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RMT > PARASITOLOGY( Intro & Protozoan) > Flashcards

PARASITOLOGY( Intro & Protozoan) Flashcards

1
Q

Branch of medicine or biology concerned with the phenomenon of dependence of one living organism with another living organism

A

Parasitology

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2
Q

Deals primarily with clinically significant parasites which are capable of causing a disease or infection to the host

A

Medical Parasitology

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3
Q

Study of protozoans (unicellular organism)

A

Protozoology

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4
Q

Unicellular organisms

A

Protozoans

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5
Q

Study of helminths (multicellular organisms)

A

Helminthology

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6
Q

Multicellular organisms

A

Helminths

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7
Q

Study of insects and arthropods that are of medical importance

A

Medical Entomology

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8
Q

Living together of phylogenetically different organims

A

Symbiosis

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9
Q

One organism gains benefits while the other organism neither benefits nor is harmed

A

Commensalism

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10
Q

Neutral to the other

A

Commensalism

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11
Q

Beneficial to one organism, harmful to the other

A

Parasitism

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12
Q

One organism benefits at the expense of the other

A

Parasitism

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13
Q

4 Types of Hosts

A

Definitive/ Final Host
Intermediate host
Paratenic Host
Reservoir host

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14
Q

Harbors the adult or sexual stage of parasite

A

Definitive

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15
Q

Harbors the larval or asexual stage of parasite

A

Intermediate

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16
Q

Allows the parasite’s life cycle to continue and serves as a source of human infection

A

Reservoir

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17
Q

Depends entirely upon its host for existence; cannot live outise of a host

A

Obligate

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18
Q

Capable of parasitic and free-living existence

A

Facultative

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19
Q

Capable of living independently outside of a host

A

Facultative

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20
Q

Larval stage is passed in a host while the adult is free living

A

Transitory

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21
Q

2 Types of Parasite according to duration of parasitism

A

Permanent
Temporary

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22
Q

Comple its life cycle in 1 host

A

Permanent

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23
Q

Parasites wherein all of its life cycle will happen in different host

A

Temporary

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24
Q

Deals with tropical diseases and other medical problems of tropical regions

A

Tropical Medicine

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25
Q

3 Types of Host-Parasite Relationship / Types of Association of Living Things

A

Mutualism
Commensalism
Parasitism

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26
Q

Beneficial to both organisms

A

Mutualism

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27
Q

Harbors a parasite that does not develop but remains alive and is infective to the next host

A

Paratenic

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28
Q

3 Example of Definitve host

A

Cat- DH of Toxoplasma gondii
Mosquito- DH of Plasmodium
Dog- DH of Echinococcus spp

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29
Q

1 Example of Intermediate host

A

Snail- IH of Trematodes/flukes

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30
Q

2 Example of Paratenic host

A

Large fish- PH of Diphylobothrium latum

Snake and Bird - PH of G. spinogerum

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31
Q

1 Example of Reservoir host

A

Pigs- RH of Balantidium coli

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32
Q

8 Types of Parasites according to mode of living

A

Endoparasite
Ectoparasite
Intermittent
Obligate
Facultative
Accidental
Erratic
Zoonotic

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33
Q

Parasites wherein all of its life cycle will happen only within a single host

A

Permanent

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34
Q

Requires 2 or more host for the larval and adult stages

A

Periodic

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35
Q

Primarily infects animals and may be acquired by man

A

Zoonotic

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36
Q

Occurs in an unsual host

A

Accidental

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37
Q

Occurs in an unusual organ or habitat

A

Erratic

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38
Q

Passes through the intestinal tract without causing any disturbance

A

Spurious or coprozoic

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39
Q

Lives inside the body of a host

A

Endoparasite

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40
Q

Lives on body surfaces

A

Ectoparasite

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41
Q

Visits the host only during feeding time

A

Intermittent

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41
Q

2 Example of Ectoparasite

A

Lice (Pediculus humanus capitis, P.h. humanus, Phthirus pubis)

Itch mite (Sarcoptes scabiei)

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42
Q

5 Example of Intermittent parasite

A

Bed bug
Mosquito
Flea
Tick
Biting fly

(BBM FT)

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43
Q

Presence of endoparasite

A

Infection

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43
Q

Presence of an ectoparasite

A

Infestation

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44
Q

5 Types of parasite accrording to pathologic locations

A

Spurious
Hematozoic
Cytozoic
Coelozoic
Enterozoic

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45
Q

Parasites that pass the gastrointestinal tract without infecting or causing harm to the host

A

Spurious

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46
Q

Parasites found in blood

A

Hematozoic

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47
Q

Parasites found in cells

A

Cytozoic

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48
Q

Parasites found in body cavities

A

Coelozoic

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49
Q

Parasites found within gastrointestinal tract

A

Enterozoic

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50
Q

2 Types of Vectors

A

Biologic
Mechanical/ Phoretic

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51
Q

Transmits a parasite only after the latter has completed part of its development

A

Biologic

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52
Q

Not essential in the parasite’s life cycle and is responsible only for transmitting the parasite

A

Mechanical/ Phoretic

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53
Q

3 Parasites transmitted by mosquitoes

A

Plasmodium spp.
Wuchereria bancrofti
Brugia malayi

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54
Q

3 Parasites transmitted by biting flies

A

Leishmania spp - Sandflies
Trypanosoma brucei - Tsetse flies
Other filariae -Loaloa

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55
Q

Parasites transmitted by kissing bugs

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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56
Q

Parasites transmitted by ticks

A

Babesia spp.

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57
Q

Cockroaches and House flies is a mechanical vector of what parasites?

A
  • Ascaris lumbricoides and
    other enteric parasites (such as E. histoloytica)
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58
Q

MOT of mouth/oral cavity

A

Ingestion
Oral-anal intercourse

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59
Q

MOT of skin

A

Larval skin penetration
Skin inoculation (vector-borne)

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60
Q

MOT of urogenital tract

A

Sexual intercourse (venereal)

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61
Q

MOT of nasal passages

A

Intranasal

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62
Q

Type of Autoinfection within the intestine

A

Internal

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63
Q

MOT of Transplancental

A

Vertical transmission (mother to fetus)

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64
Q

Type of Autoinfection hand to mouth

A

External

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65
Q

2 Types of autoinfection

A

External
Internal

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66
Q

5 Example of portal of entry

A

Mouth/oral-anal cavity
Urogenital tract
Nasal passages
Transplancental
Skin

(MUNTS)

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67
Q

4 example of Portal of exit

A

Anus
Mouth (P. westermani)
Urogenital tract (T. vaginalis)
Non-intact skin (D. medinensis)

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68
Q

Study of patterns, distribution and occurence of disease

A

Epidemiology

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69
Q

Number of new cases of infection

A

Incidence

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70
Q

Number of individuals in a population estimated to be infected with particular parasite

A

Prevalence

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71
Q

Number of worms per infected person

A

Intensity of infection/ worm burden

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72
Q

Other term for intensity of infection

A

Worm burden

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73
Q

Use of anti-helminthic/parasitic drug in a public health program

A

Deworming

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74
Q

Permanent reduction to zero of the incidence of infection worldwide

A

Eradication

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75
Q

Reduction to zero of the incidence of infection in a specific region or geographical area

A

Elimination

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76
Q

Female cell within uterus

A

Ova

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77
Q

Early developing stage

A

Embryo

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78
Q

Motile, feeding stage of protozan

A

Trophozoite

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78
Q

Female cell outside uterus

A

Egg

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79
Q

Active stage of parasites

A

Larva

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80
Q

Non-motile, non-feeding stage of protozoan

A

Cyst

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81
Q

2 parasitic periodicity

A

Diurnal
Nocturnal

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82
Q

Day activity of parasites

A

Diurnal

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83
Q

Night activity of parasites

A

Nocturnal

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84
Q

3 Parasitic laying/giving birth characteristic

A

Viviparous
Ovo-viviparous
Oviparous

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85
Q

Parasite that do not lay eggs but instead produce fully developed larvae

A

Viviparous

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86
Q

Parasite that produce fully developed embryonated eggs

A

Ovo-viviparous

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87
Q

Parasite that produce unembryonated eggs that undergo external embryonation

A

Oviparous

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88
Q

4 Malarial terminologies

A

Microgametocytes
Macrogametocyte
Sporogony
Schizogony

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89
Q

Male sex cell of malarial parasites

A

Microgametocytes

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90
Q

Femal sex cell of malarial parasite

A

Macrogametocyte

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91
Q

Sexual reproduction of malarial parasite

A

Sporogony

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92
Q

Sporogony takes place in?

A

Mosquito

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93
Q

Asexual reproduction of malarial parasite

A

Schizogony

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94
Q

Schizogony takes place in?

