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phase 2 finals > part 2 > Flashcards

part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

`what is the eruption sequence for primary maxillary dentition

A

centrals : 6-10 months
laterals: 9-12 months
first molar: 12-18 months
canine: 16-22 months
second molar: 24-32 months

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2
Q

eruption sequence of primary mand dentition

A

centrals: 6-10 months
lateral: 7-10 months
first molar: 12-18 months
canines: 16-22 months
second molar: 20-32 months

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3
Q

what is the eruption sequence of permanent max dentition

A

first molars: 6-7 years
central: 7-8 years
lateral: 8-9 years
first premolar: 10-11 years
second premolar: 10-12 years
canine: 11-12 years
second molar: 12-13 years
third molar: 17-21 years

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4
Q

what is the eruption sequence of permanent mand dentition

A

first molar: 6-7 years
centrals: 6-7 years
lateral: 7-8 years
first premolar: 9-10 years
second premolar: 10-11 years
canine: 12-13 years
second molar:11-13 years
third molar: 17-21 years

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5
Q

what are the tooth surfaces

A

buccal
lingual
mesial
distal
occlusal
cervical
middle

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6
Q

what are the two types of drugs

A

patent medicines - obtained without prescription
prescription drugs - prescription is required, and has two categories: non-controlled and controlled

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7
Q

what are non controlled drugs

A

antibiotics
insulin
blood pressure meds
cholesterol
ashtma

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8
Q

what are controlled drugs

A

schedule I - no medical use and cannot be prescribed

schedule II - have limited medical use and high potential for abuse

schedule III - have less abuse potential

schedule IV - have low abuse potential

schedule V - have the lowest abuse potential

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9
Q

what is a prescription

A

an instruction provided by a physician for the pharmacist to prepare and administer medicine

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10
Q

define superscription

A

includes the patients name, address, weight and age

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11
Q

define Rx

A

main body of the prescription

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12
Q

define subscription

A

directions to the pharmacist for information to be put on a label

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13
Q

define signature

A

instructions for the patient on how to take medicine, when tot ake it and how much

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14
Q

how does the abbreviation h.h stand for

A

at bedtime

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15
Q

what does the abbreviation a.a stand for

A

of each

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16
Q

what does the abbreviation a.m stand for

A

morning

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17
Q

what does the abbreviation p.c stand for

A

after meals

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18
Q

what does the abbreviation prn stand for

A

as needed

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19
Q

what does the abbreviation q.d stand for

A

once a day

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20
Q

what does the abbreviation q.i.d stand for

A

four times a day

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21
Q

how do you correct an errpr in a chart

A

draw. line through the error and write initials

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22
Q

what is the average pulse rate for an adult

A

60-100 bpm

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23
Q

is it ok to blow air into a socket for a pulpal chamber

A

no, blowing air can distrubyte debris and bacteria into the pulpal chamber

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24
Q

define abrasion

A

abnormal wearing away of tooth structure from repetitive habit

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25
Q

define attrition

A

normal wearing away of tooth structure during chewing

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26
Q

define bruxism

A

involuntary grinding and clenchin of teeth

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27
Q

define erosion of teeth

A

can occure on lingual surfaces of teeth from an eating disorder from self induced vomitting

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28
Q

how should the patients arm be positioned to take a blood pressure

A

arm should be supported so your elbow is at the heart level

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29
Q

where would you put cotton roll to control saliva from various salivary ducts such as the parotid

A

behing lingual arches

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30
Q

what would happen if cement was left around a crown

A

it would cause overhang
make it difficult to floss
contribute to inflamed gingival tissue and periodontal disease
long term bone loss

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31
Q

how far should an impression tray extend for the max tray

A

approx. 5-10 mm

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32
Q

list the duties you would do if assissting with palcement of topical and local anesthetic

A

topicall:
explain procedure to patient

identify injection site and gently dry the site

place ointment on injection site

leav applicator to remain on site for 1-2 minutes

local:
apply topical
loosen needle guard
transfer syringe to operator
monitor patient for adverse effects
rinse patients mouth
continue monitoring patient

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33
Q

who can you use nitrous oxide on?

