Part 1, Section 4 - ARRIVAL AND APPROACH PROCEDURES

Question 1

5 approach segments:

Answer 1

They are the arrival, initial, intermediate, final and missed approach segments

Question 2

In the case of non-precision approaches, a straight-in approach is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is ___ or less.

Answer 2

In the case of non-precision approaches, a straight-in approach is considered acceptable if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centre line is 30° or less.

Question 3

Category B is _____ indicated airspeed (IAS)

Answer 3

Category B is 91kts - 120kts indicated airspeed (IAS)

140kts For reversal and racetrack procedures

Question 4

Category B is _____ indicated airspeed (IAS)

Answer 4

Category B is 91kts - 120kts indicated airspeed (IAS)

140kts For reversal and racetrack procedures

Question 5

What is a Continuous descent final approach (CDFA)

Answer 5

This technique requires a continuous descent, flown either with VNAV guidance calculated by on-board equipment or based on manual calculation of the required rate of descent, without level-offs. The rate of descent is selected and adjusted to achieve a continuous descent to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should begin for the type of aircraft flown. The descent shall be calculated and flown to pass at or above the minimum altitude at any stepdown fix

Question 6

It should be emphasized that upon approaching the MDA/H only two options exist for the crew: _____ & _____

Answer 6

Continue the descent below MDA/H to land with the required visual references in sight; or, execute a missed approach.

Question 7

What is a Constant angle descent

Answer 7

The technique involves achieving a constant, unbroken angle from the final approach fix (FAF), to a reference datum above the runway threshold, e.g. 15 m (50 ft). When the aircraft approaches the MDA/H, a decision shall be made to either continue on the constant angle or level off at or above the MDA/H, depending on visual conditions.

Question 8

What is a Stepdown descent

Answer 8

The technique involves an expeditious descent and is described as “descend immediately to not below the minimum stepdown fix altitude/height or MDA/H, as appropriate”. This technique is acceptable as long as the achieved descent gradient remains less than 15 per cent and the missed approach is initiated at or before the MAPt. Careful attention to altitude control is required with this technique due to the high rates of descent before reaching the MDA/H and, thereafter, because of the increased time of exposure to obstacles at the minimum descent altitude.

Question 9

The minimum/optimum descent gradient/angle in the final approach of a procedure with _____. Where a steeper descent gradient is necessary, the maximum permissible is _____

Answer 9

The minimum/optimum descent gradient/angle in the final approach of a procedure with FAF is 5.2 per cent/3.0° (52 m/km (318 ft/NM)). Where a steeper descent gradient is necessary, the maximum permissible is 6.5 per cent/3.7° (65 m/km (395 ft/NM))​

Question 10

Speed for initial approach Cat B:

Answer 10

120kts-180kts

(140kts For reversal and racetrack procedure)

Question 11

Speeds for Final approach segment Cat B:

Answer 11

85kts - 130kts

Question 12

Max speed for visual maneuvering Cat B

Answer 12

135 kts

Question 13

Maximum speed for Initial missed approach segment Cat B

Answer 13

130 kts

Question 14

Maximum speed for final missed approach segment Cat B:

Answer 14

150 kts

Question 15

MSA

Minimum sector altitudes or terminal arrival altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least _____ obstacle clearance within _____ of the significant point

Answer 15

Minimum sector altitudes or terminal arrival altitudes are established for each aerodrome and provide at least 300 m (1 000 ft) obstacle clearance within 46 km (25 NM) of the significant point

Question 16

The initial approach segment begins at the _____ and ends at the _____

Answer 16

The initial approach segment begins at the initial approach fix (IAF) and ends at the intermediate fix (IF)

Question 17

The initial approach segment provides at least _____ of obstacle clearance in the primary area, reducing laterally to zero at the outer edge of the secondary area.

Answer 17

The initial approach segment provides at least 300 m (1 000 ft) of obstacle clearance in the primary area, reducing laterally to zero at the outer edge of the secondary area.

Question 18

45°/180° procedure turn, starts at a facility or fix and consists of:

Answer 18

1) a straight leg with track guidance. This straight leg may be timed or may be limited by a radial or DME distance;
2) a 45° turn;

3) a straight leg without track guidance. This straight leg is timed. It is:
i) 1 minute from the start of the turn for Category A and B aircraft; and
ii) 1 minute 15 seconds from the start of the turn for Category C, D and E aircraft; and

4) a 180° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track.

Question 19

80°/260° procedure turn, starts at a facility or fix and consists of:

Answer 19

1) a straight leg with track guidance. This straight leg may be timed or may be limited by a radial or DME distance;
2) an 80° turn;
3) a 260° turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound track.

Question 20

Base turn consists of:

Answer 20

1) a specified outbound track and timing or DME distance from a facility; followed by
2) a turn to intercept the inbound track (see Figure I-4-3-1 C).

The outbound track and/or the timing may be different for the various categories of aircraft. Where this is done, separate procedures are published.

Question 21

A racetrack procedure consists of:

Answer 21

a) a turn from the inbound track through 180° from overhead the facility or fix on to the outbound track, for 1, 2 or

3 minutes; followed by

b) a 180° turn in the same direction to return to the inbound track.

Question 22

Entry into a racetrack procedure:

Offset

Answer 22

Offset entry shall limit the time on the 30° offset track to 1 min 30 s, after which the pilot is expected to turn to a heading parallel to the outbound track for the remainder of the outbound time. If the outbound time is only 1 min, the time on the 30° offset track shall be 1 min also;

Question 23

Entry into a racetrack procedure:

Parallel

Answer 23

parallel entry shall not return directly to the facility without first intercepting the inbound track when proceeding to the final segment of the approach procedure; and all manoeuvring shall be done in so far as possible on the manoeuvring side of the inbound track.

