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Women's Health > Part 2 > Flashcards

Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

time frame of childbirth considered premature

A

20-37 weeks

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2
Q

1 cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality

A

prematurity

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3
Q

cervical changes without uterine contractions are typically d/t

A

cervical insufficiency

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4
Q

cervical insufficiency definition

A

painless shortening or dilation of the cervix that occurs in the second or early 3rd trimester and results in preterm birth

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5
Q

cervical insufficiency is related to _____% of second trimester miscarriages

A

25%

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6
Q

cervical insufficiency is associated with what possible pathologies?

A

uterine anomalies DES exposure Cervical procedures (ie: conization)

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7
Q

what is cervical cerclage?

A

treatment for cervical insufficiency in which stitches are used to close the cervix during pregnancy in order to help prevent pregnancy loss or premature birth

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8
Q

When is cerclage done, removed, and who can’t get it?

A
  • done around weeks 14-16
  • removed around weeks 36-38
  • ineligible if the mother has cervicitis, dilation > 4 cm, or if the membranes have already ruptured
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9
Q

what are braxton hicks contractions?

A

contractions that occur without causing cervical changes
painless contractions that are felt as tightening or pressure and
last 10-20 minutes
aka false labor
usually get better with walking/activity

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10
Q

how many contractions are needed in order for cervical change to occur

A

> 4/hour

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11
Q

what are contractions felt as?

A

abdominal tightening, low back pain, or pelvic pressure

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12
Q

in order to be termed “preterm labor” what must be present?

A

contractions that are causing cervical effacement or dilation

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13
Q

what is the cause of preterm labor?

A

no idea

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14
Q

what are some risk factors for preterm labor?

A
  • Smoking
  • Cocaine
  • Uterine malformation
  • Cervical incompetence
  • Infection (STI, Group B Strep, UTI/Pyelo)
  • Low pre-pregnancy weight of mother
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15
Q

what are some complications of preterm labor for the mother and fetus?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes
  • Infection
  • PROM
  • Abruptio placentae
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16
Q

delivery of a baby

A

at a hospital with a NICU

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17
Q

cervical changes associated with preterm labor

A
  • Dilation of > 2 cm at presentation
  • Dilation of > 1 cm at serial exams
  • Effacement > 80% (2 cm)
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18
Q

what are some late symptoms of preterm labor?

A
  • Bloody mucus vaginal discharge (“bloody show”)

- Contractions, pressure, cramps, and low back pain

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19
Q

what cervical length (found on US) increases the risk of preterm labor?

A

cervical length of 2 cm at 24 weeks

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20
Q

what is significant about Fetal Fibronectin found in cervical/vaginal secretions?

A

if present, the risk raises for delivery of the fetus within 2 weeks

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21
Q

If cervical length is less than 4 cm and Fetal Fibronectin is absent =

A

50% chance of delivery before 34 weeks

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22
Q

If cervical length is 4 cm and Fetal Fibronectin is absent =

A

11% chance of delivery before 34 weeks

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23
Q

3 reasons to get amniocentesis for diagnosis of preterm labor

A

obtain lung maturity if estimated gestation date is uncertain
if you suspect chorioamnionitis
if the fetus is > 34 weeks gestation

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24
Q

how is preterm labor managed?

A

Decisions are made based on estimated gestation date, estimated weight of the fetus, and existence of contraindications to suppressing preterm labor

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25
Q

antibiotics given for Group B Strep

A

Penicillin or Ampicillin

Cefazolin, clindamycin, erythromycin or vanco if PCN-Allergy

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26
Q

when do you stop antibiotics for Group B Strep?

A

if the re-test in 5 weeks is negative

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27
Q

what do you give to help the fetus develop it’s lungs?

A

steroids

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28
Q

what are tocolytics?

A

drugs that stop contractions

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29
Q

what is the goal of using tocolytics in regards to preterm labor?

A
  • short term goal is to continue the pregnancy for 48 hours after steroid use to ensure lung maturity and viability
  • long term goal is to continue the pregnancy past 34-36 weeks when fetal morbidity and mortality decrease
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30
Q

who is considered for the use of tocolytics in preterm labor?

A

mother’s with cervical dilation less than 5

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31
Q

what is considered “successful” tocolytic use?

A

when contractions fall to less than 4 to 6 per hr

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32
Q

tocolytic: magnesium sulfate -side effects -signs of toxicity -treatment of toxicity -begin use when

A

-Side effects:
nausea, fatigue, muscle weakness
-Signs of Magnesium toxicity:
decreased reflexes, respiratory depression, cardiac collapse
-Treat toxicity with calcium gluconate
-Begin when preterm birth is expected within 2-24 hours, gestational age confirmed between 24-32 weeks, and when any contraindications to Magnesium have been ruled out

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33
Q

tocolytic: CCBs (Nifedipine) -how does it work? -side effects

A
  • inhibit calcium uptake into uterine muscle cells (via voltage-dependent channels) which reduces uterine contractility and relaxes uterine muscles
  • SEs: hypotension, tachycardia
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34
Q

tocolytic: beta-mimetic adrenergic agents -action -side effects -used only to -drug used and how

A
  • Direct action on beta 2 receptors to relax uterus
  • Severe side effects - dose related cardiovascular effects (pulmonary edema, adult RDS, elevated SBP, reduced DBP, tachycardia)
  • Used only to stabilize and triage until other tx determined
  • Terbutaline: Not FDA approved; Use subcutaneous boluses only in an inpatient setting for max of 48-72 hrs
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35
Q

tocolytic: prostaglandin synthase inhibitors -drug name -MOA -fetal side effects -requires you to check for -limited use for who

A
  • Indomethacin
  • Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis (prostaglandin is a mediator of uterine muscle contractility)
  • Serious fetal effects: Oligohydramnios, Premature closure of ductus arteriosus (PDA), Intracranial hemorrhage
  • Requires US every 48-72 hrs to check for oligohydramnios
  • Limited to
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36
Q

when is a cesarian used in preterm labor?

