleared to land.

Flashing green
* Cleared to taxi
* Return for landing (to be followed by steady green at proper time).

Steady red
* Stop
* Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Flashing red
* Taxi clear of runway in use
* Airport unsafe—do not land.

Flashing white
* Return to starting point on airport
* Not applicable on deck

Alternating red and green
* Exercise extreme caution
* Exercise extreme caution.

Question 15

Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class G airspace

14 CFR 91.126

Answer 15

Without Control Tower
1. Each pilot of an airplane must make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot must make all turns to the right; and
2. Each pilot of a helicopter or a powered parachute must avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft.

With Control Tower
1. Two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower.
2. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Question 16

Operating on or in the vicinity of an airport in Class E airspace

14 CFR 91.127

Answer 16

Each pilot of an aircraft must comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport

With Control Tower
1. Two-way radio communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower.
2. Communications must be established prior to 4 nautical miles from the airport, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.

Question 17

Operations in Class D airspace

14 CFR 91.129

Answer 17

1. Must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.
2. When departing from the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower you must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class D airspace area; or
3. From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, you must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class D airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.
4. Circle the airport to the left, if operating an airplane; or
5. Avoid the flow of fixed-wing aircraft, if operating a helicopter.
6. No person may, at any airport with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway, or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance is received from ATC.

Question 18

Operations in Class C airspace

14 CFR 91.130

Answer 18

1. No person may take off or land an aircraft at a satellite airport within a Class C airspace area except in compliance with FAA arrival and departure traffic patterns.
2. Each person must establish two-way radio communications prior to entering that airspace and thereafter maintain those communications while within that airspace.
3. From the primary airport or satellite airport with an operating control tower must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the control tower, and thereafter as instructed by ATC while operating in the Class C airspace area; or
4. From a satellite airport without an operating control tower, must establish and maintain two-way radio communications with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the Class C airspace area as soon as practicable after departing.

Question 19

Operations in Class B airspace

14 CFR 91.131

Answer 19

1. The operator must receive an ATC clearance from the ATC facility having jurisdiction for that area before operating an aircraft in that area.
2. The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate, a sport pilot certificate, or student/recreational pilot with when appropriate requirements are met
3. For IFR operation. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system; and
4. For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area.
5. Operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in § 91.215 (a), except as provided in § 91.215 (e), and
6. Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast Out equipment specified in § 91.225.

Question 20

Restricted and prohibited areas

14 CFR 91.133

Answer 20

No person may operate an aircraft within a restricted area (designated in part 73) contrary to the restrictions imposed, or within a prohibited area, unless that person has the permission of the using or controlling agency, as appropriate.

Question 21

Operations in Class A airspace

14 CFR 91.135

Answer 21

1. Operations may be conducted only under an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace.
2. must be equipped with a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on a frequency assigned by ATC. Each pilot must maintain two-way radio communications with ATC while operating in Class A airspace.

Question 22

Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions

14 CFR 91.151

Answer 22

(a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed—
1. During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
2. At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

Question 23

Special VFR operations may only be conducted:

Note: Applicable below 10,000 feet MSL within the airspace contained by the upward extension of the lateral boundaries of the controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport

14 CFR 91.157

Answer 23

(1.) With an ATC clearance;
(2.) Clear of clouds;
(3.) Except for helicopters, when flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile; and
(4.) Except for helicopters, between sunrise and sunset (or in Alaska, when the sun is 6 degrees or less below the horizon) unless—
* The person being granted the ATC clearance meets the applicable requirements for instrument flight under part 61 of this chapter; and
* The aircraft is equipped as required in § 91.205(d).

No person may take off or land an aircraft (other than a helicopter) under special VFR—
(1.) Unless ground visibility is at least 1 statute mile; or
(2.) If ground visibility is not reported, unless flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile. For the purposes of this paragraph, the term flight visibility includes the visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in takeoff position if:
* The flight is conducted under this part 91; and
* The airport at which the aircraft is located is a satellite airport that does not have weather reporting capabilities.

