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Parasitology Flashcards

1
Q

living together a phylogenetically different organisms

A

symbiosis

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2
Q

beneficial to both organisms

A

mutualism

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3
Q

beneficial to one organism, neutral to the other

A

commensalism

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4
Q

beneficial to an organism harmful to the other

A

parasitism

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5
Q

harbors the adult or sexual stage of a parasite

A

definitive

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6
Q

harbors the larval or asexual stage of a parasite

A

intermediate

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7
Q

harbors a parasite that does not develop but remains alive and is infective to the next host

A

paratenic

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8
Q

allows the parasites life cycle to continue and serves as a source of human infection

A

reservoir

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9
Q

depends entirely upon its host for existence

A

obligate

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10
Q

capable of parasitic and free living existence

A

facultative

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11
Q

larval stage is passed in a host while the adult is free living

A

transitory

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12
Q

completes its life cycle in one host for all stages

A

permanent

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13
Q

requires one or two more host for the larval and adult stages

A

periodic

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14
Q

primarily infects animals and may be acquired by man

A

zoonotic

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15
Q

occurs in an unusual host

A

accidental

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16
Q

occurs in an unusual organ or habitat

A

erratic

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17
Q

passes through the intestinal tract without causing any disturbance

A

spurious or coprozoic

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18
Q

lives inside the body of a host; invasion is called infection

A

endoparasite

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19
Q

lives on body surfaces; invasion is called infestation

A

ectoparasite

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20
Q

visits the host only during feeding time

A

intermittent

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21
Q

a type of vector that transmits a parasite only after the latter has completed part of its development

A

biologic vector

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22
Q

type of vector that’s not essential in the parasites life cycle and is responsible only for transporting the parasite

A

mechanical/phoretic

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23
Q

parasites transmitted by mosquitoes

A

plasmodium spp., wuchereria bancrofti, brugia malayi

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24
Q

parasites transmitted by biting flies

A

leishmania spp., trypanosoma brucei other filariae

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25
Q

parasite transmitted by kissing bugs

A

trypanosoma cruzi

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26
Q

parasite transmitted by ticks

A

babesia spp.

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27
Q

parasites transmitted by cockroaches and houseflies

A

mechanical vectors of ascaris lumbricoides and other enteric parasites

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28
Q

binomial system of nomenclature that represents the taxon to which the species belongs first letter is capitalized

A

genus

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29
Q

binomial system of nomenclature in which the trivial name that distinguishes the species within the genus

A

specific epithet

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30
Q

phylums under protozoa which are unicellular eukaryotes

A

phylum sarcomastigophora - amoebae flagellates
phylum ciliophora - ciliates
phylum apicomplexa - coccidians/sporozoans (non-motile)

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31
Q

other unicellular parasites

A

blastocystis spp.
microsporidians
pneumocystis jirovecii

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32
Q

phylums in helminths

A

phylum nemathelminthes
phylum platyhelminthes

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33
Q

classes in arthropods

A

class arachnida
class insecta
class crustacea

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34
Q

what’s the clearance period of:
- antacids, antidiarrheals, barium bismuth, laxatives
- antimicrobial agents
- gallbladder dyes

A

7-10 days
2-3 weeks
3 weeks

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35
Q

amount of stool needed for:
- routine ova and parasite
- liquid or watery stool

A

2 to 5 g
5 to 6 teaspoons

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36
Q

number of specimens examined for stool?

A

three specimens collected on separate days within 10 days

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37
Q

maximum time between collection and examination for liquid, soft/semi-formed specimens and formed specimens

A

liquid: 30 mins
soft/semi: 1 hr
formed: 24 hrs

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38
Q

beyond 1 hour the stool must be ____
and for longer preservation must need to be preserved using what system?
ratio of stool to preservative?