A

For borderline cases (23-24 wks and 500-600g wt) - regard the parents’ wishes

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37
Q

how is preterm labor prevented?

A
  • Avoid risk factors
  • Administer Progestin if mother has a prior history of preterm labor _ Weekly IM injections of 17-alpha hydroxyprogesterone caproate from 16-36 weeks decreases risk of recurrence by 30% _ Vaginal suppositories may reduce the risk of short cervix
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38
Q

what is a cesarian?

A

-Delivery of fetus, placenta, and membranes through an abdominal and uterine incision -Indicated in cases where vaginal delivery is either not feasible or would impose undue risks to the mother or baby

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39
Q

risk of cesarian

A

-Thromboembolus -Excessive bleeding -Infection -Fetal tachypnea -Fetal hemorrhage and hypoxia w/placenta transected

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40
Q

why are cesarian rates increasing?

A

-Lower rates of vaginal births after C-section (VBAC) (1/3 of caesarians) -Lower operative vaginal delivery rates (vacuum, forceps, or suction) in regards to dystocia or failure to progress and fetal distress -Fewer vaginal breech deliveries -basically we’re getting wimpy, and when complications arise we find it easier just to cut the woman open

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41
Q

what are the 3 P’s that must be adequate in order for a vaginal delivery to occur?

A

power passenger pelvis

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42
Q

what is labor dystocia?

A

labor progresses and then either stops completely (arrests) or becomes prolonged (protracted)

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43
Q

the fetal head is too large to pass through the pelvis when (3 disproportions)

A

-Inlet disproportion - in the primigravida - patient begins labor with the fetal head unengaged -Midpelvic disproportion - if the anteroposterior diameter is short, the ischial spines are prominent, or the sacrospinous ligament is short -Outlet disproportion - usually requires a trial of forceps or vacuum before a safe vaginal delivery is determined to be impossible

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44
Q

other reasons for cesarian

A

-fetal heart rate abnormalities (decelerations are bad) -transverse lie or breech presentation -Placenta previa -Preeclampsia/eclampsia -Placental abruption -Multiple gestations -Fetal abnormalities -Cervical cancer -Active genital herpes infection

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45
Q

success of a vaginal birth after cesarian (VBAC) depends on -dystocia -mal-presentation -uterine rupture

A

how many they’ve had before and why they needed them -Dystocia - lower rate of successful VBAC -Mal-presentation - higher rate of VBAC success -Uterine rupture rate (weakened wall) after low transverse incision is low, but can lead to death of fetus and morbidity/mortality of the mother

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46
Q

best candidates for VBAC

A

-1 prior low-transverse caesarean section -Those who present in labor -Those with nonrecurring conditions (eg: no breech, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, or placenta previa in prior pregnancy) -Those with a prior vaginal delivery

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47
Q

who cannot get a VBAC

A

-Prior classical (vertical) uterine incision -Prior myomectomy

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48
Q

cesarian incision

A

-A low transverse (Pfannenstiel) uterine incision is usually made in an effort to decrease blood loss, ease repair, and decrease the risk of rupture vs vertical incision (also better for cosmetic purposes)

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49
Q

complications of cesarian

A

-postpartum hemorrhage -endometritis (prophylactic ABX often used to avoid this) -wound infection -incision healing

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50
Q

what is an episiotomy

A

laceration used to help ease of a vaginal delivery

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51
Q

what does an episiotomy increase the risk of?

A

postpartum incontinence

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52
Q

why are episiotomies recommended?

A
  • If extensive vaginal tearing appears likely -Infant is in an abnormal position -Infant is large (fetal macrosomia) -Infant needs to be delivered quickly
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53
Q

what are the 2 episiotomy incision options and their pros/cons?

A

-Midline or median: done vertically; is the easiest to repair but has a higher risk of extending into the anal area -Mediolateral: done at an angle; offers the best protection from an extended tear affecting the anal area, but is often more painful and may be more difficult to repair

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54
Q

what can be done to decrease the need for an episiotomy?

A

-Perineal massage, either antepartum or during the second stage of labor, can decrease muscular resistance and reduce the likelihood of laceration -Use of warm compresses on the perineum during pushing can reduce third-degree and fourth-degree lacerations

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55
Q

first degree laceration

A

Injury to perineal skin only

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56
Q

second degree laceration

A

Injury to perineum involving muscles but not the anal sphincter

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57
Q

third degree laceration

A

Injury to perineum involving the anal sphincter complex

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58
Q

IIIa degree laceration

A

Less than 50% of external sphincter torn

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59
Q

IIIb degree laceration

A

More than 50% of external sphincter torn

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60
Q

IIIc degree laceration

A

Both external sphincter and internal anal sphincter torn

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61
Q

fourth degree laceration

A

Injury to the perineum involving the anal sphincter complex (external and internal sphincters) and anal epithelium

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62
Q

natural labor pain management (3)

A

-Lamaze -Hypnosis -Relaxation/meditation

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63
Q

things to think about when administering pharmacological pain relief to the mother during labor…

A

-All analgesics cross the placenta -Systemic medications produce higher maternal and fetal blood levels than regionally administered drugs -Many drugs have central nervous system depressant effects -While they may have the desired effect on the mother, they also may exert a mild to severe depressant effect on the fetus or newborn

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64
Q

what class of drugs are commonly used in the first stage of labor because they produce both a state of analgesia and mood elevation?

