part 2 Flashcards
1
Q
`what is the eruption sequence for primary maxillary dentition
A
centrals : 6-10 months
laterals: 9-12 months
first molar: 12-18 months
canine: 16-22 months
second molar: 24-32 months
2
Q
eruption sequence of primary mand dentition
A
centrals: 6-10 months
lateral: 7-10 months
first molar: 12-18 months
canines: 16-22 months
second molar: 20-32 months
3
Q
what is the eruption sequence of permanent max dentition
A
first molars: 6-7 years
central: 7-8 years
lateral: 8-9 years
first premolar: 10-11 years
second premolar: 10-12 years
canine: 11-12 years
second molar: 12-13 years
third molar: 17-21 years
4
Q
what is the eruption sequence of permanent mand dentition
A
first molar: 6-7 years
centrals: 6-7 years
lateral: 7-8 years
first premolar: 9-10 years
second premolar: 10-11 years
canine: 12-13 years
second molar:11-13 years
third molar: 17-21 years
5
Q
what are the tooth surfaces
A
buccal
lingual
mesial
distal
occlusal
cervical
middle
6
Q
what are the two types of drugs
A
patent medicines - obtained without prescription
prescription drugs - prescription is required, and has two categories: non-controlled and controlled
7
Q
what are non controlled drugs
A
antibiotics
insulin
blood pressure meds
cholesterol
ashtma
8
Q
what are controlled drugs
A
schedule I - no medical use and cannot be prescribed
schedule II - have limited medical use and high potential for abuse
schedule III - have less abuse potential
schedule IV - have low abuse potential
schedule V - have the lowest abuse potential
9
Q
what is a prescription
A
an instruction provided by a physician for the pharmacist to prepare and administer medicine
10
Q
define superscription
A
includes the patients name, address, weight and age
11
Q
define Rx
A
main body of the prescription
12
Q
define subscription
A
directions to the pharmacist for information to be put on a label
13
Q
define signature
A
instructions for the patient on how to take medicine, when tot ake it and how much
14
Q
how does the abbreviation h.h stand for
A
at bedtime
15
Q
what does the abbreviation a.a stand for
A
of each
16
Q
what does the abbreviation a.m stand for
A
morning
17
Q
what does the abbreviation p.c stand for
A
after meals
18
Q
what does the abbreviation prn stand for
A
as needed
19
Q
what does the abbreviation q.d stand for
A
once a day
20
Q
what does the abbreviation q.i.d stand for
A
four times a day
21
Q
how do you correct an errpr in a chart
A
draw. line through the error and write initials
22
Q
what is the average pulse rate for an adult
A
60-100 bpm
23
Q
is it ok to blow air into a socket for a pulpal chamber
A
no, blowing air can distrubyte debris and bacteria into the pulpal chamber
24
Q
define abrasion
A
abnormal wearing away of tooth structure from repetitive habit
25
define attrition
normal wearing away of tooth structure during chewing
26
define bruxism
involuntary grinding and clenchin of teeth
27
define erosion of teeth
can occure on lingual surfaces of teeth from an eating disorder from self induced vomitting
28
how should the patients arm be positioned to take a blood pressure
arm should be supported so your elbow is at the heart level
29
where would you put cotton roll to control saliva from various salivary ducts such as the parotid
behing lingual arches
30
what would happen if cement was left around a crown
it would cause overhang
make it difficult to floss
contribute to inflamed gingival tissue and periodontal disease
long term bone loss
31
how far should an impression tray extend for the max tray
approx. 5-10 mm
32
list the duties you would do if assissting with palcement of topical and local anesthetic
topicall:
explain procedure to patient
identify injection site and gently dry the site
place ointment on injection site
leav applicator to remain on site for 1-2 minutes
local:
apply topical
loosen needle guard
transfer syringe to operator
monitor patient for adverse effects
rinse patients mouth
continue monitoring patient
33
who can you use nitrous oxide on?
anxious patients and special needs patients
34
know the correct steps for light curing composite
liner, base, composite
lighter colours are easier to cure.
