Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT > Part 2: Preparing To Become An EMT > Flashcards

Part 2: Preparing To Become An EMT Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

Where is the origin of modern EMS?

A

Funeral home ambulances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The White Paper is the nickname for what document?

A

Accidental death and disability: the neglected disease of modern society (1966)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is considered the birth of modern EMS?

A

White paper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Purpose of white paper

A

Snow inadequacies of prehospital care in US (especially in trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When was The first EMT National standard curriculum developed? By who?

A

Early 1970s; US dept of transportation (DOT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When was the first EMT textbook created?

A

1970s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What EMT advances happened in 1970s

A

DOT develops first EMT NSC
First EMT Textbook (Orange Book) published
DOT publishes first paramedic NSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What EMT advances happened in 1980s?

A

AHA increased focus on CVD prevention, science, education

Additional levels of training added to existing EMT and paramedic education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What EMT advances happened in 1990s?

A

NREMT advocates for national training curriculum
NHTSA begins work on “EMS agenda for the future” document
Increased public access and layperson AED use/training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which organization created EMS agenda for The future?

A

National Highway Transportation Safety Administration (NHTSA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What new curriculum did the NHTSA develop in the 2000s to replace EMT NSC

A

National Emergency Medical Services Education Standards (NEMSES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When were the 4 levels of EMS licensure/certification created?

A

2000s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Components of EMS system (14)

A 
Public access
Clinical care
Medical direction
Integrated health services
Information systems
Prevention
Research
Communications
Human Resources
Legislation and regulation
Evaluation
Finance
Public education
Education systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enhanced 911 systems allow for what?

A

Automatic number and location identification by dispatcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Emergency Medical responder

A

Provides basic immediate care, including bleeding control, CPR, AED, and emergency childbirth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Emergency Medical technician

A

Includes all EMR skills plus: Advanced O2 and ventilation skills, pulse ox, noninvasive bp monitoring, and admin of certain meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Advanced EMT

A

Includes all EMT skills plus: advanced airways, IV and IO access, blood glucose monitoring, and admin of add’l meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Paramedic

A

Includes all preceding training levels plus: advanced assessment and management skills, various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Highest level of prehospital care

A

Paramedic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Specialty facilities

A

Stroke center, cardiac center, trauma center, denavioral center, pediatric center, obstetric center, poison center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EMT activities that are high risk to parent

A 
Transfer of patent care
Lifting and moving patients
Transporting patient in ambulance
 spinal precautions
Administration of medications
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 error types

A

Failure to perform Skills adequately
Lack of knowledge leading to poor decision making
Failure to follow established protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Medical director

A

Physician responsible for providing medical oversight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Online medical direction

A

Direct contact between physician and EMT via phone or radio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Offline medical direction

A

Written guidelines and protocol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Continuous quality improvement (cqi)

A

Continuous audit and review of all aspects of EMS system to identify areas of improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

EMT‘s safety priorities after personal safety

A

Partner then patient then bystander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

components of maintaining scene safety

A

addressing scene specific hazards
appropriate infection control precautions
safe lifting and moving techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

types of stress

A

acute, delayed, and cumulative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

acute stress

A

immediate physiological and psychological reaction to specific event; fight or flight reaction triggered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

delayed stress

A

stress reaction that develops after the stressful event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

PTSD is an example of which type of stress

A

delayed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cumulative stress

A

the result of exposure to exposure to stressful situations over a prolonged period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

critical incident stress management (CISM)

A

a formalized process to help emergency workers deal with stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

defusing session

A

CISM session held within 4 hours of incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

debriefing session

A

CISM session held 24 to 72 hours after incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

stages of grief

A
  1. denial
  2. anger
  3. bargaining
  4. depression
  5. acceptance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

infectious diseases are caused by…

A

invading pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which type of infections respond to antibiotics? which are antibiotic-resistant?

A

bacterial; viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

OSHA

A

occupational safety and health administration; oversees regulations concerning workplace safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

standard precautions

A

safety precautions to be implemented for all patient contacts, based on the assumption that all body fluids pose the risk of infection

42
Q

standard precautions

A

safety precautions to be implemented for all patient contacts ,

43
Q

single most important way to prevent spread of infection

A

handwashing

44
Q

ppe

A

equipment and supplies necessary to implement standard precautions for a specific for a specific patient encounter

45
Q

minimum PPE

A

gloves and eye protection should be used during any patient contact situation

46
Q

expanded PPE for significant contact with body fluid

A

disposable gown and mask

47
Q

expanded PPE for suspected airborne disease exposure

A

high-efficiency particulate air mask or N-95 respirator

48
Q

recommended immunizations and vaccines for EMTs

A 
regular TB testing
hepatitis B vaccination series
tetanus shot
flu vaccine
MMR vaccine
varicella vaccine
49
Q

power lift

A

keep object close to body, use legs to lift, use power grip with palms up and all fingers wrapped around the object

50
Q

emergency moves

A

used when scene is dangerous and patient must be moved before providing patient care; armpit-forearm drag, shirt drag, blanket drag

51
Q

urgent moves

A

used when patient has potentially life-threatening injuries or illness and must be moved quickly for evaluation and transport; rapid extrication

52
Q

rapid extrication

A

urgent move used for patients in motor vehicle; requires multiple rescuers and a long backboard
patient is rotated onto backboard with manual c-spine precautions and removed from vehicle

53
Q

non-urgent moves

A

used when there are no hazards and no life-threatening conditions apparent; direct ground lift, extremity lift, direct carry method, and draw sheet method