A

narcotics

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65
Q

narcotic: Codeine

A

60mg IM

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66
Q

narcotic: Meperidine

A

50-100mg IM (or 25-50mg IV titration)

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67
Q

narcotic: Fentanyl

A

PO or Epidural

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68
Q

narcotic: Sufentanil

A

-Derivative of Fentanyl with increased potency and lipophilicity -Widely used for intrathecal and epidural analgesia during labor

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69
Q

narcotic: Remifentanil

A

-Newer ultra-short-acting synthetic opioid with rapid onset (~1 min) -Rapidly metabolized by nonspecific blood and tissue (not renally or hepatically - so it does no accumulate in the fetus)

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70
Q

narcotic: Butorphanol (Stadol)

A

-1-2 mg IV or IM every 3-4 hours -Onset of analgesia is within a few minutes -Less respiratory depression compared with an equivalent dose of Morphine

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71
Q

narcotic: Nalbuphine (Nubain)

A

-Mixed agonist.antagonist opioid similar to Butorphanol but potency is equivalent to that of Morphine (mg:mg)

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72
Q

narcotic: Propofol

A

-Ideal agent for induction of general anesthesia at a dose of 2 mg/kg -It also can be used in 10- to 20-mg increments during surgery under regional block to treat nausea and vomiting.

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73
Q

narcotic: Etomidate

A

-Rapid onset of anesthesia with minimal cardiorespiratory effects makes it ideal for those who are hemodynamically unstable -Induction dose of 0.2-0.3 mg/kg -Undergoes a rapid hydrolysis that leads to quick recovery

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74
Q

narcotic: Ketamine

A

-Stimulates the cardiovascular system to maintain heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output -Useful in the setting of major blood loss, when rapid induction of general anesthesia is required. However, it has significant hallucinogenic effects that limit its utility in obstetrics -Maternal cardiovascular status and uterine blood flow are well maintained. Effective low doses of 0.25-0.5 mg/kg but without loss of consciousness or protective reflexes -The margin of safety is narrow, so it should be used only by physicians able to easily secure and protect the airway if loss of consciousness occurs -For caesarean delivery, general anesthetic induction can be produced with 1-2 mg/kg IV

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75
Q

most commonly use inhalation anesthetics (3)

A

sevoflurane desflurane isoflurane

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76
Q

what is a regional/local anesthetic?

A

-Injection of a local anesthetic around the nerves that pass from spinal segments to the peripheral nerves responsible for sensory innervation of a portion of the body

77
Q

5 regional/local anesthetics

A

Tetracaine Lidocaine Bupivacaine Chloroprocaine Ropivacaine

78
Q

when are regional/local anesthetics used?

A

labor analgesia, caesarean delivery, and other obstetric operative procedures (eg, postpartum tubal ligation, cervical cerclage) Patient is either awake or under anesthesia

79
Q

when are regional/local anesthetics contraindicated?

A

valvular heart disease, infection, coagulopathy, hypovolemia, progressive neurologic disease, patient refusal

80
Q

most side effects of spinal or epidural anesthesia are secondary to

A

-blockage of the sympathetic nerve fibers -Physiologic regulating mechanisms are disturbed: BP, HR and contractility, vagal stimulations, shock

81
Q

Lumbar epidural block should eradicate pain between (what 2 spinal levels) for the first stage of labor and between (what 2 spinal levels) for the second stage of labor.

A

-between T10 and L1 for the first stage of labor -between T10 and S5 for the second stage of labor

82
Q

what is the anesthetic (approach) of choice for cesarian delivery?

A

subarachnoid (spinal) anesthesia

83
Q

what is a pudendal block?

A

-One of the most popular of all nerve block techniques in obstetrics -The infant is not depressed, and blood loss is minimal -Simple technique d/t location of nerve: injection of 10 mL of 1% lidocaine on each side will achieve analgesia for 30-45 minutes approximately 50% of the time

84
Q

what is the purpose of amniotic fluid?

A

acts as a cushion, protects the fetus from loss of body heat, helps lung development by breathing in fluid, allows proper bone and limb growth with movement

85
Q

when does the amount of amniotic fluid increase? when does the amount peak?

A

-increases until the beginning of the 4rd trimester -peaks around 34-26 weeks of about 1 quart

86
Q

how is the amount of amniotic fluid measured? (2 ways)

A

-Vertical pocket measurement: measure the dimensions of the largest vertical pocket of amniotic fluid -AFI (Amniotic Fluid Index): divide the uterus up into 4 quadrants using the linea nigra as the vertical axis and the umbilicus as the horizontal axis. The pocket with the largest vertical dimension is measured in each quadrant. The sum of all 4 measurements = AFI

87
Q

what is the definition of oligohydramnios? (amount based) when does it occur?

A

-Decreased amniotic fluid: a maximum vertical pocket of fluid

88
Q

what is an important sign of oligohydramnios?

A

vaginal fluid leakage

89
Q

what are some causes of oligohydramnios?

A

-IUGR -Maternal HTN/pre-eclampsia -Fetal birth defects, esp kidneys; and in multiple gestations -Maternal DM - longstanding -PROM -Uteroplacental insufficiency -Post-term pregnancy

90
Q

what are some complications of oligohydramnios early in the pregnancy?

A

-Premature birth -Birth defects - particularly MSK, IE clubfoot -Miscarriage or stillbirth

91
Q

what are some complications of oligohydramnios in the third trimester?

A

-growth deficits -umbilical cord prolapse and/or compression

92
Q

how is oligohydramnios treated?

