Parenteral Nutrition Flashcards

1
Q

A pregnant patient is admitted with hyperemesis gravidarium (HEG). Which of the following is a clinical indication for PN use?

1: Vomiting NOT controlled with supportive care within 48 hours
2: Intolerance to EN trial and supportive care measures
3: Patient refusal of EN tube placement
4: Fluid and electrolyte imbalances

A

2: Intolerance to EN trial and supportive care measures

Hyperemesis gravidarum (HEG) is a severe form of pregnancy-induced nausea and vomiting. Due to the likelihood that the patient’s nutritional intake has been poor for several weeks due to vomiting, EN or PN may be required. Prior to implementation of nutritional therapy for HEG, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, ketonuria, and dehydration would be treated via IV fluid. Multivitamins with additional B vitamins are typically added to address suboptimal vitamin intake and prevent complications such as neuropathies (B6 and B12), Wernicke’s encephalopathy (thiamine), and neural tube defects (folic acid). Antiemetic treatment would begin and oral intake would temporarily be avoided. Initiation of an EN trial for HEG would be appropriate if the patient is still unable to take oral feedings after 24-48 hours of supportive therapy as listed above. If the EN trial fails due to exacerbated nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, significant gastric residuals, or tube displacement and is associated with clinically significant weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), it is appropriate to begin PN

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2
Q

Rapid intravenous infusion of potassium phosphate may result in

1: thrombophlebitis.
2: hypercalcemia.
3: metabolic alkalosis.
4: vitamin D deficiency.

A

1: thrombophlebitis.

Infusion rates of phosphate should not exceed 7 mmol/h because faster infusion rates can often cause thrombophlebitis (ie, potassium phosphate) and metastatic calcium-phosphate deposition with potential resultant organ dysfunction.

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3
Q

What is the most common complication associated with PN administration?

1: Hypophosphatemia
2: Renal dysfunction
3: Sepsis
4: Hyperglycemia

A

4: Hyperglycemia

Hyperglycemia is the most common complication associated with PN administration and can be caused by various factors. Stress-associated hyperglycemia in acutely ill and septic patients often develops as a result of insulin resistance, increased gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, and suppressed insulin secretion.

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4
Q

Stress-associated hyperglycemia in acutely ill and septic patients often develops as a result:

(name 4)

A
  1. insulin resistance,
  2. Increased gluconeogenesis (non CHO –> glucose)
  3. Increased glycogenolysis (glycogen –> glucose)
  4. suppressed insulin secretion
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5
Q

What is the glycemic target for the majority of critically ill adult patients?

1: 80 to 110 mg/dL
2: 220 to 240 mg/dL
3: 140 to 180 mg/dL
4: 180 to 220 mg/dL

A

3: 140 to 180 mg/dL

The current recommendation for glycemic target by the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists (AACE) and the American Diabetes Association (ADA) is to maintain the glucose level between 140-180 mg/dL for the majority of critically ill adult patients. Lower glucose targets (110 mg/dl to 140 mg/dL) may be appropriate for some patients, but this is only appropriate when this can be safely achieved. Targets less than 110 mg/dl are not recommended due to the adverse effects of hypoglycemia.

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6
Q

What is the preferred approach recommended by the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists (AACE) and the American Diabetes Association (ADA) for subcutaneous insulin administration in the hospitalized adult patient with diabetes mellitus?

1: Sliding-scale insulin therapy
2: Basal insulin therapy
3: Bolus insulin therapy
4: Basal-bolus insulin therapy

A

4: Basal-bolus insulin therapy

The preferred approach for subcutaneous insulin administration is basal-bolus insulin therapy. This approach allows for basal insulin administered for hepatic glucose output combined with scheduled bolus insulin administered for meal times. There are three components to basal-bolus insulin therapy; basal insulin, nutritional component prior to meals and a correctional insulin.

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7
Q

Which form of glutamine supplementation improves physical compatibility and stability for admixture in PN solutions?

1: Glutamine dipeptide
2: Free glutamine
3: L-glutamine powder
4: Protein bound glutamine.

A

1: Glutamine dipeptide

Glutamine supplementation is available in parenteral solutions, some predigested enteral formulas, and oral nutrition supplements. Glutamine dipeptide products such as L-alanyl-L-glutamine and Glycyl-L-glutamine improve water solubility, stability during heat sterilization, and the capability for prolonged shelf life when compounding in parenteral solutions. Free glutamine is unstable in parenteral solutions. Parenteral glutamine supplementation is more beneficial than enteral supplementation. Enteral glutamine is protein bound and it is difficult to determine the exact glutamine content. L glutamine powder is used in oral nutrition supplements.

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8
Q

Which of the following additives has the greatest risk of destabilizing the intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) in a total nutrient admixture (TNA)?

1: Sodium chloride
2: Calcium acetate
3: Iron dextran
4: Potassium phosphate

A

3: Iron dextran

Phase separation and the liberation of free oil from the destabilization of TNAs can result over time when an excess of cations is added to a given formulation. The higher the cation valence, the greater the destabilizing power; thus, trivalent cations such as Fe +3 (from iron dextran) are more disruptive than divalent cations such as calcium and magnesium. Monovalent cations such as sodium and potassium are least disruptive to the emulsifier, yet when given in sufficiently high concentrations, they may also produce instability. There is no safe concentration of iron dextran in any TNA.

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9
Q

Which of the following factors has been associated with an increase in prescribing errors related to PN formulations?

1: Standardized PN order form
2: Calculation of PN dosages
3: PN components ordered as amount per day
4: PN components listed in same sequence on order form as PN label

A

2: Calculation of PN dosages

Common factors associated with the majority of PN prescribing errors include: inadequate knowledge regarding PN therapy, certain patient characteristics related to PN therapy (e.g., age, impaired renal function), miscalculation of PN dosages, specialized PN dosage formulation characteristics, and prescribing nomenclature.

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10
Q

According to the A.S.P.E.N. PN Safety Consensus Recommendations, which of the following is the best method to express the dextrose content on the label of a PN formulation in order to avoid misinterpretation?