A

refrigerated for up to 24 hours
2-vial system (1 formalin; 1 PVA)
1:3 and well immersed

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39
Q

fixative used for WM, CT and IA
an all purpose fixative

A

10% formalin

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40
Q

fixative used for WM & CT
fix and stain

A

MIF (merthiolate iodine formalin)

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41
Q

fixative used for WM, CT, PS, IA
used for permanent stains

A

SAF (sodium acetate acetic acid formalin)

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42
Q

fixatives used for PS only

A

Schaudinn’s fluid
polyvinyl alcohol
modified PVA

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43
Q

macroscopic examination for stool:
- color/appearance
- consistency
- macroscopic structures

A
  • brown - normal; black/tarry - upper GI bleeding; mucoid/bloody - dysentery
  • determines the sensitivity of egg counting techniques; gives clues on parasites stages present
  • adult worms, scolices, proglottids
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44
Q

decreased sensitivity for O adn P examination and is prepared by mixing 2 mg with a drop of 0.85% saline
useful in the detection of motile protozoan trophozoites, helminth eggs and larvae
what is the stain that can be used for this technique?

A

wet mount or direct fecal smear
iodine

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45
Q

concentration techniques

A

formalin-ether concentration technique
acid-ether concentration technique

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46
Q

concentration technique that could be used in specimen preserved in formalin, MIF or SAF
what is the purpose of each composition?

A

formalin-ether concentration technique
formalin - fixative
ether/ethyl acetate - saponifies fats

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47
Q

a CT that uses 40% HCl to remove precipitates albuminous/nucleoidal substances recommended for animal parasite, trichuris, capillaria and schistosoma eggs

A

acid-ether concentration technique

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48
Q

flotation procedures

A

Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
Brine’s flotation
Sheather’s flotation

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49
Q

33% ZnSO4 with SG of ___ for processing fresh feces
- it is adjusted to __ when formalin is used
is cleaner than FECT but unreliable for some eggs

A

Zinc sulfate centrifugal flotation
1.18
1.2

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50
Q

uses saturated salt solution with a specific gravity of 1.2; no centrifugation is required; not applicable for operculate and thin-shelled eggs

A

Brine’s flotation

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51
Q

uses boiled sugar solution preserved with phenol preferred for concentrating coccidian or oocyst

A

Sheather’s flotation

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52
Q

stains used for permanent staining

A

iron hematoxylin
Wheatley’s trichrome
modified trichrome
modified acid-fast stain

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53
Q

these are mistaken as:
neutrophils
mite eggs
pollen grains
yeast/fungal elements

A

mature E. histolytica cyst
hookworm egg
taenia or ascaris eggs
leishmania amastigotes

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54
Q

50 to 60 mg stool placed over a glass slide covered with cellophane that has been soaked in a mixture of glycerin and malachite green

A

kato thick
(for mass stool exam)

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55
Q

useful for assessing worm burden and monitoring the efficacy of antihelminthics especially in cases of schistosomiasis and soil transmitted helminths
what techniques are under this?

A

egg counting techniques;
kato-katz
stoll dilution
Faust-Malloney egg hatching technique

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56
Q

a modification of the kato thick method which uses a measured amount of storage has been sieved through a wire mesh

A

Kato-Katz

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57
Q

factors for Kato Katz

A

1.5x6mm = 24
1x9mm = 20
0.5x6.5mm = 50

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58
Q

makes use of calibrated flask and Stoll pipettes; diluent used is 0.1N naoh

A

Stoll dilution

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59
Q

used to determine the severity of schistosoma infection

A

Faust-Meleney egg hatching technique

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60
Q

stool culture methods

A

copro culture
Harada-Mori or test tube culture method

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61
Q

uses moist and soil or granulated charcoal; larvae or harvested using the Baermann technique

A

copro culture

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62
Q

involves applying positive stool to a filter paper strip and placing it into a tube with distilled water for 10 days at 25-30 deg