54
Q

wheeled stretcher

A

stretcher that secures in ambulance for transport; usually safest way to move patient; most models can accommodate at least 300 pound; newer models have automated lift system

55
Q

portable stretcher

A

lightweight and compact stretcher that allows more accessibility than wheeled stretchers

56
Q

stair chair

A

patient movement device that works well for staircases and small elevators; does not allow manual c-spine protection, CPR, or artificial ventilation

57
Q

backboard

A

lightweight patient movement device; allows CPR, artificial ventilation, and c-spine immobilization; requires 4 person lift

58
Q

scoop stretcher

A

patient movement device; separates into 2 long pieces; allows easy positioning with minimal patient movement; good for reducing patient discomfort

59
Q

neonatal isolette

A

movement device to keep neonatal patients warm during transport

60
Q

special considerations for patients with skeletal abnormalities

A

patients with unusual curvature of spine, such as kyphosis or lordosis, may not be capable of lying supine without special padding

61
Q

special considerations for transporting pregnant patients in later stages of pregnancy

A

they should not be layed supine; place them on their left side

62
Q

how to transport pregnant patient with possible cervical spine trauma

A

lay them on their back on a backboard and tilt backboard to the left about 20 degrees

63
Q

when can medical restraints be used

A

if patient poses a significant, immediate threat to you, your partner, or others

64
Q

use of force doctrine

A

the emt must act reasonably to prevent harm to a patient being forcibly restrained; use of force should be protective, not punitive

65
Q

scope of practice

A

the actions a provider is legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level

66
Q

standard of care

A

the degree of care a reasonable person with similar training would provide in a similar situation

67
Q

types of consent

A 
informed consent
expressed consent
implied consent
minor consent
involuntary consent
68
Q

informed consent

A

required of all alert and competent patients;

patient must be informed of your care plan and associated risks of accepting or refusing care and transport

69
Q

expressed consent

A

requires the patient to be alert and competent;
can be given verbally or nonverbally
to obtain consent for basic assessments/procedures

70
Q

implied consent

A

assumed consent for emergency care from an unresponsive or incompetent patient;
can also be used to treat a patient who initially refused care but later lost consciousness

71
Q

minor consent

A

because minors are not competent to accept or refuse care, consent is required from parent or guardian;
implied consent can be used if unable to reach parent or guardian and treatment is needed;
not required for emancipated minors

72
Q

involuntary consent

A

used for mentally incompetent adults or those in custody of law enforcement

73
Q

advanced directives

A

written instructions, signed by patient, specifying patient’s wishes regarding treatment and resuscitative efforts;
DNRs an Living Wills

74
Q

DNR (Do Not Resuscitate)

A

type of advanced directive specific to resuscitation efforts; do not affect treatment prior to patient entering cardiac arrest

75
Q

Living Will

A

type of advanced directive that addresses health-care wishes prior to entering cardiac arrest; includes use of advanced airways, ventilators, feeding tubes, etc; broader than DNR

76
Q

Good Samaritan Laws

A

laws designed to protect some who renders care as long as he or she is not being compensated and gross negligence is not committed

77
Q

criminal law

A

government entity vs a person; includes assault and battery

78
Q

assault

A

if you inflict harm on someone or even if someone perceives that you intended to inflict harm on them

79
Q

battery

A

physically touching another person without their consent

80
Q

civil law

A

individual (plaintiff) sues EMT (defendant); plaintiff seeks monetary compensation

81
Q

reasons for civil lawsuits against EMT

A

negligence, abandonment, false imprisonment, hospital destination, patient refusals

82
Q

negligence

A

unintentional harm to the patient

83
Q

4 things plaintiff must prove for negligence suit

A

duty to act, breech of duty, damage, causation

84
Q

duty to act

A

obligation to respond and provide care

85
Q

breech of duty

A

failure to assess, treat, or transport patient according to standard of care

86
Q

damage

A

Plaintiff experiences damage or injury by legal system as worthy of compensation

87
Q

causation

A

injury to plaintiff was, at least in part, directly due to EMTs breech of duty

88
Q

gross negligence

A

an indifference to, and violation of, a legal responsibility; reckless patient care that is clearly dangerous to patient

89
Q

abandonment

A

termination of care without transferring the patient to an equal or higher medical authority

90
Q

false imprisonment

A

transporting a competent patient without consent

91
Q

times when EMT can release confidential patient info without consent

A

info is necessary for continuity of care
info is necessary to facilitate billing for services
EMT has received valid subpoena
reporting possible crimes, abuse, assault, neglect, certain injuries, or communicable diseases

92
Q

HIPAA

A

federal law established 1996 that improves privacy protection of patient health care records

93
Q

2 acts that guarantee public access to emergency care and stop inappropriate transfer of patient (Patient dump)

A

COBRA and EMTALA

94
Q

presumptive signs of death

A

indicate need to b begin resuscitation; include unresponsiveness, pulselessness, apnea

95
Q

definitive/obvious signs of death

A

indicate that resuscitation should not be initiated; decomposition, rigor mortis, dependent lividity, decapitation

96
Q

decomposition

A

physical decay of body components

97
Q

rigor mortis

A

stiffening of body after death

98
Q

dependent lividity

A

settling of blood within body

99
Q

decapitation

A

patients head is no longer attached to body

100
Q

when must law enforcement or medical examiner be notified at the scene?

A

any scene where patient is dead on arrival, suicide attempts, assault or sexual assault, child or elder abuse, suspected crime scene, childbirth

101
Q

bioethics

A

ethical issues related to healthcare

101
Q

bioethics

A

ethical issues related to healthcare

EMT (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions