PART 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the causative agent of cholera?

A

Bacteria

Cholera is primarily caused by the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.

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2
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cholera?

A

Explosive watery diarrhea or rice watery stool

These symptoms are characteristic of severe cholera infections.

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3
Q

What is the procedure test for diagnosing cholera?

A

Stool examination

Stool examination helps identify the presence of Vibrio cholerae.

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4
Q

What is the primary method of preventing cholera?

A

Handwashing

Proper hygiene practices, such as handwashing, are crucial in preventing cholera transmission.

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5
Q

What is the priority in the management of cholera?

A

Prevention of dehydration

Dehydration is a major risk in cholera patients due to severe fluid loss.

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6
Q

What is the causative agent of leprosy?

A

Bacteria

Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium leprae.

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7
Q

What laboratory test is used for diagnosing leprosy?

A

Skin biopsy

Skin biopsy can confirm the presence of Mycobacterium leprae.

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8
Q

What is the multi-drug regimen used for treating leprosy?

A

Rifampicin and Dapsone

These antibiotics are effective in treating leprosy.

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9
Q

How is leprosy primarily transmitted?

A

Respiratory droplets

Leprosy can spread through prolonged close contact with an infected person.

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10
Q

What is a clinical manifestation of leprosy?

A

Numbness of affected areas

Nerve damage leads to loss of sensation in leprosy patients.

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11
Q

What is an early sign of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Diaphoresis

Diaphoresis, or excessive sweating, is a common early symptom.

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12
Q

What is the drug of choice to promote abstinence from alcohol?

A

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

Disulfiram works by causing unpleasant reactions when alcohol is consumed.

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13
Q

What medication is used for alcohol withdrawal with seizures?

A

Lorazepam (Ativan)

Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used to manage withdrawal symptoms.

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14
Q

What is a treatment for alcohol intoxication?

A

Dialysis

Dialysis may be necessary in severe cases of alcohol poisoning.

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15
Q

What assessment data provides the best information on a patient’s physiological response to medication?

A

Vital signs

Monitoring vital signs helps assess the effectiveness of treatment.

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16
Q

What should be eliminated from the diet during alcohol withdrawal?

A

Regular coffee

Caffeine can exacerbate withdrawal symptoms.

17
Q

What is the purpose of paper lining before a PHN bag?

A

To prevent contamination of the bag

Proper hygiene practices are essential in healthcare settings.

18
Q

Which of the following is NOT a non-communicable disease: pneumonia, diabetes, or hypertension?

A

Pneumonia

Pneumonia is classified as a communicable disease.

19
Q

What is an example of a communicable disease?

A

Flu-like

Flu-like symptoms often indicate a viral infection that can spread from person to person.

20
Q

What term describes scattered cases like rabies?

A

Sporadic

Sporadic diseases occur infrequently and irregularly.

21
Q

What is the vector for schistosomiasis?

A

Snail

Snails are the intermediate hosts for Schistosoma parasites.

22
Q

What is the causative agent of rheumatic heart fever?

A

Streptococcus

Rheumatic heart fever can occur after an infection with Streptococcus bacteria.

23
Q

What is a common history of rheumatic heart fever?

A

Sore throat

A history of streptococcal sore throat is often linked to rheumatic heart fever.

24
Q

What diagnostic tool is used for rheumatic heart fever?

A

Echocardiogram

An echocardiogram can assess heart function and damage caused by rheumatic fever.

25
What is a treatment option for rheumatic heart fever?
Azithromycin ## Footnote Azithromycin is an antibiotic that can be used in treatment.
26
What is the route of administration for Penidure?
Intramuscular ## Footnote Penidure is often given via intramuscular injection for effective delivery.
27
When should BCG vaccine be administered?
At birth ## Footnote BCG vaccine is given to protect against tuberculosis.
28
At what age should the first dose of measles vaccine be given?
9 months ## Footnote The measles vaccine is typically administered at this age for optimal immunity.
29
What is the angle of a subcutaneous injection?
45° ## Footnote This angle ensures proper delivery of the vaccine into the subcutaneous tissue.
30
What law mandates compulsory basic immunization of children?
PD 996 ## Footnote PD 996 outlines the immunization schedule and requirements for children.
31
Which vaccine is NOT given during pregnancy?
Rubella ## Footnote Rubella vaccination is avoided during pregnancy to prevent potential risks to the fetus.
32
How long does Tetanus Toxoid provide protection?
10 years ## Footnote The TT4 vaccine offers protection against tetanus for this duration.
33
How many doses of Tetanus Toxoid are recommended for a primigravida?
Two doses ## Footnote Primigravida women should receive two doses for adequate immunity.