A

Harada-Mori or test tube culture method

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63
Q
  • used to detect eggs of E. vermicularis
  • for the diagnosis of amoebiasis
  • are useful for the recovery of G. lamblia, C. parvum and S. stercoralis; contact time is 4 hours and the collected material must be analyzed within 1 hr
A

perianal swab
sigmoidoscopy
entero test

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64
Q

-anticoagulated blood must be delivered to the laboratory within 30 minutes and must be processed within 1 hour; EDTA>heparin
- timing of collection for malaria is ______ and filariasis depends on ____

A

for blood specimen collection

before the next anticipated fever strike; the periodicity

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65
Q

uses two to five small drops of blood which is mixed to form circular smear and is dehemoglobinized before staining; used for rapid diagnosis

A

thick blood smear

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66
Q

smear is thick at one and then thin and feathery on the other end fixed with alcohol prior to staining and is used for species identification

A

thin blood smear

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67
Q

formula for thick and thin smear

A

thick: parasites/uL blood = (parasites/wbc counted) x wbc count per uL or 8k wbcs
thin: % parasitemia = (parasitized RBCs/total RBCs counted) x 100

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68
Q

stains used for blood parasites

A

giemsa, wright’s, delafield hematoxylin & kawamoto technique

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69
Q

uses capillary tube pre-coated with acridine orange which the parasite’s DNA takes up. It uses a ___ microscope

A

quantitative buffy coat; fluorescence

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70
Q

concentration techniques:
a. uses 10mL of 10% formalin followed by centri
b. blood is lysed with 10 mL ditilled water in a syringe with a 5-um membrane filter attached

A

a. Knott’s concentration
b. membrane filtration

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71
Q

specimen used for the demonstration of Naegleria and Acanthamoeba trophozoites, trypomastigotes adn cysticerci

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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72
Q

specimen used to examine T. vaginalis trophozoites, S. haematobium ova and rarely W. bancrofti microfilariae

A

urogenital tract specimens

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73
Q

specimen used for demontration P. westermani ova, migrating helmith larvae, E. histolytica trophozoites and Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

sputum or BAL

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74
Q

in antigen detection:
organisms that are present in stool specimen are:

A

E. histolytica, G. lamblia, C. parvum
LFA, DFA, EIA

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75
Q

in antigen detection:
organism that are present in vaginal swab specimen is:

A

T vaginalis
LFA, DFA

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76
Q

in antigen detection:
organisms that are present in blood specimen are:

A

Plasmodium spp., P. falciparum
LFA

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77
Q

in antibody detection:
organisms that are present in serum specimen are:

A

Leishmania spp., Trypanosoma cruzi, Plasmodium spp., toxoplasma gondii, wuchereria bancrofti, trichinella spiralis, schistosoma spp, T. solium, E. granulosus

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78
Q

SFDT or Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for?
COPT or circumoval precipitin test is used for?

A
  • detects toxoplasmosis, it uses live T. gondii (+0 if it remains unstained (GOLD STD for T. gondii)
  • detects S. japonicum (or schistosoma eggs) using live eggs, (+) it blebs/precipitate around the eggs
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79
Q

molecular diagnosis: PCR
what involves detection of amplicons using gel electrophoresis?
which uses fluorophores to enable detection of amplicons as they are produced?
common target?

A
  • conventional PCR
  • Real time PCR
  • rDNA
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80
Q

waht are the steps and temp required for each one:
a. separation of template DNA to single strands
b. binding of primers specific for each target strand sequence
c. addition of deoxyribonucleotidees to produce new strands

A

a. denaturation - 94degC
b. annealing - 50-65degC
c. extension or elongation - 72degC

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81
Q

E. histolytica
(cyst morphology)

A

only pathogenic and invasive, hallmark-RBC ingestion,

spherical, 1-4 nuclei, CB: elongate bars with bluntly rounded ends “cigar-shaped” (+histolytica, dispar, hartmanni - small race)

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82
Q

Entamoeba coli
(cyst morphology)

A

has the most no. of nuclei (1-8), spherical or oval,
CB: broom stick appearance or splinter-like with pointed/rough ends

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83
Q

Endolimax nana
(cyst morphology)