Question 24

Unless the procedure specifies particular entry restrictions, reversal procedures shall be entered from a track within ±_____° of the outbound track of the reversal procedure. However, for base turns, where the ±_____° direct entry sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track, the entry sector is expanded to include it.

Answer 24

Unless the procedure specifies particular entry restrictions, reversal procedures shall be entered from a track within ±30° of the outbound track of the reversal procedure. However, for base turns, where the ±30° direct entry sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track, the entry sector is expanded to include it.

Question 25

Procedures are based on average achieved bank angle of ____, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of _____/second, whichever is less.

Answer 25

Procedures are based on average achieved bank angle of 25°, or the bank angle giving a rate of turn of 3°/second, whichever is less.

Question 26

An aircraft is considered established when it is:

Answer 26

• Within half full scale deflection for the ILS and VOR; or
• Within ±5° of the required bearing for the NDB.

Question 27

Racetrack timing ourbound when the procedure is based on a facility, the outbound timing starts:

Answer 27

a) from abeam the facility; or
b) on attaining the outbound heading,

whichever comes later.

Question 28

When the Racetrack procedure is based on a fix, the outbound timing starts from:

Answer 28

Attaining the outbound heading.

Question 29

The turn on to the inbound track in a Racetrack procedure should be started:

Answer 29

a) within the specified time (adjusted for wind); or
b) when encountering any DME distance; or
c) when the radial/bearing specifying a limiting distance has been reached,

whichever occurs first.

Question 30

To achieve a stabilized approach, due allowance should be made in both _____ and _____ to compensate for the effects of wind so that the aircraft regains the inbound track as accurately and expeditiously as possible.

Answer 30

To achieve a stabilized approach, due allowance should be made in both heading and timing to compensate for the effects of wind so that the aircraft regains the inbound track as accurately and expeditiously as possible.

Question 31

During the intermediate approach, the obstacle clearance requirement reduces from _____ to _____ inthe primary area, reducing laterally _____ at the outer edge of the secondary area.

Answer 31

During the intermediate approach, the obstacle clearance requirement reduces from 300 m (984 ft) to 150 m (492 ft) inthe primary area, reducing laterally to zero at the outer edge of the secondary area.

Question 32

Where a final approach fix (FAF) is available, the intermediate approach segment begins when the aircraft is on the _____ of the procedure turn, _____ of the racetrack procedure. It ends at the _____, as applicable.

Answer 32

Where a final approach fix (FAF) is available, the intermediate approach segment begins when the aircraft is on the inbound track of the procedure turn, base turn or final inbound leg of the racetrack procedure. It ends at the FAF or final approach point (FAP), as applicable.

Question 33

Where no FAF is specified, the _____ is the final approach segment.

Answer 33

Where no FAF is specified, the inbound track is the final approach segment.

Question 34

Types of final approach

Answer 34

a) Non-precision approach (NPA) with final approach fix (FAF);
b) NPA without FAF;
c) Approach with vertical guidance (APV); and
d) Precision approach (PA).

Question 35

When obstacles are close to final approach or stepdown fixes, they are discounted for Category A aircraft if they lie below a _____ plane relative to the earliest point defined by the fix tolerance area and MOC.

Answer 35

When obstacles are close to final approach or stepdown fixes, they are discounted for Category A aircraft if they liebelow a 15 per cent plane relative to the earliest point defined by the fix tolerance area and MOC.

Question 36

Aircraft is considered established on a LOC when:

Answer 36

When within half scale deflection

Question 37

Aircraft is considered established on a Glide Slope when:

Answer 37

Within half scale fly up and full scale fly down deflection

Question 38

Aircraft is considered established on a NPA when:

Answer 38

Within +/- 5 degrees from desired course

Question 39

The 3 missed approach segments are:

Answer 39

Initial segment

Intermediate segment

Final segment

Question 40

The missed approach should be initiated not lower than _____ in precision approach procedures, or at a specified point in non-precision approach procedures not lower than _____

Answer 40

The missed approach should be initiated not lower than the decision altitude/height (DA/H) in precision approach procedures, or at a specified point in non-precision approach procedures not lower than the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H).

Question 41

Missed approach climb gradient:

Answer 41

Normally procedures are based on a minimum missed approach climb gradient of 2.5 per cent.

Question 42

The missed approach initial phase begins at the _____ and ends at the _____.

Answer 42

The missed approach initial phase begins at the MAPt and ends at the start of climb (SOC).

Question 43

The missed approach intermediate phase begins at the _____. The climb is continued, normally straight ahead. It extends to the first point where _____ obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained

Answer 43

The missed approach intermediate phase begins at the SOC. The climb is continued, normally straight ahead. It extends to the first point where 50 m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained

Question 44

Missed approach phases standard depiction

Answer 44

Question 45

Circling procedures are _____ to helicopters.

Answer 45

Circling procedures are not applicable to helicopters.

Question 46

During circling descent below MDA/H should not be made until:

Answer 46

a) visual reference has been established and can be maintained;
b) the pilot has the landing threshold in sight; and
c) the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing.

Question 47

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the missed approach specified for _____ shall be followed.

Answer 47

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, the missed approach specified for that particular procedure shall be followed.

Question 48

(How Many) _____ missed approach procedure is published for each approach procedure.

Answer 48

Only one missed approach procedure is published for each approach procedure.