The determination of visibility by a pilot in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section is not an official weather report or an official ground visibility report.

Question 24

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class A

14 CFR 91.155

Answer 24

Flight Vis: Not applicable
Distance from Clouds: Not applicable

Question 25

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class B | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 25

Flight Vis: 3 SM Distance from Clouds: Clear of Clouds

Question 26

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class C | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 26

Flight Vis: 3 SM Distance from Clouds: 500ft Below/ 1000ft Above/ 2000ft Horizontally

Question 27

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class D | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 27

Flight Vis: 3 SM Distance from Clouds: 500ft Below/ 1000ft Above/ 2000ft Horizontally

Question 28

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class E *Less than 10000ft MSL | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 28

Flight Vis: 3 SM Distance from Clouds: 500ft Below/ 1000ft Above/ 2000ft Horizontally

Question 29

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class E *At or above 10000ft MSL | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 29

Flight Vis: 5 SM Distance from Clouds: 1000ft Below/ 1000ft Above/ 1 SM Horizontally

Question 30

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class G *1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude) *For Helicopters | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 30

Day: Flight Vis: 1/2 SM Distance from Clouds: Clear of Clouds Night: Flight Vis: 1 SM Distance from Clouds: Clear of Clouds

Question 31

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class G *More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL *For Helicopters | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 31

Day: Flight Vis: 1 SM Distance from Clouds: 500 feet below/ 1,000 feet above/ 2,000 feet horizontal. Night: Flight Vis: 3 SM Distance from Clouds: 500 feet below/ 1,000 feet above/ 2,000 feet horizontal.

Question 32

Basic VFR weather minimums: Class G *More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL *For Helicopters | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 32

Flight Vis: 5 SM Distance from Clouds: 1,000 feet below/ 1,000 feet above/ 1 statute mile horizontal.

Question 33

Class G Airspace: Operations may be conducted in Class G airspace below 1,200 feet above the surface: Helicopter: A helicopter may be operated ___ __ ___ in an airport traffic pattern within ____ of the runway or helipad of intended landing if the flight visibility is not less than __ ___ ___. | 14 CFR 91.155

Answer 33

clear of clouds 1⁄2 mile 1⁄2 statute mile

Question 34

Class A Airspace | 14 CFR 91

Answer 34

18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL) up to and including flight level (FL) 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12 nautical miles (NM) of the coast IFR only (unless otherwise otherized)

Question 35

Class B Airspace | 14 CFR 91

Answer 35

Surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports

Question 36

Class C Airspace | 14 CFR 91

Answer 36

Surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Generally a 5NM inner circle and a 10NM overlaying outer circle s that extends from 1,200 feet to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. Must establish two-way radio communications prior to entering the airspace and thereafter must maintain those communications while within the airspace

Question 37

Class D Airspace | 14 CFR 91

Answer 37

Surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation (charted in MSL) surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower. The airspace is normally designed to contain any instrument procedures. Unless otherwise authorized aircraft must establish two-way radio communications prior to entering the airspace and thereafter must maintain those communications while within the airspace

Question 38

Class E Airspace | 14 CFR 91

Answer 38

Controlled airspace not classified as Class A, B, C, or D airspace. In most areas, the Class E airspace base is 1,200 feet AGL. In many other areas, the Class E airspace base is either the surface or 700 feet AGL. In areas where charts do not depict a class E base, class E begins at 14,500 feet MSL.

Question 39

Class G Airspace | 14 CFR 91

Answer 39

Uncontrolled Portion of the airspace that has not been designated as Class A, B, C, D, or E.

Question 40

Prohibited Areas

Answer 40

Flight of aircraft is prohibited Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

Question 41

Restricted Areas

Answer 41

Operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Penetration of restricted areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (e.g., artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles). IFR flights may be authorized to transit the airspace and are routed accordingly

Question 42

Warning Areas

Answer 42

Similar in nature to restricted areas; however, the United States government does not have sole jurisdiction over the airspace. Extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the United States, containing activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Question 43

Military Operation Areas (MOAs)

Answer 43

Established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

Question 44

Alert Areas

Answer 44

Areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas. Everyone in these areas, shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.