1: Volume of the percent original concentration added (e.g., 500 mL of 50% dextrose)
2: Grams per liter (e.g., 250g/L)
3: Percent of final concentration after admixture (e.g., 35% dextrose)
4: Grams per 24-hour nutrient infusion (e.g., 225 g/day)

A

4: Grams per 24-hour nutrient infusion (e.g., 225 g/day

PN ingredients shall be ordered in amounts per day for adults and amounts per kilogram per day for pediatric and neonatal patients. This limits the confusion of conversion from amounts per liter, percent concentration, or volume. Amount per day refers to macronutrients in grams per day and micronutrients in mEq, mmol, mcg, or mg per day.

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11
Q

According to the A.S.P.E.N. PN Safety Consensus Recommendations all of the following are considered to be mandatory for the PN order form EXCEPT

1: Full generic name for each ingredient (unless brand name can identify unique properties of specific dosage form)
2: Recommended laboratory monitoring
3: Infusion schedule (continuous or cyclic)
4: Electrolytes ordered as complete salt form rather than individual ion

A

2: Recommended laboratory monitoring

The addition of recommended laboratory monitoring to PN order forms is strongly recommended, but it is not required.

A complete PN order shall contain the following: complete patient identifiers, birth date or age, allergies, height and dosing weight in metric units, diagnosis/diagnoses, indication(s) for PN, administration route/vascular access device (peripheral versus central), contact information for prescriber, date and time order submitted, administration date and time, volume and infusion rate, infusion schedule (continuous or cyclic), and type of formulation (TNA versus dextrose/amino acids with separate IVFE). PN ingredients shall be ordered as follows: amounts per day (for adult patients) or amounts per kilogram per day (for pediatric and neonatal patients), electrolytes as complete salt form, full generic name for each ingredient, using The Joint Commission approved abbreviations and avoiding ISMP error prone abbreviations, symbols, and dose designations, dose for each macronutrient and electrolyte, dose for vitamins (including MVI and individual entities), dose for trace elements (including multi-components and/or individual entities), dose for each non-nutrient medication.

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12
Q

According to the A.S.P.E.N. PN Safety Consensus Recommendations all of the following are considered to be mandatory for the inpatient PN label EXCEPT

1: infusion rate expressed in mL/h.
2: beyond-use date and time.
3: size of in-line filter (1.2 or 0.22 micron).
4: electrolyte content expressed in individual ions.

A

4: electrolyte content expressed in individual ions.

Ingredients are to be expressed on the PN label in the same sequence and units of measure as the PN order. Electrolytes are to be ordered as complete salt forms as opposed to individual ions.

The PN label should include the following: two patient identifiers, patient location or address, dosing weight in metric units, administration date and time, beyond use date and time, route of administration (central versus peripheral), prescribed volume and overfill volume, infusion rate in mL/h, duration of infusion (continuous versus cyclic), size of in-line filter (1.2 or 0.22 micron), completer name of all ingredients, barcode, all ingredients shall be listed in the same sequence and same units of measure as PN order, name of institution or pharmacy, and institution or pharmacy contact information (including telephone number). If IVFE is to be infused separately, the IVFE label should include: two patient identifiers, patient location or address, dosing weight, administration date and time, route of administration (central versus peripheral), prescribed about of IVFE and volume required to deliver that amount, infusion rate in mL/h, duration of infusion (not longer than 12 hours), complete name of IVFE, beyond use date and time, name of institution or pharmacy, and institution or pharmacy telephone number.

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13
Q

What is the nutritional value of the following PN order? 2400 mL with 300 grams dextrose and 90 grams protein in addition to 225 mL 20% IVFE.
1: 1830 kcal, 90 grams protein, 40 grams fat, 2625 mL
2: 2010 kcal, 90 grams protein, 40 grams fat, 2400 mL
3: 1830 kcal, 90 grams protein, 45 grams fat, 2625 mL
4: 1470 kcal, 90 grams protein, 45 grams fat, 2400 mL

A

3: 1830 kcal, 90 grams protein, 45 grams fat, 2625 mL

One (1) gram of dextrose is equal to 3.4 calories. One (1) gram of protein is equal to 4 calories. One (1) mL of 20% IVFE is equal to 2 calories. IVFE 20% provides 20 grams/100 mL; thus 225 mL provides 45 grams fat. 2400 mL plus 225 mL equals 2625 mL.

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14
Q

A patient who weighs 75 kg is receiving 65 mL/hour of a 2-in-1 PN solution that contains 117 grams protein and 273 grams dextrose in addition to 250 mL of 20% IVFE. What is the daily caloric content of this regimen per kg body weight?

1: 27.5 kcal/kg/day
2: 21.9 kcal/kg/day
3: 26.5 kcal/kg/day
4: 25.3 kcal/kg/day

A

4: 25.3 kcal/kg/day

One (1) gram of dextrose is equal to 3.4 calories. One (1) gram of protein is equal to 4 calories. One (1) mL of 20% IVFE is equal to 2 calories. The total daily caloric intake equals 468 kcal (protein) + 928 kcal (dextrose) + 500 kcal (IVFE) or 1896 kcal/day. When divided by the patient’s weight of 75 kg the total daily caloric intake per kg is 25.3 kcal/kg/day.

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15
Q

In the critically ill obese patient, specific guidelines for the provision of calories and protein have been recommended by both the Society of Critical Care Medicine and the American Society for Parenteral and Enteral Nutrition. For a patient with a BMI > 30 kg/m2, which of the following choices best reflects those recommendations for parenteral and enteral nutrition?

1: 15-20 kcal/kg ideal body weight/day & less than 2.0 g/kg ideal body weight/day
2: 15-20 kcal/kg ideal body weight/day & greater than or equal to 2.0 g/kg ideal body weight/day
3: 22–25 kcal/kg ideal body weight/day & less than 2.0 g/kg ideal body weight/day
4: 22–25 kcal/kg ideal body weight/day & greater than or equal to 2.0 g/kg ideal body weight/day

A

4: 22–25 kcal/kg ideal body weight/day & greater than or equal to 2.0 g/kg ideal body weight/day

Hypocaloric feeding with parenteral and enteral nutrition is generally recommended in the critically ill obese patient. For all classes of obesity where BMI is >30 kg/m2, the goal of the parenteral and enteral regimen should not exceed 65% to 70% of target energy requirements or 11–14 kcal/kg actual body weight/day Protein should be provided in a range greater than or equal to 2.0 g/kg ideal body weight/day for class I and class II patients (BMI 30–40 kg/m2), greater than or equal to 2.5 g/kg ideal body weight/day for class III (BMI > 40kg/m2).