A

Man

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95
Q

2 Parasitic development

A

Encystation
Excystation

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96
Q

Trophozoite into cyst

A

Encystation

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97
Q

Cyst emerges into trophozoite

A

Excystation

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98
Q

3 Disease distribution

A

Endemic
Epidemic
Pandemic

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99
Q

Disease which is constant in a community

A

Endemic

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100
Q

Outbreak of a disease affecting a wide area

A

Epidemic

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101
Q

Worlwide epidemic

A

Pandemic

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102
Q

Represents the taxon to which the species belongs

A

Genus

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103
Q

First letter is capitalized

A

Genus

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104
Q

Trivial name that distinguishes the species within the genus

A

Specific epithet

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105
Q

3 Classification of Protozoa

A

Phylum Sarcomastigophora
Phylum Ciliophora
Phylum Apicomplexa

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106
Q

Both parts of the organism’s name are ____ in normal text or ______ in handwriting

A

Italicized
and
Underline

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107
Q

2 Classification of Sarcomastigophora

A

Amebae
Flagellates

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108
Q

1 Classification of Ciliophora

A

Ciliates - Balantidium coli

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109
Q

2 Classification of Phylum Apicomplexa

A

Sporozoans
Coccidians

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110
Q

2 Classification of Helminths

A

Phylum Nemathelminthes
Phylum Platyhelminthes

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111
Q

1 Type of Nemathelminthes

A

Nematodes

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112
Q

Other term of nematodes

A

Roundworm

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113
Q

2 types Platyhelminthes

A

Trematodes
Cestodes

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114
Q

Other term of trematodes

A

Flukes

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115
Q

Other term of cestodes

A

Tapeworms

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116
Q

3 Other unicellular parasites

A

Blastocytis spp.
Microsporidians
Pnemocystis jirovecii

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117
Q

3 Class of arthropods

A

Class Arachnida
Class Insecta
Class Crustacea

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118
Q

3 Example of Arachnida

A

Ticks
Mites
Chiggers

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119
Q

8 Example of Insecta

A

Lice
Fleas
Cockroaches
Bugs
Beetles
Flies
Mosquito
Midges

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120
Q

3 Example of crustacea

A

Crabs
Crayfish
Copepods

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121
Q

6 Example of stool preservatives

A
  1. 10% Formalin
  2. Schaudinn’s solution
  3. Polyvinyl alcohol (PVA)
  4. Merthiolate-iodine formalin (MIF)
  5. Sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin
  6. Modified PVA
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122
Q

All-purpose fixative

A

Formalin

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123
Q

5% concentration for protozoan cysts

A

Formalin

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124
Q

How many concentration of formalin for protozoan cysts

A

5%

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125
Q

5% formalin is used for

A

Protozoan cysts

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126
Q

10% concentration for helminth eggs and larvae

A

Formalin

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127
Q

How many concentration of formalin for helminths eggs and larvae

A

10%

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128
Q

It contains mercuric chloride (higly toxic to humans)

A

Schaudinn’s solution
PVA

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129
Q

Preserve fresh stool in preparation for staining stool smears

A

Schaudinn’s solution

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130
Q

Schaudinn’s solution contains what chemicals that is highly toxic to humans

A

Mercuric chloride

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131
Q

Plastic resin that serves as an adhesive for stool

A

PVA

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132
Q

Normally incorporated in Schaudinn’s solution

A

PVA

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133
Q

Stool preserved in those preservatives can be concentrated using FECT

A

PVA

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134
Q

Major drawback: use of mercuric chloride

A

PVA

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135
Q

Serves as staining agent in MIF preservatives

A

Merthiolate
Iodine

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136
Q

Acts as preservative in MIF

A

Formalin

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137
Q

Fixation of intestinal protozoan, helminth eggs and larvae

A

MIF

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138
Q

Component should always be fresh because it is unstable

A

Lugol’s iodine

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139
Q

Does not contain mercuric chloride

A

Sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin

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140
Q

Liquid fixative with a long shelf-life

A

Sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin

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141
Q

Images are not as sharp as PVA and Schaudinn’s solution after staining

A

Sodium acetate-acetic acid formalin

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142
Q

Characteristics of container

A

Clean, watertight,with tight fitting lid

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143
Q

Acceptable amount of stool

A

Formed: 2-5 g (thumb-sized/wallnut)
Liquid/Watery: 5-6 tbsp

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144
Q

Time collection of liquid stool

A

30 mins

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145
Q

Time collection of soft or semi-formed stool

A

1 hour

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146
Q

Time collection of formed stool

A

up to 24 hours

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147
Q

Fixative to stool ratio

A

3:1

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148
Q

Specimen must be fixed in the preservative for at least:

A

30 minutes before processing

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149
Q

Ova and parasite samples collected

A

3 samples in 10 days (intermittently)

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150
Q

How many samples are used for diagnosis of amebiasis

A

6 samples in 14 days

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151
Q

Patients undergoing barium,bismuth or mineral oil therapy

A

7-10 days before collection

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152
Q

Patients undergoing _____,_____, or _______ must have 7-10 days before collection of stool

A

Barium
Bismuth
Mineral oil therapy

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153
Q

Patients taking antibiotics or antimalarial drugs, gallbladder dyes

A

Delayed for 2 weeks

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154
Q

5 specimen used in parasitology

A

Stool
Blood
Urine
Sputum or BAL
Cerebrospinal fluid

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155
Q

Type of blood which is best for demonstrating blood parasites

A

Capillary blood

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156
Q

In processing blood parasites, avoid using _______

A

Anticoagulated blood

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157
Q

If EDTA blood is used, specimen must be processed within

A

1 hour

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158
Q

If _____ blood is used, specimen must be processed within 1 hour

A

EDTA

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159
Q

Time of collection in Malaria

A

Before the next anticipated fever spike

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160
Q

Time of collection in Filariasis

A

Depend on the periodicity of filariae

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161
Q

Specimen that useful of T. vaginalis trophozoites, S. haematobium eggs,rarely W. bancrofti adult

A

Urine

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162
Q

Specimen useful in demonstration of P. westermani eggs, E. histolytica trophozoites, migrating larvas of Ascaris, Strongyloides, and Hookworms, and P. jirovecii

A

Sputum or BAL

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163
Q

Urine is useful in demonstration of

A

T. vaginalis trophozoites (most frequent parasite)
S. haematobium eggs
W. bancrofti adult ( in cases of hydrocele) rarely

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164
Q

Specimen useful in demonstration of Naeglaria and Acanthamoeba trophozoites, Trypanosomes and Panstrongylus larvae

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

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165
Q

Sputum or BAL is useful in demonstration of

A

P. westermani eggs
E. histolytica trophozoites (in cases of pumonary abscess)
Migrating larvas of Ascaris
Strongyloides
Hookworms
P. jirovecii

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166
Q

10% formalin formalin + stool + 10% HCl strained in a gauze

A

Acid-ether concentration technique

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166
Q

CSF is useful in demonstration of

A

Naeglaria
Acanthamoeba trophozoites
Trypanosomes
Panstrongylus larvae

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167
Q

Intradermal test for T. spiralis

A

Bachmann Test

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168
Q

For detection of Strongyloides

A

Baermann Funnel

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169
Q

Wrap the sample in cheesecloth and submerge it in a funnel filled with water

A

Baermann Funnel

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170
Q

Immunologic test for T. spiralis and E. granulosus

A

Bentonite Flocculation Test

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171
Q

Bentonite Flocculation Test is used for detection of

A

T. spiralis
E. granulosus

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172
Q

Detects malarial aldolase

A

BinaxNOW test

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173
Q

Use in Acid-ether concentration technique

A

10% formalin
Stool
10% HCl strained in a gauze

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174
Q

Intradermal test for E. granulosus

A

Casoni test

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175
Q

Culture medium for T. cruzi

A

Chang’s medium

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176
Q

Chang’s medium is use to culture

A

T. cruzi

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177
Q

Casoni test is use to test

A

E. granulosus

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178
Q

For detection of Schistosoma spp

A

Circumoval Precipitin test

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179
Q

Circumoval Precipitin test is use to detect

A

Schistosomma spp

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180
Q

Patient serum + schistosomal eggs

A

Circumoval Precipitin test

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181
Q

Use in Circumoval Precipitin test

A

Patient serum
Schistosomal eggs

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182
Q

Culture medium for T. vaginalis

A

Diamond Medium
Feinberg-Whittington Medium

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183
Q

Diamond Medium is use to detect

A

T. vaginalis

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184
Q

Intradermal test for Leishmania spp.

A

Dr. Montenegro’s test

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185
Q

Dr. Montenegro’s test is used to detect

A

Leishmania spp.

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186
Q

Detects Giardia,Strongyloides, Clonorchis,Opisthorchis,Fasciola, and Cryptosporidium

A

Entero (string) test

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187
Q

Entero test is used to detect

A

Giardia
Strongyloides
Clonorchis
Opisthorchis
Fasciola
Cryptosporidium

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188
Q

Other term of Entero test

A

String test

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189
Q

Uses a gelatin capsule attached to a string

A

Entero (string) test

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190
Q

Egg hatching and sedimentation technique for detecting Schistosoma spp. eggs

A

Faust and Malloney’s Test

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191
Q

Faust and Malloney’s test is used for detecting

A

Schistosoma spp. eggs

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192
Q

Feinberg-Whittington Medium is used to detect

A

T. vaginalis

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193
Q

Most commonly used method for concentrating eggs, larvae and protozoan cysts

A

Formalin-Ether/ Ethyl Acetate Concentration Technique

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194
Q

10% formalin + stool — centrifuge—–> Ether/Ethyl acetate to the sediment

A

Formalin-Ether/ Ethyl Acetate Concentration Technique

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195
Q

Use in Formalin-Ether/ Ethyl Acetate Concentration Technique

A

10% formalin
Stool
Centrifuge

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196
Q

4 layers of Formalin-Ether

A

Ether/Ethyl acetate (Top)
Debris
Formalin
Sediment (Bottom, parasites)

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197
Q

Uses filter paper strip with water

A

Harada- Mori technique

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198
Q

Strongyloides larvae move upwards, and Hookworm larvae move downwards

A

Harada- Mori technique

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199
Q

In Harada- Mori technique this larvae move upwards

A

Strongyloides

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200
Q

In Harada- Mori technique this larvae move downwards

A

Hookworm

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201
Q

Uses wire mesh, newpaper, and cellophane soaked in glycerol-malachite green

A

Kato-Katz smear

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202
Q

For detection of microfilariae

A

Knott’s concentration

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203
Q

EDTA blood + 2% formalin — centrifuge—> Smear + Giemsa or Methylene blue

A

Knott’s concentration

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204
Q

Used in knott’s concentration

A

EDTA blood
2% formalin
Centrifuge
Smear
Giemsa/ Methylene blue

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205
Q

Detects histidine-rich protein II (HRP-II) antigen produced by P. falciparum

A

MalaQuick test

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206
Q

MalaQuick test is used to detect

A

HRP-II antigen

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207
Q

Parasite involve in MalaQuick test

A

P. falciparum

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208
Q

For detection of Trichinella (gold standard), T. solium, Spirometra and Sarcocystis

A

Muscle Biopsy

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209
Q

Muscle Biopsy is used to detect

A

Trichinella (gold standard)
T. solium
Spirometra
Sarcocystis

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210
Q

Culture medium for Leishmania spp and T. cruzi

A

Novy-MacNeal-Nicole (NNN) Medium

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211
Q

Now-MacNeal-Nicole (NNN) Medium is used to detect

A

Leishmania spp.
T. cruzi

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212
Q

Medium used for detection of Acanthamoeba spp.