A

cross-eyed cyst, has sluggish motion, dwarf internal slug
oval, 4 nuclei, CB: small, round, oval

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84
Q

Iodamoeba butschlii
(cyst morphology)

A

uninucleate, with inclusion mass
irregular, 1 nucleus, CB: none but with glycogen vacuole (stains with iodine)

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85
Q

E. histolytica
(troph morphology)

A

Karyosome: small, discrete, central
peripheral chromatin: fine, uniform, evently distributed granules (+hartmanni & dispar)
cytoplasmic inclusion: bacteria (dispar & hartmanni) ingested rBC (histo only)

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86
Q

Entamoeba coli
(troph morphology)

A

K: large and eccentric
PC: coarse and regular
CI: bacteria, yeast, other

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87
Q

Endolimax nana
(troph morphology)

A

K: large, irregular, or blot-like
CI: bacteria

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88
Q

Iodamoeba butschlii
(troph morphology)

A

K: central/peripheral; surrounded with achromatic granules basket nucleus
CI: bac, yeast, other

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89
Q

Entamoeba gingivalis
(troph morphology)

A

K: central and distinct
Ci: food vacuoles, WBCs

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90
Q

infective stage of E.histolytica and MOT

A

mature cyst; ingestion

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91
Q

flask shaped ulcers in the colon?
incubation period and symptomps of acute symptomatic intestinal amebiasis?

A

amoebic ulcers
2-5 days, presents with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain

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92
Q

Free living amoebae

A

naegleria fowleri
acanthamoeba spp.
balamuthia mandrillaris

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93
Q

naeglaeria fowleri vs acanthamoeba spp. (CYST)

A

NF: 7-15 um, not in tissues, small round, uninucleated double walled with smooth outer wall
AS: 10-25um present in tissues; large, uninucleate, couble walled with wrinkled outer wall

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94
Q

naeglaeria fowleri vs acanthamoeba spp. (TROPH)

A

NF: central nucelolus,finely granulated cytoplasm. biphasic: amoeboid (with pseudopods); flagellate (2 anterior flagella); rapidly motile
AS: large, spiny filiform pseudopods, no flagelate form and slowly motile

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95
Q

naeglaeria fowleri vs acanthamoeba spp.
diseases caused and diagnostic stages:

A

NF: primary amoebic meningoencephalitis; trophozoites
AS: granulomatous amoebic encephalitis; cysts and troph

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96
Q

CYST MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
G. lamblia

A

OVAL; 4 nuclei, axoneme, parabasal bodies, remnants of flagella

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97
Q

CYST MORPH: intestinal and atrial flagellates
C. mesnili

A

LEMON/NIPPLE; 1 nuclei, cytosome with curved fibril referred to as Shepherd’s crook fibril

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98
Q

CYST MORPH: intestinal and atrial flagellates
E. hominis

A

ELLIPSOIDAL; 2 or 4 nuclei, bipolar arrangement of nuclei, resemles E. nana cyst

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99
Q

CYST MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
R. intestinalis

A

OVOID; 1 nuclei, cytosome extends above nucleus (bird’s beak) - resembles C. mesnili cyst

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100
Q

TROPH MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
G. lamblia

A

2 nuc, 8 flagella, falling leaf motility; prominent sucking dics and axostyle

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101
Q

TROPH MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
C. mesnili

A

1 nuc, 3 anterior flag & 1 fibril, cork screw/spiral jerky; prominent cytosome with spiral groove

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102
Q

TROPH MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
E. hominis

A

1 nuc, 4 flag, jerky; one side of body flattened

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103
Q

TROPH MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
R. intestinalis

A

1 nuc, 2 flag, jerky; cytosome extends 1/2 the length of the body

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104
Q

TROPH MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
D. fragilis

A

1 or 2 (80%) nuc, no flag, amoeboid, multiple hyaline, leaf-like pseudopodia, framented tetrakaryosom