A

-Not treated if at it occurs at the end of healthy pregnancy -Bed rest can help improve placental blood flow - side-lying is the best -If found early in pregnancy, check karyotype, look for amniotic bands -Amnioinfusion of isotonic fluid infused trans abdominally or through cervix especially helps umbilical cord compression and dilutes meconium -intensive biophysical profile surveillance -labor induction or c-section if severe

93
Q

what is polyhydramnios? when is it detected? who is it more common in?

A

-Increased amniotic fluid - vertical pocket > 8 cm or AFI > 25 cm; (usually over 2000mL) -Can be detected by 20th week, most often found at 30th week -more common with multiple gestations

94
Q

what causes polyhydramnios and what symptoms might the mother present with?

A

-Uterus grows more rapidly than it should causing unusual abdominal discomfort, increased back pain, SOB, severe feet and ankle swelling, vulvar swelling, decreased urine production

95
Q

what are some causes of polyhydramnios?

A

-Usually from pressure exerted in the uterus and on nearby organs -Birth defect in fetal GI tract or CNS -Maternal DM -Twin-twin transfusion -Fetal anemia -Blood incompatibilities

96
Q

what complications is polyhydramnios associated with?

A

-Premature birth -PROM -Macrosomia -Placental abruption -Umbilical cord prolapse -Hemorrhaging after delivery (atony) -Stillbirth

97
Q

what is the treatment for polyhydramnios?

A

-Amniocentesis for genetic evaluation or to drain excess fluid -Indomethacin which reduces fetal urine production but it isn’t recommended after 30 weeks gestation due to the risk of cardiac problems (early DA closure)

98
Q

what is Intrauterine Growth Retardation (IUGR)?

A

Estimated fetal weight less than the 10th percentile for gestational age found on US

99
Q

what is small for gestational age (SGA)?

A

applies to the infant that is less than the 10th percentile at birth

100
Q

what causes 1/3 of IUGR and is the single most preventable cause in the US?

A

SMOKING -women who smoke have a 3-4x increased risk of IUGR of the fetus

101
Q

if the mother stops smoking before ____ weeks gestation the fetus is not at an increased risk for IUGR

A

16 weeks

102
Q

genetic disorders account for _____ of IUGR

A

3-Jan

103
Q

IUGR: symmetric smallness -what % of IUGR cases -what is it -small brain due to

A

-20% -all organs are decreased proportionally -small brain due to decreased number of cells

104
Q

IUGR: asymmetric smallness -what % of IUGR cases -what is it -likely caused by -decreased brain due to

A

-80% -Organs are decreased disproportionately (abdominal circumference is affected to a greater degree than is head circumference) -Likely is caused by intrauterine deprivation that results in an increase in flow to the brain and heart at the expense of less important organs -Slightly decreased brain d/t decreased size of cells

105
Q

what is macrosomia

A

-Macrosomia represents a subset of LGA fetuses weighing >4500 g; they are >95th percentile at any gestational age -Large for Gestational Age (LGA) have EFW > 90th percentile

106
Q

what does macrosomia increase the risk of?

A

fetal morbidity

107
Q

what are some maternal and fetal causes of macrosomia?

A

-Maternal - Diabetes (gestational, chemical, or insulin-dependent), obesity, postdatism, multiparity, advanced age, previous LGA infant, large stature -Fetal - genetic or congenital disorders, male gender

108
Q

what are some complications of macrosomia?

A

-C-section, post-partum hemorrhage, shoulder dystocia, perineal trauma, operative vaginal delivery, stillbirth, low apgar score, neonatal hypoglycemia, jaundice, or feeding difficulties

109
Q

how is macrosomia treated/prevented?

A

-Early detection of RFs -Monitor postprandial glucose levels -Regular aerobic exercise

110
Q

what is a prolapsed umbilical cord? what can it cause?

A

-Descent of the umbilical cord into the lower uterine segment; most occur during labor as the cervix dilates -Exposes the cord to intermittent compression between the presenting part and the pelvic inlet, cervix, or vaginal canal. -Compromises fetal circulation and, depending on the duration and intensity, may lead to fetal hypoxia, brain damage, and death

111
Q

cord prolapse is considered an obstetric _____

A

emergency

112
Q

what are some causes of cord prolapse?

A

-Prematurity (

113
Q

how is cord prolapse treated?

A

-Considered a high risk pregnancy -Continuous FHR monitoring during labor -Avoid artificial ROM until presenting part at/in cervix -At normal ROM, carefully check for prolapse -Amniotomy and slow release of fluid until presenting part engaged at cervix -Caesarian section is usual preferred route of delivery

114
Q

what is overt cord prolapse?

A

associated with rupture of membranes and displacement of the umbilical cord into the vagina, often through the introitus

115
Q

overt cord prolapse: -cord exposure causes: -perinatal mortality rate: -treatment:

A

-exposure of the umbilical cord to air causes irritation and cooling of the cord, resulting in further vasospasm of the cord vessels -perinatal mortality rate approaches 20%. Prematurity, itself a contributor to prolapse, accounts for much of this perinatal loss -Abdominal delivery ASAP

116
Q

what is occult cord prolapse?

A

cord may lie adjacent to the presenting part cannot be palpated during pelvic exam

117
Q

occult cord prolapse: -may be indicated by what? -place patient in what position? -treatment options:

A

-may be indicated by FHR decelerations during labor -place patient in lateral Sims or Trendelenburg -amnioinfusion may decrease incidence of decelerations -if cord compression persists C-section should be done

118
Q

what is funic cord presentation?