A

Non-Nutrient agar with E. coli

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213
Q

Non-Nutrient agar with E. coli can detect what spp

A

Acanthamoeba spp.

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214
Q

Detects parasite LDH and differentiates the 4 Plasmodium species

A

Optimal Assay

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215
Q

For detection of Trypanosoma, Plasmodium and Wuchereria

A

Optimal Assay

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216
Q

Optimal Assay is use to detect

A

Trypanosoma
Plasmodium
Wuchereria

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217
Q

Uses fluorescent microscope and acridine orange fluorochrome

A

Quantitative Buffy Coat

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218
Q

Gold standard test for detection of T. gondii

A

Sabin-Feldman Dye Test

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219
Q

Sabin-Feldman Dye Test is used to detect

A

T. gondii

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220
Q

Tachyzoites + serum (Toxoplasma’s Ab’s) –> Distorted and colorless tachyzoites

A

Sabin-Feldman Dye Test

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221
Q

Preparation used in Sabin-Feldman Dye Test

A

Tachyzoites
Serum (Toxoplasma’s Ab’s)
Distorted and colorless tachyzoites

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222
Q

For detection of E. vermicularis eggs

A

Scotch Tape Swab

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223
Q

Scotch tape swab is used to detect

A

E. vermicularis eggs

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224
Q

Uses boiled sucrose solution with phenol

A

Sheather’s Sugar Flotation Technique

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225
Q

For coccidian oocyst (Cryptosporidium, Cyclospora, Cytoisospora), and B. coli cyst

A

Sheather’s Sugar Flotation Technique

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226
Q

Skin biopsy for detection of O. volvulus

A

Skin snip

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227
Q

Stain for rapid processing of thick smears, especially in malaria

A

Field’s stain

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228
Q

Stain for diagnosis of malarial thick and thin smear

A

Giemsa stain

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229
Q

Stain for SAF-, formalin-preserved, fresh and unpreserved stools

A

Iron hematoxylin

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230
Q

Stain for demonstration of uterine branches of Taenia spp.

A

India ink

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231
Q

Stain for bone marrow samples and blood flagellates

A

Leishman’s stain

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232
Q

Stain for emulsifying agent for stool and stains nuclei of protozoans

A

Lugol’s iodine

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233
Q

Stain for coccidian parasites

A

Modified acid-fast stain

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234
Q

Recommended stain for intestinal microsporidia

A

Modified Trichome stain

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235
Q

Stain for fresh and unpreserved stools

A

Trichome stain

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236
Q

Stain for blood cell morphology, but must be confirmed by Giemsa

A

Wright’s stain

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237
Q

0.1 M NaOH + stool –> counted in an ordinary slide

A

Stoll Egg count

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238
Q

Stoll Egg count uses

A

0.1 M NaOH
Stool

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239
Q

For screening malarial parasites (quantitation and identifying pigments)

A

Thick Blood film

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240
Q

For identifying malarial species

A

Thin Blood film

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241
Q

Routine O&P examination

A

Wet Mount (NSS, Iodine)

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242
Q

Iodine stains cysts yellow-brown but kills trophozoites

A

Wet Mount

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243
Q

In Wet Mount. iodine stain cysts what color

A

Yellow-brown

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244
Q

In Wet Mount, iodine stains cysts but kills what

A

Trophozoites

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245
Q

In Wet mount, this are not stained

A

Chromatoid bodies

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246
Q

Animal test for detection of T. spiralis, T. cruzi, W. bancrofti

A

Xenodiagnosis

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247
Q

Xenodiagnosis is used to detect what parasite

A

T. spiralis
T. cruzi
W. bancrofti

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248
Q

What parasite is detected in xenodiagnosis when albino mice is used

A

T. spiralis

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249
Q

What parasite is detected in xenodiagnosis when reduviid bugs is used

A

T. cruzi

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250
Q

What parasite is detected in xenodiagnosis when mosquitoes is used

A

W. bancrofti

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251
Q

For protozoan cysts and nematode eggs except Trichuris and Capillaria

A

Zinc Sulfate Flotation Technique

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252
Q

In Zinc Sulfate Flotation Technique, this parasites are not detected

A

Trichuris
Capillaria

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253
Q

Not appropriate for operculated eggs, Schistosomes, or infertile Ascaris eggs

A

Zinc Sulfate Flotation Technique

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254
Q

Specific gravity of ZnSO4

A

1.18

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255
Q

What are the 2 layer of Zinc Sulfate Flotation Technique

A

Supernatant (Top, parasites)
Liquid suspension (Bottom)

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256
Q

What is the epidemiologic triangle

A

Host
Environment
Agent

(HEA)

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257
Q

Order of Chain of Infection

A

Infectious Agent
Reservoir
Exit
Mode of Transmission
Entry
Susceptible host

(IREMES)

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258
Q

Man serves as what host in Echinococcus spp

A

Accidental IH

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259
Q

2nd IH of D. Latum

A

Small fish

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260
Q

2 Example of Facultative parasites

A

S. stercoralis
FLAs (Free-living amoebas) - Naegleria, Acanthamoeba spp

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261
Q

1 example of Transitory parasite

A

S. stercoralis (indirect cycle)

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262
Q

1 example of permanent parasite

A

H. nana - moxenous/homoxenous; only cestode

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263
Q

2 example of periodicity

A

Nocturnal
Diurnal

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264
Q

What is Heteroxenous

A

Requires 2 or more host

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265
Q

Example of zoonotic

A

B. coli
D. immitis
Agents of larva migrans (Toxocara spp)

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266
Q

What is Larva migrans?

A

Wondering larva

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267
Q

2 example of accidental host

A

Echinoccocus in man
Agents of Larva migrans

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268
Q

1 example of erratic parasites

A

Ascaris lumbricoides -cause ectopic ascariasis

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269
Q

2 example of spurious/coprozoic

A

Fasciola hepatica eggs - Infective stage is Metacercaria
Capillaria hepatica eggs

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270
Q

Transmitted by Reduviid/ Triatomine

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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271
Q

Transmitted by Ixodes spp.

A

Babesia spp

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272
Q

Most common portal of entry

A

Mouth

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273
Q

Parasites transmitted through oral-anal intercourse

A

G. lamblia
C. Parvum
E. vermicularis
D. fragilis
E. histolytica

(G CEDE)

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274
Q

3 Parasites transmitted through skin penetration

A
  • Hookworms
    S. stercoralis - L3 larva/Filariform larva
    Schistosoma spp. - Cercaria
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275
Q

1 example of parasites transmitted through skin inoculation(vector-borne)

A

Arthropods

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276
Q

Parasites transmitted through sexual intercourse

A

T. vaginalis

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277
Q

Parasites transmitted through intranasal

A

FLAs (N. flowleri and Acanthamoeba)

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278
Q

Parasites transmitted through vertical transmission

A

Plasmodium spp
Toxoplasma
Other agents such as syphilis,VZV
Rubella
CMV
HIV

(TORCH)

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279
Q

4 parasites that cause internal autoinfection

A

S. stercoralis
C. philippinensis
C. parvum
T. solium *

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280
Q

Cause reverse peristalsis, Tissue infection,Migrate to brain and fatal

A

T. solium

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281
Q

Cause external autoinfection

A

E. vermicularis - its egg is infective and contain fully develop larva
H. nana

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282
Q

Most common portal of exit

A

Anus

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283
Q

What phylum is both asexual reproduction and motile?

A

Sarcomastigophora
Ciliophora

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284
Q

What phylum has both sexual and asexual reproduction and non-motile

A

Apicomplexa

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285
Q

Reproduction of Sporozoans and coccidians ?and is it motile or non-motile

A

Sexual and Asexual
Non-motile

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286
Q

Reproduction of Amoeba,Flagellates,Ciliates?is it motile or non-motile?

A

Asexual
Motile

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287
Q

Not protozoans but consider stramenophiles

A

Blastocystis

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288
Q

2 example of microsporidians

A

Encephalitozoon spp
Enterocytozoon spp

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289
Q

Obligate intracellular fungi; smallest intestinal parasite (1.5-3 um)

A

Microsporidians

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290
Q

Size of Microsporidians

A

1.5 - 3 um

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291
Q

Atypical fungus

A

P. jirovecii

292
Q

Nematodes (roundworms) are considered

Hermaphroditic/ Non-hermaphroditic?

A

Non-hermaphroditic (sexes are separate)

293
Q

Trematodes are considered

Hermaphroditic/ Non-hermaphroditic?

A

All are Hermaphroditic(monoecious flukes/sexes are combined)

except Schistosomes (Non-Hermophroditic/ Diecious flukes)

294
Q

Cestodes are considered

Hermaphroditic/ Non-hermaphroditic?

A

All are hermaphroditic (sexes are combined)

295
Q

2 example of 2nd IH of P. westermani

A
  • Crabs and Crayfish
296
Q

IH of D. medinensis and G. spinigerum

A

Copepods

297
Q

1st IH of D. latum and spirometra

A

Copepods

298
Q

Serve as fixative in MIF

A

Merthiolate

299
Q

Most common delivered specimen in Parasitology because most parasite are intestinal

A

Stool

300
Q

Clearance period of Antacids,antidiarrheals,barium,bismuth,laxatives,mineral oil therapy

A

7-10 days

301
Q

Clearance period of antimicrobial agents

A

2-3 weeks

302
Q

What may form in stool if clearance period of Antacids,antidiarrheals,barium,bismuth,laxatives is not followed?