Question 45

Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs)

Answer 45

CFAs contain activities that, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. Activities must be suspended when a spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area.

Question 46

Military Training Routes (MTRs)

Answer 46

Established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots. MTRs with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by four number characters (e.g., IR1206, VR1207). MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by three number characters (e.g., IR206, VR207)

Question 47

VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface shall maintain: | 14 CFR 91.159

Answer 47

When operating below 18,000 feet MSL and— 1. 0°-170°, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 3,500, 5,500, or 7,500); or 2. 180°-359°, any even thousand foot MSL altitude + 500 feet (such as 4,500, 6,500, or 8,500). | Magnetic course values

Question 48

Fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions. | 14 CFR 91.167

Answer 48

No person may operate a civil aircraft in IFR conditions unless it carries enough fuel (considering weather reports and forecasts and weather conditions) to— 1. Complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing; 2. Fly from that airport to the alternate airport; and 3. Fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed or, **for helicopters, fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed**. Appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following: 1. For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles. 2. **For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.**

Question 49

When do you need to file an alternate on an IFR flight plan? | 14 CFR 91.169

Answer 49

When appropriate weather reports or weather forecasts, or a combination of them, indicate the following: 1. For aircraft other than helicopters. For at least 1 hour before and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation and the visibility will be at least 3 statute miles. 2. **For helicopters. At the estimated time of arrival and for 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival, the ceiling will be at least 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and the visibility will be at least 2 statute miles.**

Question 50

IFR alternate airport weather minima | 14 CFR 91.169

Answer 50

At the estimated time of arrival at the alternate airport, the ceiling and visibility at that airport will be at or above the following weather minima: For aircraft other than helicopters: * The alternate airport minima specified in that procedure, or if none are specified the following standard approach minima: * For a precision approach procedure. Ceiling 600 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. * For a nonprecision approach procedure. Ceiling 800 feet and visibility 2 statute miles. **For helicopters:** * **Ceiling 200 feet above the minimum for the approach to be flown, and visibility at least 1 statute mile but never less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown, and**

Question 51

VOR equipment check for IFR operations | 14 CFR 91.171

Answer 51

Must be operationally checked within the preceding 30 days and withing the following limits: * ±4° on deck (approved test signal, or VOR system checkpoint) * ±6° airborne checkpoint * If no check signal or point is available then, while in flight, first elect a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an established VOR airway; then select a prominent ground point along the selected radial preferably more than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and maneuver the aircraft directly over the point at a reasonably low altitude; and finally note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the ground point (the maximum permissible variation between the published radial and the indicated bearing is 6 degrees). | Enter the date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log

Question 52

No pilot may operate an aircraft below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless— | 14 CFR 91.175

Answer 52

1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers, and for operations conducted under part 121 or part 135 unless that descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing; 2. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used; and 3. At least one of the appropriate visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot

Question 53

Visual references, distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot, for the intended runway are: | 14 CFR 91.175

Answer 53

At least one of the following: 1. The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable. 2. The threshold. 3. The threshold markings. 4. The threshold lights. 5. he runway end identifier lights. 6. The visual glideslope indicator. 7. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. 8. The touchdown zone lights. 9. The runway or runway markings. 10. The runway lights.

Question 54

No pilot operating an aircraft may land that aircraft when— | 14 CFR 91.175

Answer 54

The flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used. | Including 135 operations

Question 55

Civil airport takeoff minimums | 14 CFR 91.175

Answer 55

1. For aircraft, other than helicopters, having two engines or less—1 statute mile visibility. 2. For aircraft having more than two engines— 1⁄2 statute mile visibility. 3. **For helicopters— 1⁄2 statute mile visibility.**

Question 56

Comparable values of RVR and ground visibility | 14 CFR 91.175

Answer 56

RVR (feet) = Visibility (statute miles) * 1,600 = 1/4 * 2,400 = 1/2 * 3,200 = 5/8 * 4,000 = 3/4 * 4,500 = 7/8 * 5,000 = 1 * 6,000 = 11/4

Question 57

Minimum altitudes for IFR operations | 14 CFR 91.177

Answer 57

MEA or MOCA If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed in parts 95 and 97 of this chapter, then— 1. In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area in part 95 of this chapter, an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown; or 2. In any other case, an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.