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105
Q

TROPH MORPH: intestial and atrial flagellates
P. hominis, T. tenax, T. vaginalis

A

1 nuc, 5 flag, rapid jerky, tumbling; undulating membrane, axostyle extends beyond the organism’s body, cytoplasmic granules

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106
Q

PATHOLOGY:
Giardia lamblia
Dientamoeba fragilis
Trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • giardiasis/traveller’s diarrhea (homosexual men with gay bowel syndrome)
  • intermittent diarrheae, nausea, vomitting, abdominal pain
  • causes non-specific vaginitis, urethritis or prostatitits
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107
Q

HEMOFLAGELLATES:
Leishmania spp. MOT, vector, IS, DS, habitat?

A

MOT: skin inoc by promastigotes (IS), sandflies, (phlebotomus/lutzomiya)
DIAG: amastigotes
HAB: lymphoid tissues of the skin, mucous mem, visceral organs

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108
Q

HEMOFLAGELLATES:
Trypanosoma brucei complex MOT, vector, IS, DS, habitat?

A

MOT: skin inoc by metacyclic/metacystic trypomastigote, tsetse fly (glossina)
DIAG: trypomastigote
HAB: blood, lymph, csf

109
Q

HEMOFLAGELLATES:
Trypanosoma cruzi MOT, vector, IS, DS, habitat?

A

MOT: indirect inoc, of metacyclic/metacystic trypomastigotes, from feces of kissing reduviid bugs/triatomine bugs
DIAG: amastigotes, trypomastigotes
HAB: ECs, muscle and nervous tissues

110
Q

developmental stages of hemoflagellates: PAMET
for Leishmania?
for T brucei?
for T cruzi?

A

promastigote, amastigote, metacyclic trypomastigote, epimastigote, trypomastigote (PAMET)
Leish: PA (P is IS)
T. bru: MET (M is IS)
T. cru: AMET (M is IS)

111
Q

PATHOLOGY:
cutaneous leishmaniasis agents and specimen used

A

OLD WORLD: L. tropica, L. major
NEW WORLD: L. mexicana
spx: skin biopsy from margin of ulcer

112
Q

PATHOLOGY:
muco-cutenous leishmaniasis

A

agent: L. braziliensis (disfiguring, leprosy-like),
spx: skin and mucosal biopsy
~ sign: espundia or tapir’s nose

113
Q

PATHOLOGY:
visceral leishmaniasis
(other names: __)

A

OLD: L. donovani
NEW: L. chagasi
spx: tissues aspirates or biopsy
other names: black fever, Kala-Azar, Dumdum fever

114
Q

PATHOLOGY:
African Trypanosomiasis or Sleeping Sickness

A

West African: T. brucei gambiense (chronic)
East African: T. brucei rhodesiense (acute)
manif: trypanosome chancre, swelling in the neck (Winterbottom sign)
spx: blood, LN aspirate, CSF

115
Q

PATHOLOGY:
new world or American Trypanosomiasis

A

agent: T. cruzi
manif: lesions at inoculum, Romana (sweeling around eyes), Chagome (swelling in other sites)
spx: blood, biopsy from affected organs

116
Q

other parasites:
Balantidium coli habitat, MOT and disease caused

A

-parasite of pigs; large intestine,
MOT: ingestion causing balantidiasis/balantidial dysentery

117
Q

other parasites:
Cryptosporidium parvum habitat, MOT and disease caused

A
  • oocyst is immediately infective; in brush border of small intestine
    MOT: ingestion of mature/sporolated oocysts causing cryptosporidiosis
118
Q

other parasites:
Cytoisospora belli habitat, MOT and disease caused

A
  • in SI
    MOT: ingestion of mature/sporolated oocysts causing cytosporiasis
119
Q

other parasites:
Cyclospora cayetanensis habitat, MOT and disease caused

A
  • cyanobacterium-like body; in SI
    MOT: ingestion of mature/sporolated oocysts causing cyclosporiasis
120
Q

other parasites:
Sarcocystis hominis and S. suihominis habitat, MOT and disease caused