A

Leave crystalline residues

303
Q

Cause of antimicrobial agents in stool

A

Decrease the number of protozoans

304
Q

Clearance period of gallbladder dyes

A

2 weeks

305
Q

Avoid contamination of stool in urine because ______
water because ______
soil because _____

A

Urine - trophozoites is toxic to urine
Water - may dilute the spx
Soil- may contain foreign parasites

306
Q

Capacity of stool container

A

1/2 pint

306
Q

Number of stool specimen examined?

A

3 spx collected separate days within 10 days (every other day)

307
Q

Reason why does it need 3 spx examined on separate days?

A

To recover parasites that shed diagnostic forms intermittently (such as G. lamblia and S. stercoralis)

308
Q

Liquid/Watery stool may contain what type of parasite

A

Trophozoite

309
Q

Soft/Semi-formed stool may contain what type of parasite

A

Mixture of Trophozoite and Cysts

310
Q

Formed stool may contain what type of parasite

A

Cysts

311
Q

Why does water stool should be process immediately?

A

Trophozoite is sensitive to environmental change

312
Q

Stool must be left at room temp,incubated, frozen

True or False

A

False - Not be left at …

313
Q

Beyond 1 hour, stool must be ____ and its is short term preservation

A

Refrigerated

314
Q

For longer period of stool preservation:

A

2 vial system
( 10% formalin & PVA)

315
Q

Ratio of stool- preservative

A
  • 1:3 ( 1:stool = 3: preservative)
316
Q

10% Formalin can be performed in:

WT/CT/PS/IA?

A

All can be used except in Permanent staining

317
Q

Stool fixative that can fix and stain

A

MIF

318
Q

MIF cannot be performed in:

WT/CT/PS/IA?

A

Permanent Staining and Immunoassay(due to red color of merthiolate)

319
Q

Stool fixative that can be used as permanent stain

A

SAF (Sodiuam acetate-acetic acid formalin)

320
Q

SAF can be performed in:

WT/CT/PS/IA?

A

All of them can be performed

321
Q

Stool fixative that contain Mercuric chloride

A

Schaudinns’ fluid
PVA

322
Q

Schaudinn’s fluid do not contain

A

PVA

323
Q

SF with PVA

A

PVA

324
Q

Schaudinn’s fluid can be performed in :

WT/CT/PS/IA?

A

Permanent staining only

325
Q

PVA can be performed in:

WT/CT/PS/IA?

A

Permanent staining only

326
Q

Modified PVA was introduce to avoid hazard of mercuric chloride and can be used in

A

NAATs
PCR

327
Q

Modified PVA contain

A

ZnSO4
CuSO4

328
Q

Modified PVA can be performed in:

WT/CT/PS/IA?

A

Permanent staining only

329
Q

Immunoassay need
( fresh/old stool? ) to detect ______

A

Fresh
E. histolytica
G. lamblia
C. parvum

330
Q

Normal color of stool

A

Brown

331
Q

Brown color of stool is due to

A

Stercobilin or Urobilin

332
Q

Black stool is due to

A

Upper GI bleeding

332
Q

Mucoid/Bloody stool is due to

A

Lower GI bleeding or dysentery cause by E. histolytica or B. coli

333
Q

Normal consistency of stool

A

Soft to semi-formed

334
Q

Gives clues on parasite stages present in stool

A

Consistency

335
Q

Determine the sensitivity of egg-counting technique in stool

A

Consistency

336
Q

In egg counting technique, the ___ the stool, the ____ the count

A

drier, higher

337
Q

In egg counting technique, watery stool has ___ count

High/ low?

A

Low

338
Q

In egg counting technique, Formed stool has ___ count

High/ low?

A

High

339
Q

In O & P exam, this procedure can be performed

A

Wet mount
Concentration technique
Permanent staining

340
Q

This O & P procedure has low sensitivity due to small amount of stool

A

Wet mount

341
Q

Wet mount is AKA

A

Direct fecal smear

342
Q

Wet mount is prepared by mixing ____ of stool with a drop of _____

A

2 mg
NSS

343
Q

How many percent of NSS is used in wet mount

A

0.85%

344
Q

O&P procedure that is useful in detection of motile trophozoites, helminths and larvae

A

Wet mount

345
Q

Wet mount can be stained using

A

Lugol’s iodine/ D’ Antoni’s iodine - protozoan cysts and detecting glycogen inclusions

Nair’s Buffered Methylene Blue
- for trophozoites because troph can be killed by iodine

346
Q

Concentration technique has ____ to parasite detection

Increase/Low sensitivity?

A

Increase sensitivity

347
Q

2 classification of concentration technique

A

Sedimentation procedures
Flotation procedures

348
Q

2 classification of sedimentation procedures

A

FECT - Formalin ether (ethyl acetate) concentration technique

AECT- Acid ether concentration technique

349
Q

Most common sedimentation procedures

A

FECT

350
Q

Preservative used in FECT

A

Formalin

351
Q

In FECT, sediments may be stored in this

A

Formalin

352
Q

In FECT, it is less hazardous and dissolve fats

A

Ether/ ethyl acetate

353
Q

Sedimentation procedure that can be used with specimens preserved in formalin, MIF or SAF

A

FECT

354
Q

Efficient in recovering most protozoan cysts, helminth eggs,operculate eggs and moderately effective in schistosome eggs

A

FECT

355
Q

Less distortion of protozoan cysts compared to zinc sulfate flotation and AECT

A

FECT

356
Q

Used fresh stool

AECT/ FECT

A

AECT

357
Q

Sedimentation medium used in AECT

A

40% HCl

358
Q

Used in AECT to precipitate and remove albuminous material and mucoidal substances

A

40% HCl

359
Q

Recommended for animal parasites, Trichuris, Capillaria and Schistosoma eggs

A

AECT

360
Q

Parasites may be lost to the plug of debris and possible destruction of protozoan cysts due to increase acidity

A

AECT

361
Q

SG of parasite > SG of sedimentation medium

A

Sedimentation procedures - parasites settle at the bottom

362
Q

Arrangement of sedimentation procedure in a tube

A

Ether/Ethyl Acetate –>
Plug of debris —>
Sedimentation medium (Formalin/ HCL) —>
Sediments (parasite if present)

363
Q

Which is decanted in sedimentation procedure

A

Ether/Ethyl Acetate –>
Plug of debris —>
Sedimentation medium (Formalin/ HCL) —>

364
Q

SG of medium > SG of parasite

A

Flotation procedure (parasite floats)

365
Q

3 classifcation of flotation procedure

A

Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
Brine’s flotation
Sheather’s flotation

366
Q

Arrangement of flotation procedure in a tube

A

Surface film(parasites present)
—>
Medium (Zinc Sulfate,HCl, Sucrose) —>
Sediment (may still contain parasites that failed to float)

367
Q

Concentration of medium in Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation

A

33% ZnSO4

368
Q

SG of ZnSO4 centrifugal flotation

A

1.18 - fresh stool
1.2 - formalinized stool (need adjusted for parasites to float)

369
Q

Unreliable for the recovery of nematode larvae, infertile eggs of Ascaris,eggs of Taenia,schistosomes and other cestodes or trematode eggs

-Not for heavy or dense eggs

A

Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation

370
Q

Medium used in Brine’s flotation

A

Saturated salt concentration

371
Q

SG of Brine’s flotation

A

1.2

372
Q

No centrifugation is required; not applicable for operculate and thin-shelled eggs because it might shrank due to high SG

A

Brine’s flotation

373
Q

Medium of Sheather’s flotation

A

Boiled sugar solution/sucrose

374
Q

Uses Boiled sugar solution/sucrose preserved with phenol

A

Sheather’s flotation

375
Q

Sheather’s flotation is preffered for concentrating ____

A

coccidian oocysts

376
Q

SG of Sheather’s flotation

A

1.25-1.27

377
Q

Used for detecting coccidian

A

Sheather’s flotation and Modified acid fast stain

378
Q

4 Permanent stains used in stool

A

Iron hematoxylin
Wheatley’s trichrome
Modified trichrome
Modified Acid fast stain

(IW MM)

379
Q

Microscopic field used in Iron hematoxylin,Wheatley’s trichrome, Modified trichrome

A

300 OIFs

OIO = 100x objective

380
Q

Microscopic field used in Modified Acid Fast stain

A

300 HPFs
(Red structure against blue background)

381
Q

Iron hematoxylin has shade of

A

Gray blue to black

382
Q

Wheatley’s trichrome is AKA

A

Gomori’s trichrome

383
Q

Color of the ff in Gomori’s trichrome:

Cytoplasm:
Nucleus:
Inclusions (RBC,Bacteria):
Charcot Layden crystals

A

Cytoplasm: blue to green

Nucleus, Inclusions, Charcot Layden crystals : Red to Purple

384
Q

Microscopic ojectives used in protozoa

A

OIO

385
Q

Weaker acid decolorizer (1-3% H2SO4) as decolorizer; demonstrated Cryptosporidium,Cytoisospora,Cyclospora oocysts

A

Modified acid fast stain

386
Q

Cryptosporidium

Acid fast/ Acid fast variable/Non-Acid fast?

A

Acid fast

387
Q

Cytoisospora,Cyclospora oocysts

Acid fast/ Acid fast variable/Non-Acid fast?