A

cord lies below the presenting part; the cord often can be easily palpated through the membranes

119
Q

treatment of funic cord presentation -at term -preterm

A

-At term should be delivered by caesarean section prior to rupture of membranes -If premature, no consensus; -Conservative approach - hospitalize the patient on bed rest in the Sims or Trendelenburg position in an attempt to reposition the cord -Serial US examinations to ascertain cord position, presentation, and gestational age

120
Q

what is the preferred method of delivery for a previable or dead fetus?

A

vaginal delivery

121
Q

cord compression -good prognosis if: -poor outcome if:

A

-Good prognosis if the diagnosis is made early and the duration of complete cord occlusion is

122
Q

trisomy -may occur with which chromosomes -3 most common -others occur with who -the larger the chromosome involved, the

A

-may occur with any chromosome -3 most common: 13, 18, and 21 -other trisomies occur in pregnancies associated with older women -the larger the chromosome involved, the more severe the syndrome

123
Q

trisomies can be indicated on the triple screen which are what 3 tests?

A

maternal AFP, hCG, and unconjugated estriol (uE3)

124
Q

most frequent trisomy

A

trisomy 21: Down Syndrome

125
Q

trisomy 21 -involves the smallest chromosome and so: -triple screen levels -often to born to what age mothers -characteristics

A

-involves the smallest chromosome and so the problems are the least severe and moderate life expectancy is anticipated -low AFP, low uE3, and high hCG -often born to teenage mothers or mothers > 35

126
Q

trisomy 18 -aka -triple screen levels -characteristics

A

-Trisomy E: the “E” syndrome, Edward’s syndrome -Low values across all of the triple screen serum markers (low maternal AFP, low uE3, and low hCG) -Characteristics: severe mental retardation, long narrow skull with prominent occiput, congenital heart disease, flexion deformities of fingers, narrow palpebral fissures, low-set ears, harelip and cleft palate. Low birth weight and characteristic dermatoglyphics (6 - 10 arches on fingertips and single transverse palmar creases in 30%)

127
Q

trisomy 13 -aka -characteristics

A

-Trisomy D: the “D1” syndrome, Patau syndrome -Characteristics: severe mental retardation, congenital heart disease (77%), polydactyly, cerebral malformations (especially aplasia of olfactory bulbs), eye defects, low-set ears, cleft lip and palate, low birth weight. Characteristic dermatoglyphic pattern (Excess of arches on fingertips and single transverse palmar creases in 60%)

128
Q

what are the 3 most common neural tube defects?

A

anencephaly spina bifida meningomyelocele

129
Q

what lab detects ~85% of all open neural tube defects?

A

serum AFP level > 3 standard deviations above normal

130
Q

what does serum AFP not detect in term of neural tube defects?

A

skin-covered or closed form neural tube defects

131
Q

cystic fibrosis -caused by -dysfunction of ______ leading to what symptoms? -most common fatal hereditary disorder of who -diagnosis

A

-deletion of phenylalanine at position 508 of the CFTR gene on chromosome 7 -dysfunction of exocrine glands interferes with chloride transport and water movement across epithelial cells, causing buildup of thick secretions that obstruct glands and ducts in multiple organs (esp lungs and digestive), and subsequent damage to exocrine cells -most common fatal hereditary disorder of white in the US -Diagnosis requires positive “sweat test” (pilocarpine iontophoresis test) OR documented CF in sibling or first cousin OR positive newborn test

132
Q

gestational trophoblastic disease -group of interrelated diseases resulting in -where do the tumor cells originate -benign or malignant -4 major groups

A

-group of interrelated diseases resulting in abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue inside the uterus -tumors start in the trophoblastic cells around an embryo, that would normally develop into the placenta -most are benign -4 major groups: -Hyaditaform mole (molar pregnancy) -Invasive mole -Choriocarcinoma -Placental site trophoblastic tumor

133
Q

most common form of gestational trophoblastic disease?

A

hyaditaform molar pregnancy

134
Q

hyaditaform molar pregnancy -complete -partial (incomplete) -manifestations -labs -diagnosis

A

-complete: fertilization of an empty ovum by a normal sperm; 20% progress to malignancy -partial (incomplete): when 2 sperm fertilize a normal ovum at the same time; non-viable fetus is present; 5% progress to malignancy -manifestations: painless, irregular, or heavy bleeding early in the pregnancy; PE shows molar clusters (grape-like clusters) protruding into the vagina -labs: complete molar if hCG > 100,000 -US: no fetal heart tones, cluster patterns -diagnosis: microscopically identified by 3 classic findings: edema of the villous stroma, avascular villi, and nests of proliferating trophoblastic elements surrounding the villi

135
Q

what maternally expressed gene can be screened for and will help in determining complete from partial hyaditaform malor pregnancy?

A

p57 immunohistochemistry straining for PHLDA2 -absent in complete moles, present in partial moles

136
Q

how is a molar pregnancy treated?

A

-Complete removal of uterine contents -Monitor beta-hCG levels for 1 year to ID invasive moles -Some treat empirically with chemo -Avoid pregnancy for 1 year after “full remission”

137
Q

what is an invasive mole? who gets them? what can it cause?

A

-Malignancy where molar villi and trophoblasts penetrate the myometrium -10-15% who had hyaditaform mole -Can cause subsequent uterine rupture and hemoperitoneum -has the ability to spontaneously regress

138
Q

what is a choriocarcinoma? who gets them? how does it present? what must be examined?