A
  • in SI
    MOT: ingestion of sarcocyst from undercooked meat
    causes tissue sarcocytosis
121
Q

other parasites:
Sarcocystis lindemanni habitat, MOT and disease caused

A
  • in muscle
    MOT: accidental ingestion of mature/sporolated eggs
    causes tissue sarcocystis
    (man is dead end IH, cat and dogs as DH)
122
Q

other parasites:
Blastocystis hominis habitat, MOT and disease caused

A
  • in SI
    MOT: ingestion of thick walled cyst and is asymptomatic
123
Q

other parasites:
Encephalitozoon intestinalis and Enterocytozoon bieneusi

A
  • in SI
    MOT: ingestion/inhalation of spores causing diarrheal dse in immunocompromised ptx
124
Q

MALARIAL PARASITE:
P. falciparum (RBC age, appearance of RBC, stipplig, stages, length of cycle and dse caused)

A
  • all rbc stages, normal rbc appearance, Maurer’s dots, rings and gametocytes, 36-48 hrs, causes Malignant tertian malaria
125
Q

MALARIAL PARASITE:
P. vivax (RBC age, appearance of RBC, stipplig, stages, length of cycle and dse caused)

A
  • young rbcs, larger, pale ad oval to normal rbc, Schuffner’s dots, all stages, 48 hrs, causes Benign tertian malaria
126
Q

MALARIAL PARASITE:
P. ovale (RBC age, appearance of RBC, stipplig, stages, length of cycle and dse caused)

A
  • young rbcs, larger, oval and may have fimbriated edges, Schauffner’s/James dots, all stages, 48 hrs, causes Ovale tertian malaria
127
Q

MALARIAL PARASITE:
P. malariae (RBC age, appearance of RBC, stipplig, stages, length of cycle and dse caused)

A

mature rbcs, size small or N, all stages, 72 hrs causes Quartan malaria

128
Q

hallmarks for plasmodium trophs
P. falciparum and P. malariae

A
  • young has chromatin dots like headphones; microgametocyte is sausage shaped; macrogametocyte is cresent shaped
  • mature troph for malariae has band form; schizont is in rosette formation
129
Q

incubation time of malaria?
what is its classical sign?
what species might cause relapse?

A

8-40 days
paroxysm
vivax and ovale thru hypnozoites

130
Q

periodicity of malaria:
what are they called if 24 hrs? 48? 72?
maifestation of falciparum
resistant to sickle cell trait? duffy neg?

A

Quotidian = 24; tertian = 48; quartan = 72
blackwater fever, anemia, cerebral malaria
sickle: falciparum; duffy: vivax

131
Q

what is the Simian/5th human malaria?
its young forms resemble who? mature forms?

A

P. knowlesi
young: falciparum; mature: malariae

132
Q

intraerythrocytic parasites that resemble Plasmodium spp.
whats the IH and DH, MOT, diagnostic stage and dse caused?

A

Babesia spp.
DH: ticks (Ixodes spp.); IH: rodent (man accidental)
MOT: ski inoc of sporozoites by ticks OR blood transfusio OR organ transplant
DIAG: pear-shaped ring forms, tetrads/maltese cross
DSE: Babesiosis/Piroplasmosis (red water fever in cattles)
giemsa is used for staining in babesia

133
Q

Toxoplasma gondii:
whats the IH and DH, MOT, diagnostic stage and dse caused?