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16
Q

Which of the following is a indication for the use of parenteral nutrition (PN)?

1: High output fistula
2: Crohn’s disease
3: Pancreatitis
4: Hyperemesis gravidarum

A

1: High output fistula

PN is indicated for a non-functioning or inaccessible gastrointestinal tract. PN is indicated in patients with a high output fistula (>500 mL/day). PN is not routinely needed as nutrition support for Crohn’s disease. The preferred route of administration for nutrition intervention in patients with acute pancreatitis is EN. Only patients with severe hyperemesis gravidarum refractory to EN and pharmacotherapy would require PN.

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17
Q

When is parenteral nutrition (PN) indicated in severe burn patients?
1: Total body surface area burn exceeds 20%
2: As soon as possible after admission due to extremely high caloric needs
3: Enteral nutrition is contraindicated or unlikely to meet nutrition needs
4: Within 7-10 days after hospital admission

A

3: Enteral nutrition is contraindicated or unlikely to meet nutrition needs

Several studies have found that the use of PN in patients with burns has been associated with increased mortality. The use of PN in patients with burns is, therefore, reserved for patients who are unable to be fed enterally.

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18
Q

The routine use of perioperative parenteral nutrition (PN) is indicated for patients with a non-functioning GI tract who are

1: normally nourished.
2: mildly to moderately malnourished.
3: mildly malnourished with secondary co-morbidities.
4: severely malnourished.

A

4: severely malnourished.

Many studies have identified the severely malnourished patient as benefiting from preoperative nutrition support with PN. Results from multiple preoperative PN studies of surgical patients have shown no overall reduction in perioperative mortality. However, significant reductions in perioperative complications are achieved in the severely malnourished patient receiving more than 7 days of preoperative PN.

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19
Q

Which of the following is a indication for PN support in an adult cancer patient?

1: Abdominal tumor resulting in an unresolved small bowel obstruction for greater than seven days
2: Metastatic cancer, receiving palliative care
3: Receiving concurrent chemotherapy and radiation therapy
4: Mild malnutrition, scheduled for tumor resection surgery in three days

A

1: Abdominal tumor resulting in an unresolved small bowel obstruction for greater than seven days

Any adult patient with a gastrointestinal obstruction that precludes oral intake for at least one week may benefit from nutrition support. Mildly malnourished patients do not require PN unless oral intake is anticipated to be inadequate for more than one week. The palliative use of nutrition support in terminally ill cancer patients is rarely indicated. Most side effects of chemotherapy and radiation can be managed without the use of PN. Adult cancer patients scheduled for surgery who are severely malnourished may benefit from PN if the therapy can continue for 7-10 days preoperatively.

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20
Q

When should PN be used in Crohn’s disease?

1: As a primary therapy to rest the bowel
2: Only after failure to tolerate EN
3: To prevent associated malnutrition
4: Preoperatively regardless of nutrition status

A

2: Only after failure to tolerate EN

Studies comparing PN to EN in patients with Crohn’s disease found no advantage of parenteral over enteral nutrition. Remission rates were similar and there was no evidence that bowel rest with PN had any advantage. Therefore, EN should be used in patients with Crohn’s disease requiring nutrition support therapy. PN should be reserved for Crohn’s patients who do not tolerate EN. Peri-operative specialized nutrition support is indicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease who are severely malnourished and in whom surgery may be safely postponed.

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21
Q

Current recommendations regarding safe administration of intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) include

1: IVFE hang time up to 24 hours when included as part of a total nutrient admixture (TNA).
2: IVFE hang time up to 24 hours when administered as an infusion separate from PN.
3: Use of a 0.22 micron filter when administering a TNA to remove microorganisms from a contaminated PN.
4: Use of a 1.2 micron filter when administering a TNA to remove microorganisms from a contaminated PN.

A

1: IVFE hang time up to 24 hours when included as part of a total nutrient admixture (TNA).

TNA are more likely to be stable for 30 hours at room temperature (25 degrees Celsius) or for 9 days refrigerated (5 degrees Celsius) followed by 24 hours at room temperature. Prolonged storage and/or light exposure can result in degradation of some components of TNA. IVFEs are most stable at their manufactured pH (~6-9), and the addition of acidic dextrose can contribute to TNA instability. Electrolytes, especially positively charged cations calcium and magnesium neutralize the negative charge on the surface of the lipid particle. Commercially available IVFE in the US are stabilized with egg yolk phosphatides providing a mechanical and electrical barrier to particle coalescence. Amino acids offer a protective effect by enhancing the admixtures buffering effect.

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22
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate distal catheter tip placement of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)?

1: Cephalic vein
2: Superior vena cava
3: Internal jugular vein
4: Supraclavicular vein

A

2: Superior vena cava

A peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) is defined as a catheter inserted via peripheral vein whose distal tip lies in the vena cava. The cephalic or basilic vein is often used as the insertion site for PICCs. Central or peripheral access is not defined by the initial point of entry into the vascular system but rather by the position of the distal catheter tip. Central lines are defined as catheters with the distal tip in either the superior or inferior vena cava. Therefore, by definition, a PICC is used as central venous access.

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23
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a peripherally-inserted central catheter (PICC)?

1: High rate of catheter malposition
2: High risk of pneumothorax
3: Requires repeated skin puncture
4: Only available with single lumen

A

1: High rate of catheter malposition

PICC line disadvantages include: high rate of malposition; limited arm mobility; and limited ability to perform daily self-care due to the availability of only one hand. Advantages of PICC lines include: no risk of pneumothorax; available in single, double, and triple lumens; and repeated skin puncture is not required.