A

Acid fast variable

388
Q

2 example of Modified acid fast stain

A

Kinyoun’s method - Cold method; most common
Ziel-Neelsen method - Hot method

389
Q

Artifacts that resemble parasites:

1.Neutrophils (Multilobed:
2. Macrophages,squamous and columnar epithelial cells:
3. Yeast, fungal conida, mushroom spores, diatomes:
4. Mite eggs:
5. Pollen grains:

A
  1. Mature E. histolytica cysts due to 4 nucleus
  2. Amebic trophoizotes
    3.Protozoan cysts or helminth eggs
  3. Hookworms eggs/ larva
  4. Taenia or Ascaris eggs
390
Q

How many stool is usd in Kato-thick smear

A

50-60 mg

391
Q

In Kato-thick smear the cellophane is soaked in a mixture of

A

Glycerin - clearing agent,dissolve debris, allow parasites

Malachite green - stain the background green;lower the light intensity of microscope

392
Q

Usefull in mass stool examination and not easily dry up

A

Kato-thick smear

393
Q

Used for assessing worm burden and monitoring the efficacy of antihelminthics in cases of STH and Schistosomiasis

A

Egg counting technique

394
Q

Parasite involved in STH

A

Hookworms
Ascaris lumbricoides
Trichuris trichuria

(HAT)

395
Q

Modification of kato-thick smear and stool has been sieved through mesh wire

A

Kato-Katz

396
Q

Formula for egg counting technique

A

EPG (eggs per gram feces) = number of eggs counted x factor( depends on template used)

397
Q

Standard template for egg counting technique

A

1.5mm thick and 6mm hole

398
Q

Amount of feces delivered & factor in:
1.5 mm thick and 6 mm hole
1mm thick and 9 mm hole
0.5 mm thick and 6.5 mm hole

A

Amount of feces delivered & factor:

41.7 mg = 24
50 mg =20
20 mg = 50

399
Q

Make used of calibrated flask and stoll pipette

A

Stoll dilution

400
Q

Diluent used in stoll dilution

A

0.1 N NaOH

401
Q

Used to determine the severity of Schistosoma infection

A

Faust-Malloney egg hatching technique

402
Q

EPG of the following parasites in Light intensity

A. lumbricoides
T. trichuria
Hookworms
Schistosoma japanicum/mansoni

A

Light intensity:

A. lumbricoides = <5000

T. trichuria = <1000

Hookworms =< 2000

Schistosoma japanicum/mansoni = <100

403
Q

EPG of the following parasites in Moderate intensity

A. lumbricoides
T. trichuria
Hookworms
Schistosoma japanicum/mansoni

A

Moderate intensity:

A. lumbricoides = 5000 -49,999

T. trichuria = 1000 - 9,999

Hookworms = 2000- 3,999

Schistosoma japanicum/mansoni = 100 - 399

404
Q

EPG of the following parasites in Heavy intensity

A. lumbricoides
T. trichuria
Hookworms
Schistosoma japanicum/mansoni

A

Heavy intensity:

A. lumbricoides = ≥ 50,000

T. trichuria = ≥ 10,000

Hookworms = ≥ 4,000

Schistosoma japanicum/mansoni = ≥ 400

405
Q

Stool culture method is routinely used and less hazardous

True/ False?

A

False
Not routine and hazardous

406
Q

Stool culture method can be classified into 2

A

Copro culture
Harada-Mori or Test tube method

407
Q

Uses moistened soil and granulated charcoal

A

Copro culture

408
Q

In copro culture, larvae are harvested using what technique

A

Baermann technique

409
Q

what method involves applying positive stool to a filter paper strip and placing it into a test tube with distilled water for ___ days at ____ °C

A

Harada-Mori or Test tube Method or Filter paper Method

10 days at 25-30 °C

410
Q

Hookworm Vs. S. stercoralis

In Fresh stool?
In Old Stool?

A

Fresh stool:
Hookworms = eggs
S. stercoralis = Rhabditiform larva

Old stool:
Hookworms & S. stercoralis = Rhabditiform larva

411
Q

Used to detect eggs of E. vermicularis

A

Perianal swab/ Scotch tape method/ Cellulose tape

412
Q

E. vermicularis is

Nocturnal/Diurnal?

A

Nocturnal

413
Q

Scotch tape method is performed at

Night?Morning?Afternoon?

A

Early morning because eggs deposition happens at night

414
Q

In Perianal swab, a drop of ___ or __ may be added to improve the visualization of eggs

A

Xylene or Toluene

415
Q

What procedure is used for diagnosis of amoebiasis (E. histolytica)

A

Sigmoidoscopy

416
Q

Entero test is AKA

A

String test or Duodenal capsule

417
Q

Entero test is used for the recovery of what parasites

A

G. lamblia
C. parvum
S. stercoralis
or other Intestinal parasites

418
Q

Contact time of Entero test

A

4 hours

419
Q

Collected material in Entero test must be analyzed within

A

1 hour

420
Q

Prepared specimen for Malaria to avoid distortion of parasite morphology

A

Fresh
Non-anticoagulated blood/Capillary blood

421
Q

Why does anticoagulated blood is not prepared for malarial examination

A

Can disrupt morphology of parasite and difficult to examine

422
Q

Using anticoagulated blood (EDTA> Heparin) must be delivered to the laboratory within _____ and must be processed within _____

A

30 mins

1 hour

423
Q

Timing of collection for Malaria

A

Before the next anticipated fever spike / at the height of fever

424
Q

Timing of collection of filariasis

A

Depends on the periodicity of microfilariae

425
Q

Gold standard for malarial examination

A

Stained smears of thick and thin blood smear

426
Q

How many drops of blood for thick and thin smear

A

Thick smear - 2-3 small drops (6ul)

Thin smear - 1 drop (2-3ul)

427
Q

Thick smear is dehomoglobinized using ____ prior to staining

A

distilled water

428
Q

Why does thick smear need to be dehomoglobinzed?

A

For rbc to lyze and parasite will stand out and wbc will remain

429
Q

Purpose of thick smear

A

Rapid diagnosis of malaria and demonstration of trypomastigotes and microfilariae

430
Q

What type of smear, which is thick at one end and thin and feathery at the other end

A

Thin smear

431
Q

Smear which is fixed with alcohol prior to staining

A

Thin smear

432
Q

Smear for malarial species identification

A

Thin smear

433
Q

Degree of parasitemia for Thick smear

A

Parasites/ul of blood = (parasites/WBCs counted) x WBC count per uL or 8,000 WBCs

434
Q

How many parasites/ WBC need to be counted in thick smear?

A

500 parasites or 1000 WBC -whichever comes first

If WBC count is unkwown, assume 8,000 wbcs per ul of blood

435
Q

Degree of parasitemia for thin smear

A

% parasitemia = (parasitized rbcs/ total RBCs counted) x 100

436
Q

In thin smear, if parasitemia is high (>10%) examine ______ RBCS

If it is low (<1%) examine _____ RBCs

A

500

2000

437
Q

4 Stains used in blood parasites

A
  1. Giemsa
  2. Wright’s
  3. Delafield hematoxylin
  4. Kawamoto technique
438
Q

2 stains that are categorized as Romanowsky stain

A

Giemsa
Wright’s stain

439
Q

Recommended for detection and identification of blood parasites (such as plasmodium & babesia); allows demonstration of stippling

A

Giemsa

440
Q

Not optimal for blood parasites; does not demonstrate stippling

A

Wright’s stain

441
Q

What stain that demonstrated detailed structure of microfilariae;requires dehomoglobinazation of thick films with _______

A

Delafied hematoxylin

2% formalin in 1% acetic acid

442
Q

What stain are which blood smear are stained with ______ which results in a differential staining of nuclear DNA in _____ ( color)and cytoplasmic RNA in _____ (color)

A

Kawamoto technique

acridine orange

green

red

443
Q

What artifacts resemble trypomastigotes or malarial stages

A

Elongated and degenerating platelets

444
Q

What artifacts resemble plasmodium schizont

A

NRBCS

445
Q

What artifacts resemble amastigotes of leishmania or T. cruzi

A

Yeast/ fungal elements

446
Q

Uses capillary tube pre-coated with acridine orange which the parasites’ DNA takes up

A

Quantitative buffy coat (QBC)

447
Q

QBC is pre-coated with

A

acridine orange

448
Q

Type of microscope used in QBC and its positive color

A

Fluorescence microscope
Brilliant green

449
Q

QBC is useful in demonstration of malarial parasites, microfilariae, trypomastigotes and babesia

True or False?

A

True

450
Q

Concentration technique in blood specimen is useful in

A

Microfilaremia - microfilaria in blood

451
Q

2 types of concentration technique in blood spx

A

Knott’s concentration
Membrane filtration

452
Q

Knott’s concentration uses how many ml of blood?mixed with?

A

1 ml of blood mixed with 10 ml of 2% formalin followed by centrifugation

453
Q

Sediments in Knott’s concentration is examined as a ____ or ____

A

Wet mount or stained smear

454
Q

Membrane filtration uses how many ml of blood?lysed with?size of membrane filter?

A

1ml of blood, lysed with 10 ml of distilled water in a syringe with a 5 um membrane filter attached

455
Q

Spx that is stat in parasitology

A

Blood and CSF

456
Q

Spx for demonstration of Naegleria and Acanthamoeba trophozoites,trypomastigotes and cysticerci (T. solium larvae)

A

CSF

457
Q

Spx used to detect T. vaginalis trophozoites,S. haematobium ova, rarely W. bancrofti microfilariae

A

Urogenital tract specimen

458
Q

W. bancrofti usually found in ____

It may produce ____ urine

A

Hydrocele -swelling in the scrotum

Chyluric/Milky urine

459
Q

Spx used for demonstration of P. westermani ova, migrating helminth larvae, E. histolytica trophozoites, and P. jirovecci

A

Sputum or BAL

460
Q

In immunodiagbostic test, it is for detecting current infection

Antigen/Antibody/LFA/EIA?

A

Antigen detection

461
Q

In immunodiagbostic test, it is for detecting past/chronic
Antigen/Antibody/LFA/EIA?