place in increments, while light curing each layer
35
what material is most often used for temp restorations
irm - up to 6 months
glass ionomer
zoe
36
why would you put wax on the back of an impression tray
to extend the tray for people with 8s
37
how many days after non absorbable sutures are placed, do you removed them
5-7 days and the RDA can remove it
38
know your types of gypsum stone and water to powder ratios
plaste : 100g powder to 45-50ml water
dental stone: 100g powder to 28-30ml water
die stone: 100 g powder to 19-24ml water
39
what are the indications and contraindications for placement of a sealant
indications
- new teeth
- deep pits and fissures
- teeth with small lesions
contraindications
- smooth and shallow pits and fissures
- partially erupted teeth
40
what could happen if you swallow topical fluoride
fluoride toxicity
- may result in upset stomach, vomiting and nausea
41
what is the most common area for plaque to accumulate
linguals of mand anteriors
42
list all the ways plaque can be removed
brushing teeth
flossing
coronal polish
mouth wash
43
what is the most important dietary adjustment for reduction of dental caries
reduce fermentable carbohydrates and increase water intake
44
what are the signs for cardiac arrest
chest pains
loss of consciousness
heart palpitations
45
what are the instructions you would give a patient with an avulsed tooth
recover tooth immediately
wrap the tooth in moist cloth
go immediately to dental office
46
what are the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock
- feeling ill
- nausea and vomiting
- shortness of breath
- heart arrhythmia
- drop in blood pressure
- loss of consciousness
47
what do you use articulating paper for
used the check patients bite after placement if a new restoration
48
what are the uses for prophylactic antibiotic coverage
prevents bacterial colonization while underoing dental treatment`
49
what is informed consent
permission granted by a patient after he or she is informed about the details of a procedure
50
what should be visible in periapical radiograph
the crown
tooth
51
why would you increase xray exposure time
for larger patients
52
if no teeth are present when taking a max molar, what would you use for landmarks to make sure you have placed it correctly
max tuberosity
max sinuses
53
what is the most effective way to kill hep b
sterilization
54
how often do you flush water and handpiece lines
5 minutes in the start of the day
30 seconds in between each patient
55
what are the standard and universal precautions
standard precautions
- standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood and other fluids
universal precautions
- guidelines based on treating all human blood and body fluids as potentially infectious
56
how do you handle contaminated needles
place in sharps container
57
definition of sepsis
a serious condition resulting from presence of harmful microorganisms in the blood
can result in malfunctioning organs, shock or death
58
definition of asepsis
absence of bacteria, viruses and other microorganisms
59
definition of disinfection
chemical used to reduce or lower the numbers of microorganisms on objects
60
definition of sterilization
process that kills all microorganisms
61
what happens if you overpack the autoclave
prevents the autoclave from reaching a correct temperature and pressure, and make it difficult for the steam to flow properly
62
what is an ultrasonic cleaner for
loosens and removes debris by sound waves traveling through liquid
63
what form of sterilization cannot be verified with a spore strip
liquid chemical sterilization (cold solution)
64
how do we know sterilization is successful
biologic indicators
65
after spraying an impression with disinfectant, what do you do
must be stored in a damp paper towel and store impression in a covered container
66
is alcohol an affective form of disinfection
it is not affective in the presence of bioburdens like blood and saliva
and the rapid rate of evaporation limits the antimicrobial activity
67
what are the rules for whmis
ensures all products are properly labelled
labels and sds are necessary
provides education and training
68
what chemicals need to have adequate ventilation
formaldehyde and methyl alcohol
69
why do you use a lead apron
used to protect the reproductive and blood forming tissue from scatter radiation
70
how do you check to see if the dental dam will pass through the contacts of teeth prior to the placement of rubber dam
use floss
71
what can you use to lubricate rubber dam
petroleum jelly
water soluble lubricant
72
why do you use 2x2 to dry tissue prior to topical
ensures that saliva doesnt dilute the topical and interfer
73
what type of tofflemire would be used for 2.6 if the entire buccal cusps were missing
universal tofflemire
74
what surface is a wooden wedge placed on when using a universal tofflemire
lingual
75
if you dont burnish the tofflemire band, what could happen to the restoration
could cause overhangs and extension
76
define spore
resistant form of bacteria
77
define cocci
spherical bacterial cells that reproduce by dividing into two
78
define pathogenic
disease causing
79
define capsule
membrane that encloses something
80
define anaerobic
can grow without oxygen
81
define aerobic
needs oxygen to grow
82
define carrier
a person that transmits disease causing organisms to others without displaying symptoms themselves
83
define contagious
can be spread from one person to another by direct or indirect contact
84
define immune
resistant to a particular infectious disease or pathogen
85