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24
Q

When is it most appropriate to start PN infusion in a patient with a new central venous catheter inserted at the bedside without fluoroscopy?

1: Immediately
2: After auscultating for catheter tip placement
3: After chest X-ray confirms correct placement of catheter tip
4: After ensuring there were no complications with insertion

A

3: After chest X-ray confirms correct placement of catheter tip

A common complication of central venous catheters inserted at the bedside is catheter misplacement, including pneumothorax. The use of fluoroscopy during catheter insertion allows immediate repositioning of the catheter tip to its correct location in the superior vena cava. PN solutions can be started immediately if the catheter was inserted with the use of fluoroscopy. However, central catheters placed at bedside without fluoroscopy should be radiographically confirmed and documented in the medical record before initial use. Once it has been determined the catheter is in the correct position, PN may be initiated. Auscultation is not a method to determine central venous catheter tip placement.

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25
Q

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which of the following is true regarding peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line care?

1: Scheduled replacement is recommended to prevent catheter-related blood stream infections (CRBSIs)
2: Remove the PICC line immediately if fever develops
3: Guidewire exchange should be used when the PICC is a suspected source of infection
4: Remove the PICC line only if it is suspected or known to be the source of infection

A

Current CDC recommendations: Do not routinely replace central venous catheters, peripherally inserted central catheters, hemodialysis catheters, or pulmonary artery catheters to prevent catheter-related infections. Catheter replacement at scheduled time intervals has not shown a decrease in CRBSI. Do not remove CVCs or PICCs based on fever alone. Clinical judgment should be used to determine appropriateness of catheter removal if infection is evidenced from another site or a noninfectious cause is suspected. Catheter insertion over a guidewire is associated with less discomfort and a lower rate of mechanical complication when compared to percutaneous insertion at a new site, but replacement of temporary catheters during bacteremia should not be done over a guidewire due to source of infection (colonization of skin to insertion site).

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26
Q

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which of the following is true regarding peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line care?

1: Scheduled replacement is recommended to prevent catheter-related blood stream infections (CRBSIs)
2: Remove the PICC line immediately if fever develops
3: Guidewire exchange should be used when the PICC is a suspected source of infection
4: Remove the PICC line only if it is suspected or known to be the source of infection

A

4: Remove the PICC line only if it is suspected or known to be the source of infection

Current CDC recommendations: Do not routinely replace central venous catheters, peripherally inserted central catheters, hemodialysis catheters, or pulmonary artery catheters to prevent catheter-related infections. Catheter replacement at scheduled time intervals has not shown a decrease in CRBSI. Do not remove CVCs or PICCs based on fever alone. Clinical judgment should be used to determine appropriateness of catheter removal if infection is evidenced from another site or a noninfectious cause is suspected. Catheter insertion over a guidewire is associated with less discomfort and a lower rate of mechanical complication when compared to percutaneous insertion at a new site, but replacement of temporary catheters during bacteremia should not be done over a guidewire due to source of infection (colonization of skin to insertion site).

27
Q

Which of the following central venous catheters is the LEAST favorable for PN infusion?
1: Peripherally Inserted Central Catheter (PICC)
2: Femoral Catheter
3: Subclavian Catheter
4: Internal Jugular Catheter

A

2: Femoral Catheter

The Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) Central Line Bundle should be used for central vascular access devices. This bundle is a group of evidenced-based interventions for patients with intravascular central catheters that, when implemented together, result in better outcomes than when implemented individually. One of the key components is optimal catheter site selection, with avoidance of central venous access devices with high risk for infection, such as femoral catheters, when alternate access is available.

28
Q

Which of the following PN formulas can be safely administered through a peripheral catheter?

1: 10% dextrose and 3% amino acid
2: 20% dextrose and 3% amino acid
3: 10% dextrose and 6% amino acid
4: 20% dextrose and 6% amino acid

A

1: 10% dextrose and 3% amino acid

A.S.P.E.N. Clinical Guidelines suggest that PN with an osmolarity of up to 900 mOsm/L can be safely infused peripherally. Infusion of hypertonic parenteral solutions exceeding 900 mOsm/L through a peripheral catheter may result in phlebitis. Solutions with an osmolarity > 900 mOsm/L require central access. The lower concentrated dextrose solutions (5, 10%) and amino acid solutions (3%) are most often used for peripheral administration. The osmolarity of 10% dextrose= 500 mOsm/L. The osmolarity of 3% amino acid= 300 mOsm/L.

29
Q

A.S.P.E.N. Clinical Guidelines suggest that PN with an osmolarity of up to *** mOsm/L can be safely infused peripherally. Infusion of hypertonic parenteral solutions exceeding this osmolarity infused through a peripheral catheter may result in phlebitis.

Solutions with an osmolarity > ** mOsm/L require central access.

A

900 mOsm/L

30
Q

Which of the following reduces the risk of calcium phosphate precipitation in PN?

1: Increased amino acid concentration
2: Use of calcium chloride as the calcium salt
3: Increased temperature
4: Adding calcium salt immediately after adding phosphate salt

A

1: Increased amino acid concentration

Increased concentration of amino acids reduce the risk of calcium phosphate precipitation by forming soluble complexes with calcium, thereby reducing the free calcium ions available to form insoluble dibasic calcium phosphate precipitates. Additionally, higher concentrations of amino acids may lower the pH of the PN formulation, which also improves calcium phosphate solubility. Calcium chloride dissociates more readily than calcium gluconate, increasing the free calcium ions available to bind with phosphate ions when using calcium chloride. Increasing temperature increases the dissociation of calcium salts. Storage under refrigeration reduces risk of calcium phosphate precipitation. When compounding PN, it is recommended to add the phosphate first and then add the calcium near the end of compounding to utilize the maximum volume of the PN formulation to dilute the salts. Adding the calcium and phosphate salts back-to-back causes locally high concentrations of these salts prior to adequate mixing.

31
Q

Which parenteral amino acid (AA) formulation should be used in a hospitalized adult patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) requiring parenteral nutrition support?