A

anxious patients and special needs patients

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34
Q

know the correct steps for light curing composite

A

liner, base, composite
lighter colours are easier to cure.

place in increments, while light curing each layer

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35
Q

what material is most often used for temp restorations

A

irm - up to 6 months
glass ionomer
zoe

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36
Q

why would you put wax on the back of an impression tray

A

to extend the tray for people with 8s

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37
Q

how many days after non absorbable sutures are placed, do you removed them

A

5-7 days and the RDA can remove it

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38
Q

know your types of gypsum stone and water to powder ratios

A

plaste : 100g powder to 45-50ml water

dental stone: 100g powder to 28-30ml water

die stone: 100 g powder to 19-24ml water

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39
Q

what are the indications and contraindications for placement of a sealant

A

indications
- new teeth
- deep pits and fissures
- teeth with small lesions

contraindications
- smooth and shallow pits and fissures
- partially erupted teeth

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40
Q

what could happen if you swallow topical fluoride

A

fluoride toxicity
- may result in upset stomach, vomiting and nausea

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41
Q

what is the most common area for plaque to accumulate

A

linguals of mand anteriors

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42
Q

list all the ways plaque can be removed

A

brushing teeth
flossing
coronal polish
mouth wash

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43
Q

what is the most important dietary adjustment for reduction of dental caries

A

reduce fermentable carbohydrates and increase water intake

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44
Q

what are the signs for cardiac arrest

A

chest pains
loss of consciousness
heart palpitations

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45
Q

what are the instructions you would give a patient with an avulsed tooth

A

recover tooth immediately
wrap the tooth in moist cloth
go immediately to dental office

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46
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock

A
  • feeling ill
  • nausea and vomiting
  • shortness of breath
  • heart arrhythmia
  • drop in blood pressure
  • loss of consciousness
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47
Q

what do you use articulating paper for

A

used the check patients bite after placement if a new restoration

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48
Q

what are the uses for prophylactic antibiotic coverage

A

prevents bacterial colonization while underoing dental treatment`

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49
Q

what is informed consent

A

permission granted by a patient after he or she is informed about the details of a procedure

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50
Q

what should be visible in periapical radiograph

A

the crown
tooth

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51
Q

why would you increase xray exposure time

A

for larger patients

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52
Q

if no teeth are present when taking a max molar, what would you use for landmarks to make sure you have placed it correctly

A

max tuberosity
max sinuses

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53
Q

what is the most effective way to kill hep b

A

sterilization

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54
Q

how often do you flush water and handpiece lines

A

5 minutes in the start of the day
30 seconds in between each patient

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55
Q

what are the standard and universal precautions

A

standard precautions
- standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood and other fluids

universal precautions
- guidelines based on treating all human blood and body fluids as potentially infectious

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56
Q

how do you handle contaminated needles

A

place in sharps container

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57
Q

definition of sepsis

A

a serious condition resulting from presence of harmful microorganisms in the blood

can result in malfunctioning organs, shock or death

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58
Q

definition of asepsis

A

absence of bacteria, viruses and other microorganisms

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59
Q

definition of disinfection

A

chemical used to reduce or lower the numbers of microorganisms on objects

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60
Q

definition of sterilization

A

process that kills all microorganisms

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61
Q

what happens if you overpack the autoclave

A

prevents the autoclave from reaching a correct temperature and pressure, and make it difficult for the steam to flow properly

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62
Q

what is an ultrasonic cleaner for

A

loosens and removes debris by sound waves traveling through liquid

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63
Q

what form of sterilization cannot be verified with a spore strip

A

liquid chemical sterilization (cold solution)

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64
Q

how do we know sterilization is successful

A

biologic indicators

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65
Q

after spraying an impression with disinfectant, what do you do

A

must be stored in a damp paper towel and store impression in a covered container

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66
Q

is alcohol an affective form of disinfection

A

it is not affective in the presence of bioburdens like blood and saliva

and the rapid rate of evaporation limits the antimicrobial activity

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67
Q

what are the rules for whmis

A

ensures all products are properly labelled

labels and sds are necessary

provides education and training

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68
Q

what chemicals need to have adequate ventilation

A

formaldehyde and methyl alcohol

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69
Q

why do you use a lead apron

A

used to protect the reproductive and blood forming tissue from scatter radiation

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70
Q

how do you check to see if the dental dam will pass through the contacts of teeth prior to the placement of rubber dam