A

-Pure epithelial tumor -50% follow a molar pregnancy; 2-5% are malignant -Usually presents as late vaginal bleeding in the postpartum period. An enlarged uterus, enlarged ovaries, and vaginal lesions may be noted during exam -No villi in histologic exam; may have small, isolated areas in sample, so entire curettage must be examined

139
Q

what is a placental site trophoblastic tumor? where is the tumor? what is secreted?

A

rare malignant tumor that may be found months to years following a molar or normal pregnancy tumor is usually confined to the uterus human placental lactogen is secreted and it’s level can be monitored to follow response to therapy

140
Q

all gestational trophoblastic trophoblastic tumors have increased levels of what?

A

hCG

141
Q

diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic tumors can be done by what imaging technique and lab level?

A

-hCG is the tumor marker -US

142
Q

how is gestational trophoblastic disease treated?

A

-malignant = chemo -low-risk metastasis = chemo -high-risk metastasis = chemo +/- radiation; possible suction curettage and hysterectomy

143
Q

what cardiac conditions in the mother predict a high-risk pregnancy and so you should advise against pregnancy?

A

-pulmonary hypertension -cardiomyopathies with decrease ejection fractions -Marfan’s (dilated aorta) -Coarctation of the aorta

144
Q

prognostic indicators to predict cardiac events in pregnancy -NOPE

A

-New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional class _II (or cyanosis) -Outlet obstruction of the left heart -Prior cardiac event (heart failure, arrhythmia, stroke) -Ejection fraction

145
Q

maternal valve disorders and pregnancy -Mitral stenosis -Mitral regurge -MVP -Aortic stenosis

A

Mitral stenosis -most common seen in pregnancy -Risk of heart failure increases progressively -Goals to prevent fluid overload, tachycardia and A-fib Mitral regurg -Generally well tolerated; watch for CHF, A-fib MVP -Generally well tolerated, unless mod-severe MR exist -Some should have valve repair before pregnancy -Anticoagulation a problem after prosthetic valves Aortic stenosis -Pregnancy may be contraindicated due to increased hemodynamic demands and limited CO and perfusion. Indications for valve replcmt after 20 wks possible. -Mild - mod dz w/o sxs can be managed expectantly, restricted activity -Watch for increased CP, syncope and CHF; decreased carotid pulse

146
Q

what is peripartum cardiomyopathy -def? -diagnosed when? -what about the baby? -how long does it last?

A

-A dilated cardiomyopathy of unknown cause -It usually is diagnosed during late pregnancy or in the 4-5 months after delivery with the finding of left ventricular systolic dysfunction in a woman with no history of cardiac disease -Babies should be delivered after stabilization of the mother -Cardiac function normalizes within 6 months of delivery in approximately half of patients

147
Q

treatment of UTI and acute cystitis during pregnancy

A

-Nitrofurantoin, or a cephalosporin for 5-14 days -Urine culture after treatment -Persistent bacteriuria after 2 or more courses of therapy = Nitrofurantoin (50-100 mg PO at bedtime) for the duration of the pregnancy

148
Q

treatment of pyelonephritis during pregnancy

A

-A first-generation cephalosporin such as cefazolin IV usually is effective -Ceftriaxone IV is effective for most Enterobacteriaceae -When the patient is afebrile for 48 hours, change IV ABX to PO ABX - total treatment of 14 days -If no clinical response is seen in 48-72 hours, a resistant organism can be treated by adding an aminoglycoside such as gentamicin - also do US exam of kidneys and urinary tract -Recurrent bacteriuria and pyelo can occur – suppressive therapy with nitrofurantoin 100 mg orally at bedtime, or a similar regimen, is continued during the pregnancy and during the puerperium, often for 6 weeks

149
Q

hyperemesis gravidarum -what is it -symptom onset -treatment -maternal complications

A

-Unexplained intractable nausea, retching, or vomiting beginning in the first trimester, resulting in dehydration, ketonuria, and typically a weight loss of more than 5% of prepregnancy weight -Symptoms typically start between 3 and 5 weeks of pregnancy and 80% resolve by 20 weeks -Treatment includes avoidance of noxious stimuli, medications to relieve nausea and vomiting, hydration, and possibly hospitalization -Maternal complication can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, acute tubular necrosis, central pontine myelinolysis, Mallory-Weiss tear of the esophagus, pneumomediastinum, and splenic avulsion

150
Q

PUD -incidence and severity during pregnancy as compared to not pregnant -testing -treatment -what if they have H pylori?

A

-Incidence and severity decrease during pregnancy, whereas symptoms of dyspepsia may be increased -Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is generally considered as safe during pregnancy and is recommended for the evaluation of PUD when symptoms are severe and nonresponsive to medical therapy -Avoid symptom-provoking foods, using antacids and sucralfate. -For persistent sxs, an H2 antagonist (cimetidine or ranitidine) can be given. -With continued symptoms, a PPI such as lansoprazole can be added to the drug regimen. -Can treat for H. Pylori in pregnancy

151
Q

acute fatty liver of pregnancy -when does it occur? -symptoms? -labs -lethal complication -treatment

A

-Rare complication of the 3rd trimester of pregnancy involving acute hepatic failure (usually ~36 weeks) -Symptoms include malaise, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, headache, or jaundice -Laboratory abnormalities include thrombocytopenia, elevated transaminases, hyperuricemia, and elevated creatinine. Additionally, hyperbilirubinemia, hypoglycemia, and hyperammonemia are found -Pancreatitis can be lethal complication -Stabilize mom, supportive therapy based on labs, hydration, blood needs; then deliver based on gestational age. Mother mortality 10%, fetal 23%.

152
Q

atopic dermatitis (eczema) -better or worse with pregnancy? -why? -treatment?