1: Standard AA formulation
2: Branched-chain AA formulation
3: Essential AA formulation
4: Renal specialty AA formulation

A

1: Standard AA formulation

The ability to synthesize nonessential amino acids is reduced in patients with acute renal insufficiency. Enrichment of parenteral nutrition with branched chain amino acids has been studied, but there is insufficient evidence to recommend this approach. Renal amino acid formulations are composed primarily of essential amino acids and are relatively dilute. Studies have found no difference in mortality with a renal acid formulation. Therefore it is recommended to provide standard AA formulation for AKI patients

32
Q

Branched-chain amino acid (BCAA) formulas would be most appropriate for

1: a patient with a recent diagnosis of hepatocellular cancer.
2: prevention of a first episode of hepatic encephalopathy in a patient who has undergone a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure.
3: initial management of acute hepatic encephalopathy.
4: a cirrhotic patient with chronic encephalopathy who is intolerant of standard protein sources despite optimal pharmacotherapy.

A

4: a cirrhotic patient with chronic encephalopathy who is intolerant of standard protein sources despite optimal pharmacotherapy.

Use of branched-chain amino acid-enriched diets nutrition support formulas is only indicated in chronic encephalopathy for those who cannot tolerate at least 1gm/kg/day of standard protein despite optimal pharmacotherapy. The use of BCAA solutions is not fully supported by the literature in hepatic encephalopathy. Encephalopathy is usually not caused by altered protein in the diet. Protein consumption with the recommended range does not worsen hepatic encephalopathy and in fact leads to improved body composition. A.S.P.E.N. recommends the use of standard formulations for critically ill patients with acute or chronic liver disease.

33
Q

Failure to provide linoleic and alpha linolenic acids with PN will most likely result in

1: metabolic acidosis.
2: hyperglycemia.
3: metabolic bone disease.
4: essential fatty acid deficiency (EFAD).

A

4: essential fatty acid deficiency (EFAD).

Although rare in recent years, EFAD may still occur in the contemporary practice of nutrition support therapy. Failure to provide at least 2% to 4% of the total caloric intake as linoleic acid and 0.25% to 0.5% of total caloric intake as alpha linolenic acid may lead to a deficiency of these two fatty acids. For infants, it is recommended to provide 0.5 to 1 g/kg/day of lipid in order to prevent EFAD.

34
Q

EFAD may still occur in the contemporary practice of nutrition support therapy. Failure to provide at least **% to **% of the total caloric intake as linoleic acid and **% to **% of total caloric intake as alpha linolenic acid may lead to a deficiency of these two fatty acids.

A

Failure to provide at least 2% to 4% of the total caloric intake as linoleic acid and 0.25% to 0.5% of total caloric intake as alpha linolenic acid

For infants, it is recommended to provide 0.5 to 1 g/kg/day of lipid in order to prevent EFAD.

35
Q

The adverse effects of intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) administration in adults is best prevented by
1: supplementing with L-carnitine.
2: avoiding infusion rates >0.05 grams/kg/hour.
3: using 10% IVFE preparations.
4: avoiding serum triglyceride levels >400 mg/dL.

A

4: avoiding serum triglyceride levels >400 mg/dL.

Several investigators have determined that the infusion rate of IVFE not exceed 0.11 grams/kg/hour in adults, 0.15 grams/kg/hour in children, and 0.17 grams/kg/hour in neonates in order to avoid serious metabolic effects. The excess phospholipid content of 10% versus 20% IVFE is associated with plasma lipid alterations. Use of 20% IVFE allows more efficient triglyceride clearance and metabolism. IVFE should be infused at dosages to avoid serum triglyceride levels >400 mg/dL in adults and >200 mg/dL in pediatric populations.

36
Q

Several investigators have determined that the infusion rate of IVFE not exceed ** grams/kg/hour in adults, ** grams/kg/hour in children, and ** grams/kg/hour in neonates in order to avoid serious metabolic effects.

A

Several investigators have determined that the infusion rate of IVFE not exceed 0.11 grams/kg/hour in adults, 0.15 grams/kg/hour in children, and 0.17 grams/kg/hour in neonates in order to avoid serious metabolic effects.

RECOMMENDATION: 500 mL of 10% IVFE, 250 mL of 20% IVFE administered twice weekly, or 500 mL of a 20% IVFE can be given once a week to prevent EFAD

37
Q

Which of the following best describes an intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) produced by the transesterification of fatty acids to form a composite triglyceride molecule?

1: Single oil
2: Multi-oil
3: Structured
4: Physical mixture

A

3: Structured

When two or more oils are mixed together, the emulsion product is called a physical mixture. Medium-chain fatty acid (MCFA)/Long-chain fatty acid (LCFA) structured lipids are similar to MCFA/LCFA physical mixtures in that they combine the properties of the two types of fatty acids. However, the structured lipid is created through hydrolysis of triglycerides and transesterification of fatty acids to form a composite triglyceride molecule that has various proportions of both MCFA and LCFA. The structured lipids are thought to have an advantage over the physical mixture of MCFA and LCFA because of a slower rate of release and utilization of the MCFA. These products are currently investigational only.

38
Q

In a patient with hepatobiliary disease, which of the following trace elements should be withheld or requires a dosage reduction when prescribing PN?

1: Zinc and manganese
2: Zinc and magnesium
3: Copper and manganese
4: Copper and magnesium

A

3: Copper and manganese

Reductions in manganese and copper dosing should be considered in patients with hepatobiliary disease due to impaired excretion. Manganese is a contaminant found within the PN solution components, thus patients will likely receive small doses of manganese even if eliminated from the PN trace element prescription. If removed, ongoing monitoring for deficiency should occur.

39
Q

Which of the following PN components is NOT a source of aluminum contamination?
1: Heparin
2: Albumin
3: Calcium Gluconate
4: Regular insulin

A

4: Regular insulin

Many drug products used routinely in parenteral therapy may contain levels of aluminum sufficiently high to cause clinical manifestations of aluminum toxicity (central nervous system (CNS) and bone toxicity.) Aluminum contamination occurs primarily from the introduction of raw materials during the manufacturing process. Product sources of primary concern include calcium and phosphate salts, heparin, and albumin. In response to the evidence linking the use of parenteral drug products containing aluminum to morbidity and mortality, the FDA now mandates manufacturers to measure and report the maximal amount of aluminum content at product expiration. There is no clear evidence that insulin is a source of aluminum contamination.