A

use floss

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71
Q

what can you use to lubricate rubber dam

A

petroleum jelly
water soluble lubricant

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72
Q

why do you use 2x2 to dry tissue prior to topical

A

ensures that saliva doesnt dilute the topical and interfer

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73
Q

what type of tofflemire would be used for 2.6 if the entire buccal cusps were missing

A

universal tofflemire

74
Q

what surface is a wooden wedge placed on when using a universal tofflemire

A

lingual

75
Q

if you dont burnish the tofflemire band, what could happen to the restoration

A

could cause overhangs and extension

76
Q

define spore

A

resistant form of bacteria

77
Q

define cocci

A

spherical bacterial cells that reproduce by dividing into two

78
Q

define pathogenic

A

disease causing

79
Q

define capsule

A

membrane that encloses something

80
Q

define anaerobic

A

can grow without oxygen

81
Q

define aerobic

A

needs oxygen to grow

82
Q

define carrier

A

a person that transmits disease causing organisms to others without displaying symptoms themselves

83
Q

define contagious

A

can be spread from one person to another by direct or indirect contact

84
Q

define immune

A

resistant to a particular infectious disease or pathogen

85
Q

define etiology

A

study of the cause, set of causes of a disease or condition

86
Q

define bacteriology

A

science that deals with bacteria and their relations to medicine, industry and agriculture

87
Q

define embryology

A

study of the formation and development of an embryo and fetus

88
Q

what are the modes of infection transmission

A

direct transmission
indirect transmission
airborne transmission
parenteral transmission
blood-borne transmission
food and water transmission
fecal-oral transmission

89
Q

describe direct transmission

A

occurs through person to person contact

90
Q

describe indirect transmission

A

occurs whe microorganisms first are transmitted to an object or surface and then are transferred to another person who touches it

91
Q

describe airborne transmission

A

spread of disease through droplets of moisture that contain bacteria and viruses

92
Q

describe parenteral transmission

A

spread of disease through cuts through skin

93
Q

describe blood-borne transmission

A

carried in the blood and body fluids if infected individuals and can be transmitted to others

94
Q

describe food and water transmission

A

disease transmitted by contaminated food that how not been cooked or refrigerated properly

95
Q

describe fecal-oral transmission

A

pathogens present in fecal matter is spread

96
Q

what is the chain of infection

A

portal of entry
susceptible host
pathogenic agent
reservoir
portal of exit

97
Q

what are all disinfectants

A

iodophors
synthetic phenol compunds
sodium hypochlorite
alcohol
glutaraldehyde
chlorine dioxide
ortho-phthalaldehyde

98
Q

indications and contraindications of iodophors

A

indications:
- disinfects surfaces soiled with potentially infectious material
- effective within 5-10 mins
- can be used as immersion disinfectant

contraindications:
- must be mixed with soft distilled water
- can corrode or discolour materials
- can stain clothing

99
Q

indications and contraindications of synthetic phenol compounds

A

indications
- can kill wide range of microbes
- can be used metal, glass, rubber or plastic
- can be used as a holding solution

contraindications
- leaves residual film on surfaces

100
Q

indications and contraindications of sdium hyopchlorite

A

indications
- fast acting
- economical
- broad spectrum disinfectant

contraindications
- unstable
- strong odor
- corrosive
-

101
Q

indications and contraindications of alcohol

A

indications
- antiseptic on skin and surfaces

contraindications
- not effective in presence of bioburdens
- evaporates fast
- damaging to certain materials

102
Q

indications and contraindicaitons of glutaraldehyde

A

indications
- can be used as liquid sterilant
- can be used on materials that cannot withstand heat

contraindications
- toxic
- discolouration and corrosion

103
Q

indications and contraindications of chlorine dioxide

A

indications
- rapid acting and effective
- can be sued as surface disinfectant or chemical sterilant

contraindications
- does not penetrate organic debris
- must be prepared aily
- corrosive to aluminum

