Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Histone synthesis occurs during __ phase

A

S

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2
Q

CpG islands in DNA _______ transcription

A

Represses

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3
Q

The template strand of DNA is methylated at ________ and _______ bases allowing recognition of the template in replication

A

cytosine and adenine

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4
Q

Histone acetylation __________ transcription.

A

increases/allows

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5
Q

Amino acids required for purine synthesis

A

glycine, aspartate, glutamine

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6
Q

Leflunomide

A

Disrupts pyrimidine syntesis by inhibit dihydroorotate dehydrogenase.

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7
Q

Methotrexate

A

Inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase, inhibiting pyrimidine sythesis

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8
Q

Trimethoprim

A

Inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase, inhibiting pyrimidine sythesis

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9
Q

Pyrimethamine

A

Inhibits Dihydrofolate reductase, inhibiting pyrimidine sythesis

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10
Q

5-fluorouracil

A

inhibits pyrimidine synthesis by forming 5-f-dUMP.

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11
Q

6 mercaptopurine

A

prodrug is azathioprine, inhibits purine syntesis.

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12
Q

Mycophenolate

A

inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase and thus guanine synthesis.

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13
Q

Ribavirin

A

inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase and thus guanine synthesis.

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14
Q

Hydroxyurea

A

interrupts both purine and pyrimidine synthesis by inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase.

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15
Q

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

A

Absent HGPRT, no purine salvage. H: hyperurecemia G: gout P: pissed off (aggressive and selfmutilating) R: retardation T: dysTonia Tx: Allopurinol

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16
Q

Nucleotide excision repair

A

endonuclease release the damaged bases, filled in by DNA pol and ligase. Repairs bulky helix distorting mutations. Occurs in G1. Defective in Xeroderm pigmentosum.

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17
Q

Base Excision Repair

A

Glycosylase removes, Endonuclease removes an additional and cleaves 5’ end, Lyase cleaves 3’ end, DNA pol fills in the gap and DNA ligase seals. Occurs throughout cell cycle. GEL PLease

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18
Q

Mismatch Repair

A

Occurs in G2 mostly, defective in Lynch Syndrome (heriditary nonplyposis colorectal cancer)

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19
Q

Nonhomolgous end joining

A

DNA lost in the process usually. Defective in ataxia telangiectasia, BRCA1, and Fanconi anemia.

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20
Q

Stop codons

A

UGA UAG UAA

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21
Q

RNA Pol I

A

makes rRNA

22
Q

RNA pol II

A

makes mRNA

23
Q

RNA pol III

A

makes tRNA

24
Q

tRNA

A

70-90 nucleotides, Amino acid bound to 3’ end at the CCA sequence. T arm (nearest to 3’ end) tethers to the ribosome. D arm detects the aminoacyl tRNA synthetase.

25
Q

Thyroid Papillary Carcinoma

A

Most common, childhood exposure to radiation, Orphan Annie eyed nuclei w/ nuclear grooves, psamomma bodies, good prognosis

26
Q

Thyroid Follicular Carcinoma

A

Fibrous capsule with invasion. Not distinguishable with FNA. One of four cancers that spread hematogenously.

27
Q

4 Cancers that spread hematogenously

A

Thyroid Follicular Carcinoma, RCC, HCC, Choriocarcinoma

28
Q

Thyroid Medullary Carcinoma

A

Malignant Proliferation of parafollicular C cells. High levels of Calcitonin may cause hypocalcemia. Calcitonin amyloid. Associated with MEN2A/MEN2B (RET)

29
Q

Thyroid Anaplastic Carcinoma

A

Undifferentiated malignant tumor, found in the elderly, often invades local structures (Airway), poor prognosis.

30
Q

Parathyroid Adenoma

A

Bening, releases PTH which may cause nephrolithiasis, nephrocalcinosis, CNS disturbances, constipation, peptic ulcer disease, pancreatitis, osteitis fibrosa cystica.

31
Q

Human Placental Lactogen (hPL)

A

Causes pancreatic beta cell proliferation in the 3rd trimester, increases maternal lipolysis, enhances ketogenesis, and decreases maternal glucose use.

32
Q

Estriol

A

Dominant estrogen in 3rd trimester, requires contribution from fetal adrenals and liver.

33
Q

Segemented Viruses

A

BOAR: Bunya, Orthomyxo, Arena, Reo

34
Q

B-ALL

A

CD10, CD19, CD20+ excellent response to CTX. Associated with t(12:21) and t(9:22).

35
Q

T-ALL

A

CD2-CD8+, presents as thymic mass in teenage.

36
Q

AML

A

Several subtypes, MPO seen as Auer rods, average onset at 50-60

37
Q

Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia

A

Subtype of AML, t(15:17), mutation in the rentinoic acid receptor, Auer rods may cause DIC. Tx: All-trans retinoic acid, which causes blasts to mature.

38
Q

Acute Monocytic Leukemia

A

Subtype of AML, monoblasts will infiltrate gums

39
Q

Acute Magekaryoblastic Leukemia

A

Subtype of AML, no MPO, associated with Down Syndrome after the age of 5.

40
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Cytopenias with hypercellular bone marrow. Blasts increased by lower than 20%. High risk of fatal infection or bleed. May progress to leukemia.

41
Q

CLL

A

Naive B cells CD5 and CD20+, smudge cells on blood smear, can cause a lymphoma in the LN, hypogammaglobulinema, autoimmune hemolytic anemia,. Can progress to large B cell lymphoma.

42
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A

Mature B cells with “hairy” cytoplasmic processes. TRAP+. Spenlomegaly restricted to red pulp, dry bone marrow tap, usually no LAD. Tx: 2-CDA

43
Q

Adult T cell Leukemia/Lymphoma

A

CD4+ Tcells, associated with HTLV-1. Rash, lymphadenopathy, HSM, lytic bone lesions, hypercalcemia.

44
Q

CML

A

mature myeloid cells, basophils are increased, t(9:22) BCR-ABL fusion, increased tyrosine kinase activity, tx: infliximab. If splenomegaly is getting worse, indicates progression towards acute leukemia (AML or ALL).

45
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

mature myeloid cells, especially RBCs. JAK2 mutation, blurry vision, headache, venous thrombosis, flushed face, itching after bathing. Risk of Budd-Chiari. Tx: Phlebotomy, hydroxyurea. EPO is low and SaO2 is normal.

46
Q

Essential Thrombocythemia

A

Mature myeloid, especially platelets, JAK2 mutation, risk of bleeding or thrombosis. Rarely progresses to leukemia, gout, or fibrosis.

47
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

Mature myeloid, especially megakaryocytes. Makes extra PDGF which causes bone marrow fibrosis. Splenomegaly due to hematopoesis, leukoerythroblastic cells on smear (no reticulin gates), tear drop cells on smear. Risk of infection, thrombosis, and bleeding.

48
Q

Rituximab

A

anti CD20+ useful in small B cell lymphoma

49
Q

Nonhodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

Small cell types: Follicular, Mantle (cyclinD), Marginal (associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, sjogren’s, and H pylori)
Intermediate Cell types: Burkitt Lymphoma associated with EBV, c-myc translocation, starry sky histology.
Diffuse Large Cell: most common NHL, clinically aggressive, can be from follicular lymphoma.

50
Q

Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells (CD15 and CD30+), Nodular Sclerosing is most common type, presents in young females, histology shows broad bands of fibrosis within the LN and lacunar cells (isolated Reed Sternberg cells)