40
Q

A long term PN patient experiences Parkinson-like extrapyramidal symptoms. Which trace element toxicity is most likely to present with these symptoms?

1: Manganese
2: Copper
3: Zinc
4: Selenium

A

1: Manganese

Extrapyramidal symptoms may include involuntary movements, tremor, and rigidity. Greater than 90% of manganese excretion is via the bile into the feces. Toxicity may occur in pediatric and adult patients on long-term PN therapy supplemented with manganese. Cholestatsis and biliary obstruction may also increase the risk of toxicity, but is not always present. The early phase of manganese toxicity is characterized by weakness, anorexia, headache, and apathy followed by Parkinson-like features including muscle rigidity, mask-like face, staggered gait, and fine tremor.

41
Q

When compared to the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for fat- soluble vitamins given orally, the DRIs for parenterally administered fat-soluble vitamins are

1: lower.
2: equal.
3: two times higher.
4: four times higher.

A

2: equal.

Even though the bioavailability should be higher when these vitamins are administered parenterally, the daily dose of fat-soluble vitamins should be approximately the same as the oral Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) or Adequate Intake (AI). This higher effective dose when administered with PN was to address this patient population needing higher vitamin requirements due to malnutrition, baseline vitamin deficiencies, and metabolic changes due to acute or chronic illness.

42
Q

When compared to the Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) for water-soluble vitamins given orally, the DRIs for parenterally administered water-soluble vitamins are
1: one-third.
2: one-half.
3: equal.
4: higher.

A

4: higher.

Current water-soluble vitamin daily parenteral doses are 2 to 2.5 times greater than the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) or Adequate Intake (AI) because of increased requirements due to malnutrition, baseline vitamin deficiencies, and increased urinary excretion of water-soluble vitamins when used intravenously.

43
Q

According to United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Chapter 797, a PN solution prepared from 8.5% amino acid solution with electrolytes and 70% dextrose, with multivitamins, trace elements, and famotidine added would be classified as

1: no risk.
2: low risk.
3: medium risk.
4: high risk.

A

3: medium risk.

The appropriate risk level, low, medium, or high, is assigned according to the corresponding probability of contaminating a compounded sterile preparation with (1) microbial contamination and (2) chemical and physical contamination. Low-risk compounding involves only transfer, measuring, and mixing manipulations with closed or sealed packaging systems that are performed promptly and attentively (i.e. reconstitution of a single-dose vial of lyophilized powder with sterile diluents for transfer into another container). Compounding of PN using manual or automated devices during which there are multiple injections, detachments, and attachments of nutrient source products to the device or machine to deliver all nutritional components to a final sterile container is classified as medium-risk (i.e. as in the question above). High-risk compounding differs from low- and medium risk compounding in that it involves using nonsterile ingredients or nonsterile devices prior to terminal sterilization (i.e. extemporaneously compounded L-glutamine for supplementation in a PN formulation).

44
Q

According to the A.S.P.E.N. PN Safety Consensus Recommendations, which of the following best describes safe PN compounding?

1: The preparation with automated compounding devices (ACDs) ensures an error free process
2: All healthcare providers should have the ability to override soft and hard limit alerts from ACDs
3: Manual compounding of PN is appropriate when volumes of a PN component to be mixed are less than the ACD can accurately deliver
4: The preparation of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs) for all patient populations should be done at the same time

A

3: Manual compounding of PN is appropriate when volumes of a PN component to be mixed are less than the ACD can accurately deliver

Preparing PN with an ACD is not an error free process, and error rates are reported to be 22% when automated and 37% when manually prepared. Compounding with ACDs should lead to improved compounding accuracy, enforcement of proper compounding sequence, and reduction in opportunities for human touch contamination. ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) recommends to install, test, and maximize automated dose-limit warnings in the pharmacy and ACD order entry systems with each organization developing weight based dosing limits applicable to their patient population. ASHP (American Society of Health-System Pharmacists) guidelines for the safe use of ACDs for the preparation of PN states that the pharmacy department should develop a monitoring and surveillance plan that promotes safe and efficacious use of the ACD at all times. This includes a review of dose limit alerts and overrides. When an ACD is used, it should deliver all PN ingredients. Manual PN compounding is appropriate when the volume of a PN component is less than the ACD can accurately deliver or if there is an interaction between a PN component and ACD component. Manual compounding is also appropriate when chemical interactions between PN components cannot be mitigated by sequencing the addition of the ingredients, or as a part of a conservation effort during drug shortages. Facilities that care for adult, pediatric, and neonatal populations should separate CSP preparation for each population and develop separation strategies to minimize error.

45
Q

Creaming of a total nutrient admixture (TNA) appears as
1: a translucent band at the surface of the emulsion separate from the remaining TNA dispersion.
2: yellow-brown oil droplets at or near the TNA surface.
3: a continuous layer of yellow-brown liquid at the surface of the TNA.
4: marbling or streaking of the oil throughout the TNA.

A

1: a translucent band at the surface of the emulsion separate from the remaining TNA dispersion.

Answers 2, 3, and 4 describe potential visual signs of the terminal state of emulsion destabilization, commonly known as cracking. In this stage, small lipid particles coalesce to form large droplets ranging in size from 5-50 or more microns. These oil droplets pose potential clinical danger. In contrast, the initial stage in emulsion breakdown is creaming which occurs almost immediately upon standing once IVFE has been mixed with other chemical constituents. The presence of a cream layer is visible at the surface of the emulsion as a translucent band separate from the remaining TNA dispersion. Although the lipid particles in the cream layer are destabilized, their individual droplet identities are generally preserved. In general, light creaming is a common occurrence and not a significant determinant of infusion safety except in extreme cases.

46
Q

Which of the following complications is most likely to occur when transitioning a critically ill adult patient from parenteral to enteral nutrition?