A

-commonly exacerbated in pregnancy -Estrogen and progesterone modulate immune and inflammatory cell functions, including mast cell secretion -treatment w/ topical corticosteroids or systemic antihistamines. Oral prednisone may be needed

153
Q

what is granuloma gravidarum?

A

aka pyogenic granuloma: a vascular tumor that occurs in 2% of patients between the

154
Q

PUPPP: Pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy -most common cause of -symptoms -how long do they last? -treatment?

A

-most common pruritic dermatosis unique to pregnancy -symptoms: Pruritic, erythematous papules that coalesce into plaques forming usually after the 34th week of gestation. A halo may surround plaques -They may disappear completely within 2 weeks after delivery - treatment with antihistamines, topical steroids, and antipruritic medications; oral corticosteroids for extreme pruritus unresponsive to initial treatment

155
Q

intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy -results in -when does it arise? -who is it more prevalent in? -causes increased risk of? -testing -treatment/resolution

A

-results in pruritis and secondary skin lesions -arises after 30 weeks gestation -more prevalent in south american and Scandinavian populations -causes increased risk of preterm birth and stillbirth -test with fetal surveillance twice/week with fetal non-stress test and/or a biophysical profile -treatment = deliver child at 37-38 weeks; resolves several days later

156
Q

most common complication of pre-eclampsia

A

hyperthyroid

157
Q

hyperthyroid when pregnant -treatment choices -who should remain on therapy throughout pregnancy?

A

-propylthiouracil and methimazole -dose is gradually reduced as improvement occurs -Women with large goiters, long-standing hyperthyroidism, or significant eye involvement should remain on treatment throughout pregnancy

158
Q

mild hyperthyroidism is associated with _____ and usually resolves by _____ -treatment

A

mild hyperthyroidism is associated with transient hyperthyroidism of hyperemesis gravidarum usually resolves by 20 weeks’ gestation Tx is symptomatic; antithyroid medication is not recommended

159
Q

hypothyroid: -symptoms: -sxs may be masked by: -which labs when? -treatment? -complications

A

-elevated TSH and low free T4 -sxs: modest weight gain, fatigue, sleepiness, lethargy, decreased exercise capacity, depression, and cold intolerance (very unusual in normal pregnancy) -sxs may be masked by hypermetabolic state of pregnancy -eval maternal TSH levels at every trimester -treatment: L-thyroxine early morning on an empty stomach -complications: 2x rate of spontaneous abortion, lower IQ, increased risk of pre-eclampsia, placental abruption, IUGR, and IU fetal demise

160
Q

postpartum thyroiditis -diagnosed when? -who’s at high risk to develop this? -symptoms? -onset -treatment? -positive correlation between postpartum thyroiditis and ______

A

-diagnosed when TSH is elevated or depressed in the YEAR AFTER delivery -high risk women = high thyroid antibodies or type 1 diabetics -symptoms: fatigue, palpitations, heat intolerance, nervousness -onset: abrupt; goiter may be present -treatment: limited to symptomatic patients only; Beta-Blockers if in hyperthyroid phase; Levothyroxine if in hypothyroid phase -positive correlation between postpartum thyroiditis and postpartum depression

161
Q

carpal tunnel and pregnancy

A

-Symptoms at night -Usually best treated conservatively with elevation of the affected wrist and splinting -Usually abates postpartum

162
Q

compression of femoral or obturator nerve during pregnancy

A

-Most commonly related to pressure of the fetus just before and during vaginal delivery -Can occur from retraction during caesarean delivery or hysterectomy

163
Q

bell’s palsy during pregnancy

A

-Approximately one-fifth of cases of Bell’s palsy occur during pregnancy or shortly after -Treatment with prednisone 40-60 mg/d and acyclovir is helpful if given within 1 week of onset

164
Q

migraine headaches during pregnancy

A

-Chronic migraine headaches decrease during pregnancy in 50-80% of affected patients -Women with classic migraine (migraine with aura) may experience their initial onset during pregnancy -Preferred abortive medications during pregnancy include APAP, APAP w/ codeine, or magnesium -NSAIDs should not be used for prolonged periods and should be avoided in the third trimester because of possible oligohydramnios or premature closure of the ductus arteriosus -Prophylactic medications should be used if abortive therapy is only partially effective and if disabling migraines are occurring more than once per week -Options include beta mimetic blockers, low-dose TCAs, CCBs, magnesium, riboflavin (Vit B2), and topiramate (Topamax) -Valproic acid or divalproate should be avoided in pregnancy

165
Q

epilepsy during pregnancy

A

The onset of epilepsy is not increased during pregnancy -More than 95% of patients who have seizures during pregnancy have a history of epilepsy -Antiepileptic drugs and seizures can negatively affect a fetus -Seizures can cause maternal and fetal injury, spontaneous abortion, premature labor, and fetal bradycardia -Mothers with frequent seizures must be counseled on seizure and infant safety

166
Q

anemia definition

A

-A hemoglobin concentration of

167
Q

pregnant women with a history of iron deficiency anemia should be prescribed

A

at least 60 mg/d of elemental iron

168
Q

anemia during pregnancy most commonly results from

A

nutritional deficiency (iron or folate)

169
Q

anemia treatment during pregnancy

A

Ferrous sulfate 300 mg given TID -hemoglobin levels should increase by at least 0.3g/dL/wk -administer with citrus juice to help absorption

170
Q

complications due to anemia

A

IUGR Preterm birth Increased risk of Postpartum depression Angina CHF

171
Q

venous thromboembolism -increased risk while pregnant bc -virchow’s triad -treatment

A

-increased risk while pregnant because pregnancy and puerperium are hypercoagulable states -Virchow’s triad - circulatory stasis, vascular damage, and hypercoagulability of blood -treatment: anticoagulate (w/LMWH), bed rest, and ambulation with compression stockings

172
Q

treatment of DVT -antepartum -postpartum

A

-antepartum= anticoagulate for 6-12 weeks postpartum (and a total of 3-6 months) -postpartum= anticoagulate for 3-6 months

173
Q

gestational thrombocytopenia -characterized by -occurs when

A

-characterized by mild, asymptomatic thrombocytopenia with platelet levels usually >70,000/_L -usually occurs late in gestation and resolves spontaneously after delivery

174
Q

what is puerperium?