104
Q

indications and contraindications for ortho-phthalaldehyde

A

indications
- good for sensitivity to glutaraldehyde
- does not require activation

contraindications
- cost
- may stain skin and fabrics
- cannot sterilize

105
Q

what are the routes of drug administration

A

oral route - pills, tablets
topical route - application on surface of mucosa
transdermal - through patch that continuously releases a controlled quantity of medication through skin
inhalation route - breathing in gaseous substance through mouth or nose
sublingual route - placing medication under tongue
injection route - subcutaneous, intramuscular, intradermal, implanted pump

106
Q

forms of injection routes

A

subcutaneous
- directly under skin

intramuscular
- into a muscle

intradermal
- into the skin

implanted pump
- surgically implanted pump that delivers medication continuously

107
Q

what type of drug do you use for pain control

A

you would prescribed analgesic

108
Q

if a pt is allergic to penicillin, what drug would your dentist prescribe

A

erythromycin, clindamycin

109
Q

what is an antifungal used for

A

to fight certain types of fungal infections (nyastatin is prescribed)

110
Q

what drug slows the flow of blood down

A

epinephrine

111
Q

1:50,000 would be found in what type of local anesthetic

A

epinephrine

112
Q

pt calls with problems from a drug given yesterday- how do you handle this

A

call the dentist

113
Q

permanent discolouration of the teeth and possible hypoplasia may be result of what drug exposure

A

tetracycline

114
Q

why do you aspirate the local anesthetic syring

A

to ensure no solution is being injected into a vessel

115
Q

what are examples of vasoconstrictors

A

articaine
bupivacaine
lidocaine
mepivacaine
prilocaine

116
Q

what is the step after the retraction cord is placed in a crown prep

A

remove cord and immediately place impression

117
Q

what is the use of glass ionomer

A

type I - luting agent
type II - restore erosion on class V
type III - liners and bases
type IV - pits and fissure sealants
type V - cementation of ortho appliances
type VI - core buildup

118
Q

use of zoe

A

type I - temp cementation or provisional coverage
type II - permanent cementations
type III - thermal base
type IV - cavity liner

119
Q

use for polycarboxylate

A

final cementation
long term temp cementation
base

120
Q

use for zinc phosphate

A

type I - permanent restorations
type II - insulating base

121
Q

what are reversible hydrocolloids

A

changes its physical state from a sol to a gel then back to a sol

122
Q

what type of elastomeric impression materials capable of setting in a moist environment

A

silicone and alginate

123
Q

what does overbite mean

A

when the max jaw overlaps the mand jaw (class II)

124
Q

what are bone forming cells

A

osteoblasts

125
Q

what will happen if you use a pulp tester on a live tooth

A

they will feel the electrical current

126
Q

what could be used to detect a vertical fracture in the crown of a tooth

A

visual assessment
palpation
xrays
percussion

127
Q

what is an apicoectomy

A

surgical removal of the apical portion of the tooth through a surgical opening

128
Q

what is a universal extraction forcep

A

used to extract same type of tooth on any quadrant

129
Q

what type of strokes do you use when polishing

A

short intermittent overlapping strokes

130
Q

what are the forms of sutures

A

absorbable
- plain catgut
- chromic catgut
- polyglactin

nonabsorbable
- silk
- polyester fiber
- nylon

131
Q

what is chronological age

A

the childs actual age in terms of years and months

132
Q

what is the mental age

A

childs level of intellectual capacity and development

133
Q

what is the emotional age

A

describes the childs level of emotional maturity

134
Q

what is the eriksons stage

A

learning basic trust
- birth to 12 months

learning autonomy
- 1-2 years

play age
- 3-5 years

school age
- 6-11 years

adolescence
- 12- 20 years

135
Q

what is the fankl scale

A

1: definitely negative - patient refuses treatment

2: negative - reluctant to accept treatment

3: positive - acceptance of treatment

4: definitely positive - good rapport with dentist

136
Q

what is pain control

A

prevention and treatment of anxiety and pain
- analgesia
- anesthesia
- paresthesia
- sedation
- conscious sedation

137
Q

what is pediatric dentistry

A

specialized area of dentistry that is dedicated to the oral health of infants, children, adolescants and individuals with special needs