1: Hypocalcemia
2: Hypercalcemia
3: Hypoglycemia
4: Hyperglycemia

A

4: Hyperglycemia

When transitioning from parenteral to enteral nutrition, patients may receive nutrients in excess during overlap of therapy leading to hyperglycemia. Appropriate adjustments to limit total carbohydrate intake to no greater than 4 mg/kg/min can prevent this metabolic complication in many critically ill adult patients.

47
Q

Rapid intravenous infusion of sodium or potassium phosphate may result in

1: tetany.
2: hypercalcemia.
3: metabolic alkalosis.
4: vitamin D deficiency.

A

1: tetany.

Rapid infusion of phosphate can result in tetany due to an abrupt decrease in serum calcium concentration. Since phosphate salts are acidifying in nature, alkalosis would not be anticipated

Tetany– a condition marked by intermittent muscular spasms, caused by malfunction of the parathyroid glands and a consequent deficiency of calcium.

48
Q

A patient receiving PN develops metabolic acidosis. Which serum electrolyte level needs to be monitored most closely?

1: Sodium
2: Chloride
3: Potassium
4: Magnesium

A

3: Potassium

Metabolic acidosis, tissue catabolism, and pseudohyperkalemia results in an extracellular shift of potassium. Metabolic acidosis results in an extracellular shift to maintain electroneutrality. For every 0.1 change in pH, potassium will increase by 0.6mEq per liter generally. Correction of the underlying metabolic acidosis redistributes potassium into the intracellular space and corrects the hyperkalemia. Clinical manifestations of hyperkalemia are related to changes in neuromuscular and cardiac function. The potassium content in the PN formula and exogenous potassium may need to be adjusted based on serum potassium level.

49
Q

What is considered to be the most serious complication of significant hyperphosphatemia?

1: Osteoporosis and fractures
2: Soft tissue and vascular complications
3: Hypoventilation
4: Hypocalcemia

A

2: Soft tissue and vascular complications

The most serious complication of hyperphosphatemia is soft tissue and vascular calcifications. Calcification occurs when the serum calcium level multiplied by the serum phosphorus level exceeds 55 mg per deciliter. Additional consequences of hyperphosphatemia are secondary hyperparathyroidism and renal osteodystrophy, and hypocalcemia.

50
Q

What biochemical evidence indicates essential fatty acid deficiency (EFAD)?
1: A serum triglyceride level < 50 mg/dL
2: A lymphocyte absolute count < 1000/microliter
3: A serum cholesterol level < 100 mg/dL
4: A triene to tetraene ratio > 0.2

A

4: A triene to tetraene ratio > 0.2

Biochemical evidence of EFAD is determined by a triene: tetraene ratio greater than 0.2 (Holman Index) and can occur within 1 to 3 weeks in adults receiving PN without intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE). Two polyunsaturated fatty acids (linoleic, alpha-linolenic) cannot be synthesized by the body and are considered essential. Thus, an exogenous source of fat must be provided. To prevent EFAD, 2% to 4% of daily energy requirements should be derived from linoleic acid and about 0.25-0.5% of energy from alpha-linolenic acid. 500 mL of 10% IVFE, 250 mL of 20% IVFE administered twice weekly, or 500 mL of a 20% IVFE can be given once a week to prevent EFAD. A trial of topical skin application or oral ingestion of oils to alleviate biochemical deficiency of EFAD may be given to patients who are intolerant to IVFE.

51
Q

Concurrent infusion of intravenous fat emulsions (IVFE) and propofol would most likely cause
1: hyperglycemia.
2: hypertriglyceridemia.
3: azotemia.
4: hypernatremia.

A

2: hypertriglyceridemia.

Propofol, an anesthetic agent, is used in the intensive care area for sedation. The vehicle for administering this drug is 10% IVFE. The concurrent administration of propofol and IVFE in PN can result in higher than recommended doses of IVFE and hypertriglyceridemia if appropriate adjustments are not made.

52
Q

Propofol, an anesthetic agent, is used in the intensive care area for sedation. The vehicle for administering this drug is **% IVFE. and contains ** kcal/ml

A

Propofol, an anesthetic agent, is used in the intensive care area for sedation. The vehicle for administering this drug is 10% IVFE. and contains 1.1 kcal/ml

53
Q

Which component of parenteral nutrition (PN) is most likely to impact anticoagulation in a patient receiving warfarin?

1: Standard amino acids and electrolytes
2: Dextrose and trace elements
3: Intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) and vitamins
4: Branched-chain amino acids and electrolytes

A

3: Intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) and vitamins

Parenteral multivitamin products are available with or without vitamin K. IVFE are also a source of vitamin K, though the amount is variable. Patients receiving PN who are also on warfarin may require dosing adjustments to account for the additional vitamin K. The INR level should be closely monitored to ensure it is within therapeutic range.

54
Q

When initiating a PN regimen that contains regular insulin, how often should capillary blood glucose levels be monitored?

1: Every 6 hours
2: Every 8 hours
3: Every 12 hours
4: Every 24 hours

A

1: Every 6 hours

Capillary blood glucose levels should be monitored every 6 hours and supplemented with an appropriately dosed sliding scale insulin coverage given subcutaneously as needed to maintain glucose in goal range. Once glucose concentrations are stable, the frequency of measuring capillary blood glucose concentrations can often be decreased.

55
Q

What risk is associated with the abrupt cessation of a parenteral nutrition solution that contains 50 units of regular insulin?

1: hypokalemia
2: rebound hypoglycemia
3: fluid overload
4: hypomagnesemia

A

2: rebound hypoglycemia

Abrupt discontinuation of PN solutions has been associated with rebound hypoglycemia. Patients requiring large doses of insulin have a greater propensity for rebound hypoglycemia, but predetermining which patients will experience rebound hypoglycemia is difficult. Therefore, to reduce the risk of rebound hypoglycemia in susceptible patients, a 1- to 2-hour taper down of the infusion may be necessary.

56
Q

In adult parenteral nutrition patients, intravenous fat emulsion (IVFE) use should be limited when serum triglyceride levels rise above
1: 400 mg/dL.
2: 300 mg/dL.
3: 200 mg/dL.
4: 100 mg/dL.

A

1: 400 mg/dL.