A

Antibody detection

462
Q

Immmunodiagnostic test in which antibody is fluorescent labelled

A

DFA

463
Q

Immmunodiagnostic test in which AHG is fluoresecent labelled

A

IFA

464
Q

Preparation for SFDT

A

Px sample + Live T. gondii
–> incubate
–> Add Methylene Blue
–> Microscopic exam

465
Q

(+) T. gondii in SFDT

A

Remain unstained - looses affinity to methylene blue when incubate and distorted

466
Q

Preparationf for COPT

A

Px serum + Live schistosoma eggs
–> incubate
–> Microscopic exam

467
Q

(+) result for COPT

A

Formation of blebs or separate precipitate around the eggs

468
Q

Meaning of COPT

A

Circumoval precipitin test

469
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
E. histolytica
G. lamblia
C. parvum

A

LFA,DFA,EIA

Stool

470
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:

T. vaginalis

A

LFA, DFA

Vaginal Swab

471
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:

Plasmodium spp
P. falciparum

A

LFA

Blood

472
Q

Target antigen in plasmodium spp for antigen detection

A

Parasite LDH

473
Q

Target antigen for P. falciparum for antigen detection

A

HRP-2 (Histidine Rich Protein-2)

474
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
Leishmania spp.

A

IFA,EIA,CF

Serum

475
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
T. cruzi

A

IFA,EIA,CF,IB

Serum

476
Q

Assay format and specimen used for: (in abs detection)
Plasmodium spp

A

IFA

Serum

477
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
T. gondii

A

IFA,EIA, SFDT

Serum/ CSF

478
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
W. bancrofti

A

EIA

Serum

479
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
T. spiralis

A

EIA, BF

Serum

480
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
Schistosoma spp

A

EIA,IB,COPT

Serum

481
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
T. solium (cysticercosis)

A

EIA,IB

Serum/ CSF

482
Q

Assay format and specimen used for:
E. granulosus

A

EIA, IB, IHA, IFA

Serum/CSF

483
Q

Molecular diagnostic which is highly sensitive and specific

A

PCR

484
Q

Principle of PCR

A

NAATs (Nucleic Acid Amlification Test)

485
Q

2 Types of PCR

A

Conventional PCR
Real time PCR

486
Q

Involves detection of amplicons using gel electrophoresis

A

Conventional PCR

487
Q

Real time PCR is AKA

A

qPCR (Quantitative PCR)

488
Q

Uses fluorophores to enable detection of amplicons as they are produced

A

RT-PCR

489
Q

Fluorophores used in RT-PCT

A

SYBR Green
Taq Man

490
Q

Common target in PCR

A

rDNA

491
Q

Steps in PCR

A

Denaturation
Annealing
Extension/Elongation

(DAE)

492
Q

Separation of template DNA to single strands; Break hydrogen bonds

A

Denaturation

493
Q

°C for denaturation

A

94 °C

494
Q

Binding of primers specific for each target strand sequence

A

Annealing

495
Q

°C for Annealing

A

50-65 °C

496
Q

Have reverse and forward primer

A

Annealing

497
Q

Addition of deoxyribonucleotides to produce new strands

A

Extension/Elongation

498
Q

°C for Extension/Elongation in PCR

A

72 °C

499
Q

Heat stable; from thermophilic bacteria

A

Taq polymerase

500
Q

Only atrial amebae, does not have cysts, exist in trophozoite,
ingest WBCS

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

501
Q

Only pathogenic amoeba, can lyse tissue, hematophacous

A

E. histolytica

502
Q

Amoeba are mostly found in the

A

Intestine

503
Q

Identical to E. histolytica, not capable of ingesting rbc

A

E. dispar/ E. moshkovski/E. bangladeshi

504
Q

Small race of E. histolytica

A

E. hartmanni

505
Q

Smallest intestinal amoeba

A

E. hartmanni
Endolimax nana

506
Q

Amoeba which has 8 nuclei in its mature cysts

A

Entamoeba coli

507
Q

Cross-eyed cyst, small/dwarf intestinal slug

A

Endolimax nana

508
Q

Entamoeba which has 1 nucleus, large iodophilic mass/glycogen vacuole

A

Iodamoeba butschlii

509
Q

Entamoeba which has 1 nucleus, non-iodophilic mass, parasite of pigs and monkeys

A

Entamoeba polecki

510
Q
  • Difference between E. histolytica and E. polecki
A

E. histolytica - 4 nucleus
E. polecki - 1 nucleus

511
Q

Entamoeba cysts which has 1-4 nucleus ; its chromatoidal bodies is described as cigar-shaped

A

E. histolytica
E. dispar/E. moshkovski/E. bangladeshi
E. hartmanni

512
Q

Entamoeba cysts which has 1-8 nucleus and its chromatoidal bodies is characterized as broom stick-splinter-like with pointed or rough ends

A

Entamoeba coli

513
Q

Entamoeba cysts;4 nucleus; small,spherical,oval

A

E. nana

514
Q

Hallmark of E. histolytica

A

Ingested rbcs

515
Q

Entamoeba trophozoites; basket nucleus

A

Iodamoeba butschlii

516
Q

2 Types of pathology in Amoebiasis

A

Intestinal Amebiasis
Extraintestinal Amebiasis/ Tissue Abscess

517
Q

Intestinal Amebiasis can be

A

Acute/Symptomatic
Chronic/ Asymptomatic
Amoeboma
Amoebic ulcers

518
Q

Cause amebic dysentery

Acute /Chronic?

A

Acute

519
Q

Incubation period is ___ days; presents with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain

A

Acute amebiasis
2-5 days

520
Q

Cardinal sign of dysentery

A

Bloody diarrhea
Abdominal pain

521
Q

Type of amoebiasis in which patients are considered as cyst passers/carriers; stool is soft to well-formed

A

Chronic

522
Q

Carcinoma like or mass of granulomatous tissue in the intestine

A

Amoeboma

523
Q

Flask-shaped ulcers due to hyaluronidase

A

Amoebic ulcers

524
Q

Most common site in extraintestinal amebiasis

A

Liver (hepatic abcess)

525
Q

Why does the liver is the most common site in extraintestinal amebiasis?

A

Proximity to large intestines

526
Q

4 Examples of Free-Living Amoebae

A

N. flowleri
Acanthamoeba spp.
Balamuthia mandrillaris
Sappinia spp

527
Q

N. fowleri is AKA

A

Amoeboflagellate

528
Q

Trophozoite stage can transform into a flagellate stage or a resistant cyst; Biphasic

A

N. fowleri

529
Q

Opportunistic free-living amoebae which include A. castellani, A. culbertsoni, A. polyphaga,A. hatchetti, A. rhysodes

A

Acanthamoeba spp

530
Q

Morphologically similar to Acanthamoeba;
Cyst= trilayered
Trop=finger like pseudopods

A

Balamuthia mandrillaris

531
Q

Rare cause of meningoencephalitis

A

Sappinia spp.

532
Q

Not present in tissue,small,uninucleate,double- walled with smooth outer wall

A

N. fowleri cyst

533
Q
  • Present in tissue,large,uninucleate, double-walled with wrinkled-outer wall
    -Ectocyst is wrinkled
A

Acanthamoeba spp cyst

534
Q

2 biphasic form of N. fowleri

A

Amoeboid form
Flagellate form

535
Q

Form of N. fowleri which has lobate pseudopods (lobopods)

A

Amoeboid form

536
Q

Form of N. fowleri which has 2 anterior flagella

A

Flagellate form

537
Q

Rapidly motile

N. fowleri/ Acanthamoeba spp?

A

N. fowleri

538
Q

Slowly motile

N. fowleri/ Acanthamoeba spp?

A

Acanthamoeba spp

539
Q

Characterized by spiny/filiform pseudopods (acanthopods); No flagellate form

A

Acanthamoeba spp

540
Q

It cause PAM(Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis) acute

N. fowleri/ Acanthamoeba spp?

A

N. fowleri

541
Q

It cause GAE (Granulomatous Amebic Encephalitis) chronic , keratitis, skin lesion

N. fowleri/ Acanthamoeba spp?

A

Acanthamoeba spp

542
Q

Diagnostic stage of N. fowleri

Cyst/ Trop?

A

Trophozoites (amoeboid/flagellate)

543
Q

Diagnostic stage of Acanthamoeba spp

Cyst/ Trop?

A

Cyst & Trophozoites

544
Q

G. lamblia is AKA

A

G. duodenale

545
Q

4 nuclei, parabasal bodies, remnants of flagella

A

G. lamblia

546
Q

1 nucleus (lemon, nipple cyst), cytostome with curved fibril referred to as “shephered’s crook fibril”

A

C. mesnili

547
Q

2 or 4 nucleus, bipolar arrangement of nuclei, resembles E. nana cyst

A

E. hominis

548
Q

E. hominis resemble

A

E. nana cyst

549
Q

1 nucleus, cystostome extends above the nucleus “ bird’s beak”

A

R. intestinalis

550
Q

G. lamblia is found in

small/large intestine?

A

Small intestine

551
Q

It is considered as atrial flagellates and have no cyst

A

P. hominis
T. tenax
T. vaginalis

552
Q

Is is known as “old man with eyeglasses”

A

G. lamblia

553
Q

2 nuclei, 8 flagella, prominents sucking disc and axostyle,
* only bilaterally symmetrical

A

G. lamblia

554
Q

Motility of G. lamblia

A

Falling leaf-like

555
Q

How many is the flagella of G. lamblia?

A

8 Flagella

556
Q

C. mesnili, E. hominis, R. intestinalis, D fragilis. P. hominis is found in the:

small/ large intestine?