Question 58

IFR cruising altitude or flight level | 14 CFR 91.179

Answer 58

When operating below 18,000 feet MSL— * 0°-179°, any odd thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 3,000, 5,000, or 7,000); or * 180°-359°, any even thousand foot MSL altitude (such as 2,000, 4,000, or 6,000). | Magnetic course values

Question 59

IFR operations: Two-way radio communications failure | 14 CFR 91.185

Answer 59

VFR conditions: If the failure occurs in VFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. IFR conditions: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: * Route (Assigned, Vectored, Expected, Filed) * Altitude (Assigned, Minimum, Expected) * Leave clearance limit (expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed)

Question 60

Civil aircraft: Certifications required | 14 CFR 91.203

Answer 60

A: Airworthiness Certificate R: Registration Certificate O: Operating Limitations (i.e. weight and balance) W: Weight and Balance

Question 61

Required equipment for day VFR flights | 14 CFR 91.205

Answer 61

A – Airspeed Indicator T – Tachometer (for each engine) O – Oil Pressure Gauge (for each engine) M – Manifold Pressure Gauge (for each engine, if applicable) A – Altimeter T – Temperature Gauge (for each liquid-cooled engine) O – Oil Temperature Gauge (for each engine) F – Fuel Gauge L – Landing Gear Position Indicator (if applicable) A – Anti-Collision Lights (For aircraft certificated after March 11, 1996) M – Magnetic Compass E – Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT) S – Safety Belts (shoulder harnesses for helos) | A-TOMATO-FLAMES

Question 62

Required equipment for night VFR flights | 14 CFR 91.205

Answer 62

F – Fuses L – Landing Light A – Anti-Collision Lights P – Position Lights S – Source of Power | FLAPS

Question 63

Required equipment for IFR flights | 14 CFR 91.205

Answer 63

G – Generator or alternator R – Radio (comms/nav) appropriate to the flight A – Attitude indicator B – Ball (inclinometer) C – Clock A – Altimeter (pressure-sensitive) R – Rate of turn indicator D – Directional gyro D – DME or RNAV (flights above FL240) | GRAB CARD (D)

Question 64

Required equipment for NVG flights | 14 CFR 91.205

Answer 64

1. Instruments and equipment specified in VFR equipment requirments 2. Night vision goggles; 3. Interior and exterior aircraft lighting system required for night vision goggle operations; 4. Two-way radio communications system; 5. Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon); 6. Generator or alternator of adequate capacity for the required instruments and equipment; and 7. Radar altimeter.

Question 65

Emergency locator transmitter charge and inspections requirements | 14 CFR 91.207

Answer 65

Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable)— * When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or * When 50 percent of their useful life has expired Each emergency locator transmitter must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection

Question 66

Aircraft lighting requirements (during the period from sunset to sunrise) | 14 CFR 91.209

Answer 66

Operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position light Park or move an aircraft in, or in dangerous proximity to, a night flight operations area of an airport unless the aircraft— * Is clearly illuminated; * Has lighted position lights; or * Is in an area that is marked by obstruction lights; Anticollision lights need NOT be lighted when the pilot-in-command determines that, because of operating conditions, it would be in the interest of safety to turn the lights off.

Question 67

Who is responsible for maintaining that aircraft are in an airworthy condition? | 14 CFR 91.403

Answer 67

The owner or operator of an aircraft

Question 68

Can a helicopter cut approach minimums? | 14 CFR 97.3 “Copter procedures”

Answer 68

For other than “copter-only” approaches, the required visibility minimum for Category I approaches may be reduced to **one-half** the published visibility minimum for Category A aircraft, but **in no case may it be reduced to less than one-quarter mile prevailing visibility, or, if reported, 1,200 feet RVR**. Reduction of visibility minima on Category II instrument approach procedures is prohibited.