Serum triglycerides provide a reasonable estimate of body lipid clearance. Hypertriglyceridemia in adults has resulted in impaired pulmonary function, immune suppression and increased risk of pancreatitis. When serum triglyceride levels exceed 400 mg/dL IVFE infusion should to be discontinued or decreased.

57
Q

The FDA currently recommends that daily intake of parenteral aluminum not exceed what amount?

1: 2 mcg/kg/day
2: 5 mcg/kg/day
3: 7 mcg/kg/day
4: 10 mcg/kg/day

A

2: 5 mcg/kg/day

Many PN products are contaminated with aluminum from the introduction of raw materials during the manufacturing process. Products of primary concern include calcium and phosphate salts, heparin and albumin. Variable levels have also been noted with some trace element, vitamin, and macronutrient products. Alterations in bone formation and mineralization, parathyroid hormone secretion, and urinary calcium excretion have been attributed to aluminum toxicity. Those most vulnerable to aluminum toxicity include infants, children, those with renal insufficiency, and those on chronic PN. The FDA currently recommends that all manufacturers list the maximum aluminum concentration at product expiration and that daily intake of parenteral aluminum not exceed 5 mcg/kg/day. Inclusion of potential aluminum load on the label of compounded PN is not mandated in the FDA ruling.

58
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate vascular access device for a patient requiring long-term parenteral nutrition (PN) therapy?

  1. Use of a midclavicular catheter as a cost- effective measure
  2. Placing a percutaneous non tunneled Catheter to initiate PN and then replace with an implanted port
  3. Placement of a single-lumen tunneled cuffed catheter
  4. placement of a triple -lumen antibiotic coated catheter to ensure adequate access for future needs
A
  1. Placement of a single-lumen tunneled cuffed catheter

A single lumen cuffed CVC would be preferred device. the tunneled catheter was originally developed for patients with long-term PN. Tunneled catheters have been demonstrated to be safe and effective in long-term therapies ranging from months to years. A midclavicular catheter does not provide central access and therefore would not be appropriate. percutaneous non-tunneled catheters with additional features of multiple lumens and an antibiotic/antimicrobial coating provide PN access in the acute care setting for a shorter amount of time. It would be best to start with selection of the optimal devise rather than a planned replacement. Ports are and alternative to external lumen catheters and patients need to understand that repeated needle sticks will be required for daily therapy.

59
Q

Thrombotic occlusions are most commonly treated with which of the following?

  1. Thrombolytics
  2. anticoagulants
  3. 10% hydrochloric acid
  4. sodium bicarbonate
A
  1. Thrombolytics

Catheter occlusions are commonly secondary to thrombotic etiology. thrombotic causes include and intraluminal thrombus, extraluminal fibrin sleeve and vessel thrombosis. Successful use of thrombolytics to treat catheters occluded with a thrombus is well documented. historically streptokinase and urokinases have been used. these agents lyse thrombus by activating and converting plasminogen to plasmin. plasmin degrades fibrin clots. More recently tissues plasminogen activator (TPA) has also been used. Nonthrombogenic catheter occlusion includes intraluminal drug and lipid precipitates. Pharmacological agents that change the pH within the lumen increase the solubility of the precipitate

60
Q

Which of the following practices has been shown to reduce the risk of central line- associated infections?

  1. Systemic use of antimicrobial prophylaxis at the time of insertion or access
  2. Routine replacement of central venous devices
  3. use of the central line bundle for insertion and maintenance
  4. Selection of an internal jugular sire as opposed to subclavian site.
A
  1. use of the central line bundle for insertion and maintenance

The central line bundle for insertion and maintenance includes: 1. maximal barrier precautions wearing cap, masks, gown, and gloves, and skin antisepsis with CHG. The use of this bundle has been documented to decreased incidence of catheter-associated infections. the systemic use of antimicrobial prophylaxis at the time of insertion or accessed is not recommended and may actually promote the resistance of microbial populations associated with catheter infections. the routine replacement of CVADs is no recommended and catheters should only be removed when clinically indicated. Studies have shown a lower rate of infections in lines placements via the subclavian site.

61
Q

The National Healthcare Safety Network criteria for central line associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI) includes all of the following except:

  1. The catheter must be in place for a minimum of 24 hrs.
  2. the patient must have a recognized pathogen cultured from one or more blood cultures, which is not associated with any other site or infection
  3. The patient exhibits one of the following; fever (>38 C) , chills or hypotension.
  4. if the patient is <1 yr old and has at least one of the following signs or symptoms; fever (>38C), hypothermia (<36C), apnea or bradycardia and a positive lab culture not related to another infected site
A
  1. The catheter must be in place for a minimum of 24 hrs.

CLABSI new nomenclature that is different from previously used term, Catheter-related bloodstream infections (CR-BSI).

CR-BSI is clinical definition for practice and research. requires clear lab findings associated catheter with infection including pathogen culture with blood test or a differential time to positivity lab testing and no other source of infection.

CLABSI is used for surveillance and required one of the following 4 criteria: pt must have recognized pathogen cultured from one or more blood cultures not associated with any other site of possible infection; symptoms of a fever, hypotension or in the case of a patient <1 yr old symptoms of fever, hypothermia, apnea or bradycardia and catheter must be in place for atleast 48 hrs.

62
Q

Catheter Related infection

Based on each infection type name the CDC definition and treatment options

Exit Site
Tunnel
Pocket
Bloodstream

A

Exit site
Definition: Erythema, tenderness or purulence within 2 cm of site
Treatment: Warm compress, daily site care, oral antibiotic

Tunnel
Definition: Erythema, tenderness or purulence > 2 cm of site
Treatment: catheter removal

Pocket
Definition: Erythema and necrosis over port reservoir or purulent exudate in subcutaneous pocket
Treatment: port removal, antibiotic therapy

Bloodstream
Definition: same isolate on semiquantitative/quantitative catheter culture and blood. no other sign of infection
Treatment:

63
Q

Based on CDC guidelines, Five components of the IHI central line Bundle

A
  1. hand hygiene
  2. maximal barrier precautions
  3. CHG skin antisepsis
  4. optimal catheter selection
  5. daily review of the line necessity