A

aka postpartum - the 6 weeks following delivery when physiologic and anatomic changes of pregnancy reverse

175
Q

postpartum -immediate time frame -early time frame -late time frame

A

-Immediate -first 24 hrs when acute postanesthetic or postdelivery complications may occur -Early - extends until the first week postpartum -Remote - includes the period of time required for involution of the genital organs and return of menses, usually ~ 6 weeks

176
Q

uterus changes postpartum

A

-Immediately after delivery, wt is 1 kg, and its size approximates that of a 20-week pregnancy -After 2 days, uterus begins to shrink -At the end of the first postpartum week, it normally will have decreased to the size of a 12-week gestation and is palpable at the symphysis pubis -After 2 weeks, uterus descends into pelvic cavity -average rate is 1cm/day

177
Q

what are “afterpains” and what do they do? -worse in multi- or nulliparous? -accentuated when? why?

A

myometrial contractions that assist in involution (shrinking) of the uterus -pains are worse in multiparous women -accentuated during nursing as a result of oxytocin release

178
Q

postpartum endometritis -most common after what? -occurs when? symptoms? -labs? -treatment?

A

-most common after C-section or PROM -occurs 2-3 days postpartum -symptoms: fever, uterine tenderness, adnexal TTP, peritoneal irritation, decreased bowel sounds -labs: WBC > 20,000; also do UA -treatment: single dose of ABX at cord cutting usually reduces incidence; treat until afebrile for 24 hours Clindamycin + Gentamicin (first line; Metronidazole added if septic)

179
Q

Lochia -lochia rubra -lochia serosa -lochia alba -cessation of lochia

A

-Lochia rubra - normal d/c postpartum, with blood, shreds of tissue, and decidua - lasts 3-4 days -Lochia serosa - becomes serous to mucopurulent, paler, and often malodorous -Lochia alba - 2nd -3rd week, becomes thicker, mucoid, and yellowish-white -Secretions cease around 5-6th week

180
Q

Cervix and genitals postpartum -os dilation after 1 week -os converts into -ovulation

A

-Os dilation after 1 week ~ 1 cm -Os converts into a transverse slit -ovulation occurs as early as 27 days postpartum (avg: 70-75 days if not breastfeeding, 6 months if breastfeeding); suppression due to high prolactin levels

181
Q

bladder postpartum

A

-Over distention and incomplete emptying of the bladder with the presence of residual urine are common -Catheterization every 6 hours after delivery if she is unable to void or empty her bladder completely -usually resolves within 3 days

182
Q

weight postpartum -average decrease -women who gained more than recommended

A

-Average decrease 10-13 lb occurs intrapartum and immediately postpartum - may lose an additional 9 lb during the puerperium -Women who gain more weight than the recommended range during pregnancy tend to be heavier at 3 years postpartum

183
Q

activity postpartum

A

-Most patients benefit from 2-4 days of hospitalization after delivery -Most women can return home safely 2 days after normal vaginal delivery -Early ambulation after delivery hastens involution of the uterus, improves uterine drainage, and lessens thromboembolic events

184
Q

diet/GI postpartum

A

-About 500 kcal per day more than the recommended level for non-pregnant and non-lactating women -Daily vitamin-mineral supplement during the early puerperium, esp if lactating -Lactating women are advised to maintain calcium intake of 1000 mg per day -Mild ileus and constipation -Hemorrhoids common -Bathing/perineal care -May shower, no douching, tampons okay

185
Q

transient “maternity blues” -sxs -occur and cease when?

A

-Tearfulness, anxiety, irritation, and restlessness -Depression, feelings of inadequacy, elation, mood swings, confusion, difficulty concentrating, headache, forgetfulness, insomnia, depersonalization, and negative feelings toward the baby -Occur within the first few days after delivery and usually cease by postpartum day 10; weeping may occur for weeks after delivery

186
Q

postpartum depression

A

Pathologic grief is characterized by the inability to work through the sense of loss within 3-4 months, with subsequent feelings of low self-esteem

187
Q

sexual activity postpartum

A

-desire can be lower than normal -may resume by 3rd week, but not fully recovered until 6 weeks postpartum

188
Q

family planning (contraceptives) post partum

A

-Lactational amenorrhea in breastfeeding mothers provides 98% contraceptive protection for up to 6 months; concurrent use of progestin-only pill is still advisable -Barrier techniques until postpartum exam -Oral contraception should be deferred until 6 weeks postpartum because of concerns about the postpartum hypercoagulable state -if choosing IUD, it should be placed at the first postpartum visit; however, it may be placed as early as immediately postpartum, but may risk expulsion

189
Q

postpartum visit exam

  • occurs when?
  • check what?
  • PE of what?
  • ask about what?
A
  • occurs 4-6 weeks after discharge
  • check weight, BP, blood cell counts, and blood glucose
  • PE of breasts, rectovaginal exam, cervix + Pap, bimanual exam, check episiotomy -ask about emotional well being, bonding, breastfeeding, and immunizations

Women's Health (8 decks)

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