define etiology
study of the cause, set of causes of a disease or condition
86
define bacteriology
science that deals with bacteria and their relations to medicine, industry and agriculture
87
define embryology
study of the formation and development of an embryo and fetus
88
what are the modes of infection transmission
direct transmission
indirect transmission
airborne transmission
parenteral transmission
blood-borne transmission
food and water transmission
fecal-oral transmission
89
describe direct transmission
occurs through person to person contact
90
describe indirect transmission
occurs whe microorganisms first are transmitted to an object or surface and then are transferred to another person who touches it
91
describe airborne transmission
spread of disease through droplets of moisture that contain bacteria and viruses
92
describe parenteral transmission
spread of disease through cuts through skin
93
describe blood-borne transmission
carried in the blood and body fluids if infected individuals and can be transmitted to others
94
describe food and water transmission
disease transmitted by contaminated food that how not been cooked or refrigerated properly
95
describe fecal-oral transmission
pathogens present in fecal matter is spread
96
what is the chain of infection
portal of entry
susceptible host
pathogenic agent
reservoir
portal of exit
97
what are all disinfectants
iodophors
synthetic phenol compunds
sodium hypochlorite
alcohol
glutaraldehyde
chlorine dioxide
ortho-phthalaldehyde
98
indications and contraindications of iodophors
indications:
- disinfects surfaces soiled with potentially infectious material
- effective within 5-10 mins
- can be used as immersion disinfectant
contraindications:
- must be mixed with soft distilled water
- can corrode or discolour materials
- can stain clothing
99
indications and contraindications of synthetic phenol compounds
indications
- can kill wide range of microbes
- can be used metal, glass, rubber or plastic
- can be used as a holding solution
contraindications
- leaves residual film on surfaces
100
indications and contraindications of sdium hyopchlorite
indications
- fast acting
- economical
- broad spectrum disinfectant
contraindications
- unstable
- strong odor
- corrosive
-
101
indications and contraindications of alcohol
indications
- antiseptic on skin and surfaces
contraindications
- not effective in presence of bioburdens
- evaporates fast
- damaging to certain materials
102
indications and contraindicaitons of glutaraldehyde
indications
- can be used as liquid sterilant
- can be used on materials that cannot withstand heat
contraindications
- toxic
- discolouration and corrosion
103
indications and contraindications of chlorine dioxide
indications
- rapid acting and effective
- can be sued as surface disinfectant or chemical sterilant
contraindications
- does not penetrate organic debris
- must be prepared aily
- corrosive to aluminum
104
indications and contraindications for ortho-phthalaldehyde
indications
- good for sensitivity to glutaraldehyde
- does not require activation
contraindications
- cost
- may stain skin and fabrics
- cannot sterilize
105
what are the routes of drug administration
oral route - pills, tablets
topical route - application on surface of mucosa
transdermal - through patch that continuously releases a controlled quantity of medication through skin
inhalation route - breathing in gaseous substance through mouth or nose
sublingual route - placing medication under tongue
injection route - subcutaneous, intramuscular, intradermal, implanted pump
106
forms of injection routes
subcutaneous
- directly under skin
intramuscular
- into a muscle
intradermal
- into the skin
implanted pump
- surgically implanted pump that delivers medication continuously
107
what type of drug do you use for pain control
you would prescribed analgesic
108
if a pt is allergic to penicillin, what drug would your dentist prescribe
erythromycin, clindamycin
109
what is an antifungal used for
to fight certain types of fungal infections (nyastatin is prescribed)
110
what drug slows the flow of blood down
epinephrine
111
1:50,000 would be found in what type of local anesthetic
epinephrine
112
pt calls with problems from a drug given yesterday- how do you handle this
call the dentist
113
permanent discolouration of the teeth and possible hypoplasia may be result of what drug exposure
tetracycline
114
why do you aspirate the local anesthetic syring
to ensure no solution is being injected into a vessel
115
what are examples of vasoconstrictors
articaine
bupivacaine
lidocaine
mepivacaine
prilocaine
116
what is the step after the retraction cord is placed in a crown prep
remove cord and immediately place impression
117
what is the use of glass ionomer
type I - luting agent
type II - restore erosion on class V
type III - liners and bases
type IV - pits and fissure sealants
type V - cementation of ortho appliances
type VI - core buildup
118
use of zoe
type I - temp cementation or provisional coverage
type II - permanent cementations
type III - thermal base
type IV - cavity liner
119
use for polycarboxylate
final cementation
long term temp cementation
base
120
use for zinc phosphate
type I - permanent restorations
type II - insulating base
121
what are reversible hydrocolloids
changes its physical state from a sol to a gel then back to a sol
122
what type of elastomeric impression materials capable of setting in a moist environment
silicone and alginate
123
what does overbite mean
when the max jaw overlaps the mand jaw (class II)
124