138
Q

muscles of the face

A

orbicularis oris - closes and puckers lips
buccinator - compresses cheeks
mentalis - raises and wrinkles skin of chin
zygomatic major - draws angles of mouth
temporalis - raises and closes mandible
masseter - raises and closes mandible
internal pterygoid - closes jaw
external pterygoid - depresses mandible to open jaw

139
Q

what are the salivary glands

A

parotid glands - on sides of cheel
submandibular - on sidesof jaw
sublingual - under the tongue

140
Q

bones of the cranium

A

frontal
parietal
occipital
temporal
sphenoid
ethmoid

141
Q

bones of the face

A

zygomatic
maxillary
palatine
nasal
lacrimal
vomer
inferior conchae
mandible

142
Q

bones of auditory ossicles

A

malleus
incus
stapes

143
Q

processes of bones

A

zygomatic
mastoid
styloid

144
Q

what is the name of cells that form dentin

A

odontoblasts

145
Q

what is an antagonist when referring to teeth

A

a tooth in one jaw that articulates during mastication or occlusions with a totoh in the opposing jaw

146
Q

stages of bone formation

A

initiation stage - formation of dental lamina

bud stage - beginning development of each tooth

cap stage - cells of the tooth grow and increase in number

bell stage - cells differentiate and become more specialized

147
Q

what is the specialized lining of the tooth socket

A

lamina dura

148
Q

how many roots are on the max first premolar

A

two roots

149
Q

what does virulence mean

A

strength of pathogens ability to cause disease

150
Q

what is candida albicans

A

a yeast like fungus that cuases a supeficial infection called candidiasis

151
Q

how does the amouther of filled effect a composite resin

A

determines the strength and wear resistance of the material

152
Q

what is the thin layer of debris composed of fluird found on the dentin after a cavity prep

A

smear layer

153
Q

what happens if you add too much water to gypsum

A

will be too runny, hard to manipulate and sets longer

154
Q

what facts will delay the set of gypsum products

A

temperature of water
temperature
amount of water

155
Q

where can you use glass ionomer as a permanent filling

A

class III and V

156
Q

what cement adds powder to liquid in small increments and utilizes a wide area of slab to dissipate the heat

A

zinc phosphate

157
Q

where do you place the plastic u shaped frame over or under the dam

A

under the dam

158
Q

the higher the gauge the _____ the needle

A

smaller

159
Q

what does whmis stand for

A

workplace hazardous materials information system

160
Q

where do you flush your water lines into

A

tub

161
Q

what does msds stand for

A

material safety data sheet

162
Q

what will deficiency of vitamin c cause

A

scurvy

163
Q

pellagra is a result of wht

A

deficiency in niacin or b3

164
Q

what vitamin is responsible for blood clotting

A

vitamin K

165
Q

what strip do you use to get ride of an amalgam overhang

A

lightning strip

166
Q

what is teh function of calcium hydroxide

A

low strength liner and base

167
Q

what colour is the nitrous oxide tank

A

its blue

168
Q

what end of the condenser do you start with when placing amalgam

A

smaller end

169
Q

what is the best light to select a tooth shade with

A

natural light

170
Q

why cant you use a zinc phosphate close to the pulp

A

the phosphate can cause irritation to the pulp due to its acidity

171
Q

if an etched tooth gets saliva, what do you have to do

A

dry the tooth and etch again

172
Q

what is the proper method of removing a hydroclloid impression

A

with a quick snap to break the seal

173
Q

what instruments are good for inverting the rubber dam

A

sppon excavator
beavertail

174
Q

what is the other name for an anchor hole

A

keypunch hole

175
Q

what is a cervical clamp used for

A

required if the gingival third of the tooth is to be restored

176
Q

where do you get vitamin D

A

sun

177
Q

what causes rickets

A

lack of vitamin d or calcium

178
Q

what stain is composed of chromogenic bacteria and fungi

A

green stain

179
Q

what is dilantin

A

medication used to treat seizures

180
Q

what is niacitin

A
181
Q

what are the antibiotics used in dental

A

penicillin, eurythromyacin, amoxicillin

182
Q

if you have a tooth moving, into bone

A

resorption (deposition occudes on other side)

phase 2 finals (3 decks)

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