A

Large intestine

557
Q

1 nuclei, 3 anterior flagella & 1 fibril,prominent cytostome with spiral groove

A

C. mesnili

558
Q

Motility of C. mesnili

A

Cork-Screw/ Spiral

559
Q

How many is the flagella of C. mensnili

A

3 Anterior flagella

560
Q

1 nuclei, 4 flagella, one side of the body is flattened

A

E. hominis

561
Q

Motility of E. hominis

A

Jerky

562
Q

How many is the flagella of E. hominis

A

4 flagella =
3 Anterior flagella
1 Posterior flagella

563
Q

1 nuclei, 2 flagella; cytostome extends 1/2 of the length of the body

A

R. intestinalis

564
Q

Motility of R. intestinalis

A

Jerky

565
Q

How many flagella of R. intestinalis

A

2 Flagella =
1 anterior flagella
1 posterior flagella

566
Q

1 or 2 nuclei , no flagella, multiple hyaline,leaf-like pseudopods, fragmented tetrakaryosome

A

D. fragilis

567
Q

1 nuclei, 5 flagella, undulating membrane; axostyle extends beyond the organism’s body, cytoplasmic granules

A

P. hominis
T. tenax
T. vaginalis

568
Q

Motility of D. fragilis

A

Amoeboid

569
Q

Motility of P. hominis, T. tenax,
T. vaginalis

A

Rapid, jerky, tumbling

570
Q

How many is the flagella of T. vaginalis

A

5 flagella =
4 Anterior flagella
1 Posterior flagella

571
Q

T. tenax is found in:

Vagina/ Urogenital/ small intestine/ large /intestine/mouth?

A

Mouth

572
Q

T. vaginalis is found in

Mouth/ Intestine/ Urogenital tract?

A

Urogenital tract

573
Q

Longest undulating membrane; have axostyle extend beyond the body ; as long as costa

A

Pentatrichomonads hominis/ P. hominis

574
Q

Undulating membrane is almost as long as costa

A

T. tenax

575
Q

Undulating membrane is 1/2 or 2/3 of costa; shortest undulating membrane

A

T. vaginalis

576
Q

What are the trichomonads parasite?

A

P. hominis
T. tenax
T. vaginalis

577
Q

Cause traveler’s diarrhea and has been associated with homosexual men with gay bowel syndrome; pathogenic

A

G. lamblia

578
Q

G. lamblia use what type of test?

A

Entero test

579
Q

Intermittent diarrhea,nausea,vomiting, abdominal pain; pathogenicity depends on parasite loads

A

D. fragilis

580
Q

Diagnostic technique for D. fragilis

A

Trichrome stain

581
Q

Cause non-specific vaginitis,urethritis, or prostatitis, foul smelling discharge (mucopurelent);always pathogenic

A

T. vaginalis

582
Q

Gold standard medium for T. vaginalis

A

Diamond’s medium

583
Q

Categorized as Hemoflagellates

A

Leishmania spp
Trypanosoma brucei complex (T. b gambiense, T. b. rhodisiense)
T. cruzi

584
Q

What parasite?

Skin inoculation of promastigote by sand flies

A

Leishmania spp

585
Q

Parasite involves in Phlebotomus fly

A

Leishmania spp

586
Q

Parasite involve in Lutsomyia fly

A

Leishmania spp

587
Q

Diagnostic stage of Leishmania spp or in Man

A

Amastigote (intracellular replication form)

588
Q

What parasite?

Skin inoculation of metacyclic trypomastigote by Tse-tse flies

A

Trypanosoma brucei complex

589
Q

Diagnostic stage of T. brucei complex

A

Trypomastigote (extracellular)

590
Q

What genus is involve in Tse-tse fly?

A

Glossina spp

591
Q

What parasite?

Indirect inoculation of metacyclic trypomastigote from feces of reduviid/Triatomine bug/ Kissing bug?

A

T. cruzi

592
Q

Vector involve in T. cruzi?

A

Reduviid
Triatomine
Kissing bug

593
Q

Diagnosic stage of T. cruzi

A

Amastigote & Trypomastigote

594
Q

Developmental stage of Hemoflagellate

A

Promastigote
Amastigote
Metacylic Trypomastigote
Epimastigote
Trypomastigote

(PAMET)

595
Q

Infective stage in sandflies/ Leishmania?

A

Promastigote

596
Q

Culture medium used to grow Leishmania

A

Novy-MacNeal-Nicolle (NNN) or
Schneider’s Orosophilia medium

597
Q

Infective stage of T. cruzi and T. brucei

A

Metacylic trypomastigote

598
Q

Occurs in vectors; short undulating membrane

P/A/M/E/T?

A

Epimastigote

599
Q

Full undulating membrane due to kinetoplast; diagnostic stage in man; C,S, or U shaped in stain thick blood fim

A

Trypomastigote

600
Q

What is the life cycle of Leishmania spp

A

Promastigote (infective stage-sand fly) –> Amastigote (diagnostic stage-man)

601
Q

What is the life cycle of T. brucei

A

Metacyclic Trypomastigote (infective stage is in the tse-tse fly; infective form is in the salive)
—> Trypomastigote (diagnostic stage in man)
–> Epimastigote (Tsetse fly)
—> Metacyclic Trypomasigote

(MET)

602
Q

What is the life cycle of T. cruzi?

A

Metacyclic trypomastigote (IS)
–>Amastigote (DS in man)
—>Trypomastigote (DS in man)
–> Epimastigote (hindgut)
—> Metacylic trypomastigote

(AMET)

603
Q

3 classification of Leishmaniasis

A

Cutaneous
Muco-cutaneous
Visceral

604
Q

Other term for Old World CL

A

Oriental sore
Delhi ulcer
Aleppo boil
Baghdad boil

605
Q

Other term for New World CL

A

Chiclero’s ulcer
site: earlobe

606
Q

Other term for Old World VL

A

Dumdum fever
Black fever
* Kala-azar

607
Q

Darkening of the skin;
vector: sandfly

A

Kala-azar

608
Q

Agent of old world CL

A

L. tropica
L. major

609
Q

Agent of new world CL

A

L. mexicana (transmitted by Lutzomyia fly)

610
Q

Skin lesions with elevated margins that leave ugly scars on healing

A

Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

611
Q

Specimen for diagnosis in CL

A

Skin biopsy

612
Q

Cause espundia or tapir nose

A

Muco-cutaneous leishmaniasis

613
Q

Causative agent of Muco-cutaneous leishmaniasis

A

L. braziliensis

614
Q

Leprosy-like cutaneous lesions that spread to the mucous membranes

A

Muco-cutaneous Leishmaniasis

615
Q

Spx for diagnosis of Muco-cutaneous leishmaniasis

A

Skin and Mucosal biopsy

616
Q

Old world VL

A

L. donovani

617
Q

New world VL

A

L. chagasi

618
Q

Fever, organomegaly, ascites,anemia, hyperpigmentation of the skin

A

Visceral Leishmaniasis

619
Q

Spx for diagnosis in VL

A

Tissues aspirate
Biopsy

620
Q

African Trypanosomiasis is AKA

A

Sleeping sickness

621
Q

Causative agent of West African Trypanosomiasis

A

T. b. gambiense (chronic)

622
Q

Causative agent of East African Trypanosomiasis

A

T.b. rhodesiense (acute)

623
Q

3 Manifestation of Sleeping sickness

A
  1. Trypanosome chancre - lesion on the bite site
  2. Hemolymphatic stage - febrile stage or cervical lymphanopathy (Winterbottom’s sign)
  3. Meningoencephalitic or sleeping stage - somnolence (daytime sleepiness), coma, death
624
Q

Causa Winterbottom’s sign

A

African trypanosomiasis

625
Q

Spx for diagnosis in sleeping sickness

A

Blood
Lymph node aspirate
CSF

626
Q

New World or American Trypanosomiasis is AKA

A

Chagas disease

627
Q

Causative agent of Chagas disease

A

T. cruzi

628
Q

Causative agent of New World or American Trypanosomiasis

A

T. cruzi

629
Q

Lesions at the inoculation site of Chagas disease

A

Romania - swelling around the eyes (orbital edema)
Chagoma -swelling at other sites

630
Q

Largest intestinal protozoan

A

B. coli

631
Q

Common parasite of pigs (zoonotic)

A

B. coli

632
Q

B. coli is a

ciliate/apicomplexa/sarcomastigophora?

A

Ciliate

633
Q

Habitat of B. coli

A

Large intestine

634
Q

MOT of B. coli is:
Ingestion of ____

Sarcocysts/spores/oocysts/cysts?

A

Cysts

635
Q

Immediately infective in C. parvum

cysts/oocyst/sarcocyst?

A

oocysts

636
Q

Cause cryptosporidiosis

A

C. parvum

637
Q

C. parvum, C. beli, C. cayetanensis,S. hominis,S. suihominis,S. lindemanni is classified as:

Ciliate/ Microscoporidians/ Apicomplexans/Stramenophiles?

A

Apicomplexans

638
Q

Cause cytoisosporiasis

A

C. beli

639
Q

Cause cyclosporiasis

A

C. cayetanensis

640
Q

MOT of C. parvum, C. beli, C. cayetanensis

Ingestion of _____

Mature oocysts/Immature oocysts/cysts/spores

A

Mature oocysts

641
Q

MOT of S. hominis

Ingestion of _____ from undercooked meat

sporocysts/sarcocysts/spores/
cyst?

A

Sarcocysts

642
Q

Cause intestinal sarcocystosis

A

S. hominis

643
Q

Habitat of S. lindemanni

A

Muscle

644
Q

Definitive host and intermediate host of S. lindemanni

A

DH: Dog and Cat
IH:Man serve as dead-end intermediate host

645
Q

Cause tissue sarcocystis

A

S. lindemanni

646
Q

Blastocystis hominis is considered?

Thermophiles/Aerophiles/Stramenophiles

A

Stramenophiles

647
Q

MOT of S. lindemanni

Accidental ingestion of ___

Thick walled cyst/ mature oocyst/ spores?