what are bone forming cells
osteoblasts
125
what will happen if you use a pulp tester on a live tooth
they will feel the electrical current
126
what could be used to detect a vertical fracture in the crown of a tooth
visual assessment
palpation
xrays
percussion
127
what is an apicoectomy
surgical removal of the apical portion of the tooth through a surgical opening
128
what is a universal extraction forcep
used to extract same type of tooth on any quadrant
129
what type of strokes do you use when polishing
short intermittent overlapping strokes
130
what are the forms of sutures
absorbable
- plain catgut
- chromic catgut
- polyglactin
nonabsorbable
- silk
- polyester fiber
- nylon
131
what is chronological age
the childs actual age in terms of years and months
132
what is the mental age
childs level of intellectual capacity and development
133
what is the emotional age
describes the childs level of emotional maturity
134
what is the eriksons stage
learning basic trust
- birth to 12 months
learning autonomy
- 1-2 years
play age
- 3-5 years
school age
- 6-11 years
adolescence
- 12- 20 years
135
what is the fankl scale
1: definitely negative - patient refuses treatment
2: negative - reluctant to accept treatment
3: positive - acceptance of treatment
4: definitely positive - good rapport with dentist
136
what is pain control
prevention and treatment of anxiety and pain
- analgesia
- anesthesia
- paresthesia
- sedation
- conscious sedation
137
what is pediatric dentistry
specialized area of dentistry that is dedicated to the oral health of infants, children, adolescants and individuals with special needs
138
muscles of the face
orbicularis oris - closes and puckers lips
buccinator - compresses cheeks
mentalis - raises and wrinkles skin of chin
zygomatic major - draws angles of mouth
temporalis - raises and closes mandible
masseter - raises and closes mandible
internal pterygoid - closes jaw
external pterygoid - depresses mandible to open jaw
139
what are the salivary glands
parotid glands - on sides of cheel
submandibular - on sidesof jaw
sublingual - under the tongue
140
bones of the cranium
frontal
parietal
occipital
temporal
sphenoid
ethmoid
141
bones of the face
zygomatic
maxillary
palatine
nasal
lacrimal
vomer
inferior conchae
mandible
142
bones of auditory ossicles
malleus
incus
stapes
143
processes of bones
zygomatic
mastoid
styloid
144
what is the name of cells that form dentin
odontoblasts
145
what is an antagonist when referring to teeth
a tooth in one jaw that articulates during mastication or occlusions with a totoh in the opposing jaw
146
stages of bone formation
initiation stage - formation of dental lamina
bud stage - beginning development of each tooth
cap stage - cells of the tooth grow and increase in number
bell stage - cells differentiate and become more specialized
147
what is the specialized lining of the tooth socket
lamina dura
148
how many roots are on the max first premolar
two roots
149
what does virulence mean
strength of pathogens ability to cause disease
150
what is candida albicans
a yeast like fungus that cuases a supeficial infection called candidiasis
151
how does the amouther of filled effect a composite resin
determines the strength and wear resistance of the material
152
what is the thin layer of debris composed of fluird found on the dentin after a cavity prep
smear layer
153
what happens if you add too much water to gypsum
will be too runny, hard to manipulate and sets longer
154
what facts will delay the set of gypsum products
temperature of water
temperature
amount of water
155
where can you use glass ionomer as a permanent filling
class III and V
156
what cement adds powder to liquid in small increments and utilizes a wide area of slab to dissipate the heat
zinc phosphate
157
where do you place the plastic u shaped frame over or under the dam
under the dam
158
the higher the gauge the _____ the needle
smaller
159
what does whmis stand for
workplace hazardous materials information system
160
where do you flush your water lines into
tub
161
what does msds stand for
material safety data sheet
162
what will deficiency of vitamin c cause
scurvy
163
pellagra is a result of wht
deficiency in niacin or b3
164
what vitamin is responsible for blood clotting
vitamin K
165
what strip do you use to get ride of an amalgam overhang
lightning strip
166
what is teh function of calcium hydroxide
low strength liner and base
167
what colour is the nitrous oxide tank
its blue
168
what end of the condenser do you start with when placing amalgam
smaller end
169
what is the best light to select a tooth shade with
natural light
170
why cant you use a zinc phosphate close to the pulp
the phosphate can cause irritation to the pulp due to its acidity
171
if an etched tooth gets saliva, what do you have to do
dry the tooth and etch again
172
what is the proper method of removing a hydroclloid impression
with a quick snap to break the seal
173
what instruments are good for inverting the rubber dam
sppon excavator
beavertail
174
what is the other name for an anchor hole
keypunch hole
175
what is a cervical clamp used for
required if the gingival third of the tooth is to be restored
176
where do you get vitamin D
sun
177
what causes rickets
lack of vitamin d or calcium
178
what stain is composed of chromogenic bacteria and fungi
green stain
179
what is dilantin
medication used to treat seizures
180
what is niacitin
181
what are the antibiotics used in dental
penicillin, eurythromyacin, amoxicillin
182
if you have a tooth moving, into bone
resorption (deposition occudes on other side)