A

Mature oocyst

648
Q

E. intestinalis and E. bieneusi is considered

A

Microscoporidians

649
Q

MOT of E. intestinalis and E. bieneusi

Ingestion or inhalation of ___

Cysts/ spores/ oocyst

A

Spores

650
Q

Cytopyge of B. coli trophozoite serve as?

A

Anus

651
Q

C. parvum is considered?

modified acid fast/modified acid fast variable?

what color?

A

Modified acid fast

Pink to red

652
Q

Diagnostic stage of C. beli and C. cayetanensis

A

Immature oocyst

653
Q

Infective stage of C. beli and C. cayetanensis

A

Mature oocyst

654
Q

C. beli and C. cayetanensis

Modified acid fats/ Modified acid fast variable?

A

Modified acid fast variable

655
Q

Cause (+) auto florescence

A

C. beli
C. cayetanensis
S. hominis

656
Q

Color of S. homonis in autofluorescence

A

Bright blue

657
Q

Nuclei of B. homis is reported atleast

A

≥ 5/hpf

658
Q

Type of microscope used in Microscoporidia

A

Electron microscope

659
Q

Stain used in Microscoporidia
what color?

A
  1. Modified trichrome - pink to red or diagonal stripe
  2. Calcofluor white - bluish white fluorescence
660
Q

Formation of oocyst from the union

A

Sporogonony

661
Q

DH of malarial parasites

A

Female anopheles mosquito

662
Q

IH of malarial parasites

A

Man or other vertebrae

663
Q

Formation of schizonts

A

Schizogony/Merozogony

664
Q

Formation of gametocytes

A

Gametozogony

665
Q

Sleeping or dorminant;
When activated can cause relapse or malarial symptoms

A

Hypnozoites

666
Q

3 cycle in Malarial parasites

A

Exo-erythrocytic cycle
Erythrocytic cycle
Sporogonic cycle

667
Q

Exo-erythrocytic cycle happens in

A

Liver(hepatic)

668
Q

Mosquito takes a blood meal( injects ______)

A

sporozoites

669
Q

Mosquito takes a blood meal ( ingests ______)

A

gametocytes

670
Q

Infective stage of malarial parasites

A

sporozoites

671
Q

Diagnostic stage of malarial parasites

A

Immature trophozoite (ring stage)
Mature trophozoite
Gametocytes

672
Q

Explain the life cycle of Malarial parasites

A

-Mosquito injects sporozoites (IS)
-Hypnozoites (when activated , cause relapse malarial symptoms)

Exo-erythrocytic cycle:
-Infect the liver cell
-Schizont
-Ruptures schizont (Merozoites)

Erythrocytic cycle:
-Human blood stages
-Immature trophozoites (ring stage)–> Gametocyctes = P. falciparum)

-Immature trophozoites –> Mature trophozoites–> schizont–>.ruptured schizont –> gametocyctes (P. vivax,P.ovale.P.malariae)

Sporogonic cycle:
-Mosquito injects gametocyctes
-Microgametocyte entering the Macrogametocyte
-Ookinete (zygote)
-Oocyst
-Release of sporozoites

673
Q

Age of RBC infected:

P. falciparum:
P. vivax:
P.ovale:
P.malariae:

A

P. falciparum: All ages
P. vivax: Young rbc
P.ovale: Young rbc
P.malariae: Mature rbc

674
Q

Appearance of parasitized rbc:

P. falciparum:
P. vivax:
P.ovale:
P.malariae:

A

P. falciparum: Normal,multiple infection of rbc, 8 ring forms

P. vivax: Larger than normal

P.ovale: Larger than normal; fimbriated edges

P.malariae: Normal in size or shape or maybe slightly smaller

675
Q

RBC stippling in malaria, using Giemsa stain:

P. falciparum:
P. vivax:
P.ovale:
P.malariae:

A

P. falciparum: MAurer’s dots
P. vivax: Schuffner’s dots
P.ovale: Schuffner’s dots/ James’s dots
P.malariae: Ziemann’s dots

676
Q

Stages in the peripheral blood :

P. falciparum:
P. vivax:
P.ovale:
P.malariae:

A

P. falciparum:
Ring, Gametocytes

P. vivax, P.ovale, P.malariae :
Ring, Mature trophozoites, Schizonts, Gametocytes

677
Q

Length of erythrocytic cycle:

P. falciparum:
P. vivax:
P.ovale:
P.malariae:

A

P. falciparum: 36-48 hrs
P. vivax: 48 hrs
P.ovale: 48 hrs
P.malariae: 72 hrs

678
Q

Shortest erythrocyctic cycle in malaria

A

P. falciparum

679
Q

Longest erythrocytic cycle in malaria

A

P. malariae

680
Q

Disease caused:

P. falciparum:
P. vivax:
P.ovale:
P.malariae:

A

P. falciparum: Malignant tertian malaria
P. vivax: Benign tertian malaria
P.ovale: Ovale tertian malaria
P.malariae: Quartan malaria

681
Q

Most fatal form of malaria

A

P. falciparum

682
Q

Rarely found in the peripheral blood of P. falciparum because they are sequestered in the deep vasculature (small blood vessels of internal organs) where schizogony occurs

A

Mature trophozoites
Schizonts

683
Q

Developmental stage of malaria:
*multiple infection of rbc up to 8 per cell
*Double chromatin dots
-Applique/ accole form/ marginal

A

Young trophozoites of P. falciparum

684
Q

Developmental stage of malaria:
-RBC are oval in shape
-Ringform is dense and compact

A

Young trophozoite in P. ovale

685
Q

Malarial parasites that has band form

A

P. malariae

686
Q

Malarial parasites that has fimbriated rbc

A

P. ovale

687
Q

In what stage does stippling of malarial parasites start to appear

A

Mature trophozoites

688
Q

32 merozoites

A

P. falciparum

689
Q

12-24 merozoites

A

P. vivax

690
Q

8-12 merozoites

A

P. ovale

691
Q
  • Malarial parasites arrange in rossette or daisy formation or fruit pie arrangement
A

P. malariae

692
Q

6-12 merozoites

A

P. malariae

693
Q

Microgametocytes: Sausage shape, scattered chromatin

A

P. falciparum

694
Q

Macrogametocytes: Crescent shape with pointed ends, central chromatin mass

A

P. falciparum

695
Q

Microgametocytes: Central chromatin mass

A

P. vivax. P. ovale. P. malariae

696
Q

Macrogametocytes: Peripheral chromatin mass, round/ oval

A

P. vivax. P. ovale, P. malariae

697
Q

Sausage shape, scattered chromatin in P. falciparum

Macrogametocytes/ Microgametocytes?

A

Microgametocytes

698
Q

Crescent shape with pointed ends, central chromatin mass

Macrogametocytes/ Microgametocytes?

A

Macrogametocytes

699
Q

Central chromatin mass in P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae

Macrogametocytes/ Microgametocytes?

A

Microgametocytes

700
Q

Peripheral chromatin mass in P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae

Macrogametocytes/ Microgametocytes?

A

Macrogametocytes

701
Q

Incubation period of Malaria

A

8-40 days

702
Q

Classical sign and characterized by chills, fever, and profuse sweating

A

Paroxysm

703
Q

Periodicity of malaria is determine by

A

length of the erythrocytic cycle/ recurrence of paroxysm

704
Q

Periodicity of P. knowlesi

A

Quotidian - every 24 hrs

705
Q

Periodicity of P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale

A

Tertian malaria - every 48 hrs

706
Q

Periodicity of P. malariae

A

Quartan- every 72 hrs

707
Q

What type of Malarial parasites:

Manifestation:Intravascular hemolysis leading to Black water fever, anemia, cerebral malaria

A

P. falciparum

708
Q

Black water fever

A

P. falciparum

709
Q

Relapse may occur with ______ infections due to reactivation of ____ in the liver

A

P. vivax
P. ovale

Hypnozoites

710
Q

What type of malarial parasites?
Sickle cell trait has resistance to

A

P. falciparum

711
Q

Blood type group that has resistance to P. vivax

A

Duffy- negative blood group - common among blacks

712
Q

5th human malaria

A

P. knowlesi

713
Q

Causative agent of Simian malaria

A

P. knowlesi

714
Q

Type of malaria that parasitize monkey

A

Simian malaria

715
Q

P. knowlesi:

Young forms resemble___
Mature forms resemble ___

A

P. falciparum

P. malariae

716
Q

Common encountered Babesia

A

B. microti

717
Q

Intraerythrocytic parasites that resembles plasmodium spp

A

Babesia spp

718
Q

T. gondii _____ are resistant to freezing, drying and extreme environmental conditions but are killed by heating to _____°C for ___ mins

A

Oocysts
70°C
10 mins

719
Q

Babesia spp

DH:
IH:

A

DH:Ticks (Ixodes)
IH: Rodents ; Man -accidental IH

720
Q

T. gondii

DH:
IH:

A

DH: Cat
IH: Rodents & Bird ; Man- accidental IH

721
Q

Babesia spp

Skin inoculation of ______
by ticks

A

sporozoites

722
Q

T. gondii

Ingestion of _____ from infected meat

Ingestion of ____ from cat’s feces

A

tissue cysts

oocysts

723
Q

Pear shaped ring forms, tetrads(maltese cross)

A

Babesia spp

724
Q

Hallmark of babesiosis

A

Maltese cross

725
Q

The rapidly dividing form of T. gondii that causes acute infections.

A

Tachyzoites

726
Q

The slowly growing form of T. gondii that causes chronic infections.

A

Bradyzoites

727
Q

Babesiosis is AKA

A

Piroplasmosis

728
Q

Babesiosis in cattle can cause

A

Red water fever

729
Q

Most frequent parasite in urine

A

T. vaginalis

RMT (3 decks)

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