A

DH: cat; IH: rodent/bird
MOT: ingestion of tissue cyst from infected meat; ingestion oocyst of cat species, transplacental (TORCH), blood transf
DIAG: serology as primary techinque
DSE: toxoplasmosis

134
Q

cylindrical, unsegmented, bilaterally symmetrical bodies non-hermaphroditic

135
Q

characteristic of males and female nematodes

A

females: smaller, shorter with coiled tail end and except hookworms
males: larger,longer with straight tail end

136
Q

definition of oviparous, ovo-viviparous and viviparous

A

O: produce unembryonated eggs (external embyonation)
~ A. lumbricoides, T. trichiura, Hookworms
OV: fully embyonated eggs (internal)
~ S. stercoralis, E. vermicularis
V: dont lay eggs but fully dev’ larvae
~ T. spiralis, filarial worms, D. medinensis, D. immitis

137
Q

unholy trinity
most common helminth infx in the world
3rd most common roundworm of humans
largest intestinal nematode
parasite that can produce 2 types of egg

A

T. trichiura, A. lumbricoides & Hookworms
E. vermicularis
T. trichiura
A. lumbricoides
C. philippinensis

138
Q

diagnostic stage and infective stage of Strongyloides stercoralis

A

DS: rhabditiform larvae
IS: filariform larvae
~ it can migrate to other organs

139
Q

diagnostic stage and infective stage of Capillaria philippinesis
where does the egg get embryonated?

A

DS: unembryonated eggs in the feces; embryonated eggs in host
IS: larvae in fish (IH)
eggs embyonate in water

140
Q

NEMATODES:
E. vermicularis common name, DS, MOT/IS

A

pinworm/seatworm
DS: embryonated eggs
MOT/IS: hand to mouth or inhalation

141
Q

NEMATODES:
T. trichiura common name, DS, MOT/IS

A

whipworm
DS: unembryonated eggs
MOT: ingestion from contaminated sources
- they dont go lung migration

142
Q

NEMATODES:
A. lumbricoides common name, DS, MOT/IS

A

giant intestinal roundworm
DS: eggs (ferti and unferti)
MOT: ingestion from contaminated sources
- can migrate to lung

143
Q

NEMATODES: common name, DS, MOT/IS
N. americanus
A. duodenale
A. ceylanicum

A

new world hookworm, old world hook worm, zoonotic hookworm
DS: unembryonated eggs
MOT: skin penetration by filariform larvae
- can migrate to lung

144
Q

NEMATODES:
Strongyloides stercoralis common name, DS, MOT/IS

A

threadworm
DS: rhabditiform larvae (eggs laid in SI)
MOT: skin penetration by filariform larvae
- can migrate to lung

145
Q

NEMATODES:
Capillaria philippinensis common name, DS, MOT/IS

A

Pudoc worm
DS: unembryonated eggs
MOT: ingestion of infective larvae from fish (need fish as IH)

146
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
colorless, D-shaped, lopsided, planoconvex, contain a fully developed larva

A

E. vermicularis egg

147
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
whitish, cuticular alar explansion/cephalic alae prominent esophageal bulb

A

E. vermicularis adult

148
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
yellow to brown, barrel, football, lemon, or Japanese lantern-shaped with rounded bipolar plugs

A

T. trichiura egg

149
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
pinkish gray, whip-like with slender anterior 2/3; esophagus is lined by stichocytes

A

T. trichiura adult

150
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
fertilized: yellow brown, round or ovoidal , thick shell with 3 layers
unfertilized: elongated, shell often very thin and may be decorticated

A

A. lumbricoides egg

151
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
pink or white; superficially resembles an earthworm
mouth of male and female adult has trilobate lips

A

A. lumbricoides adult

152
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
oval or ellipsoidal with a thin colorless shell with grayish cells

A

Hookworm eggs

153
Q

NEMATODE MORPH:
characteristic dental pattern of:
N. americanus: ____
A. duodenale: ____

A

N: pair of semilunar cutting plates
A: 2 pairs of teeth

154
Q

MORPH OF HOOKWORMS:
rhabditiform larva of hookworm vs S. stercoralis

A

H: 240 um, buccal cav is longer; genital primord is small
S: 225 um, buccal is short; genital pirmord is large

155
Q

MORPH OF HOOKWORMS:
filariform larva of hookworm vs S. stercoralis

A

H: 700 um, length ofgf esoph short, sheath is present, tail end is pointed
S: 550 um, lenght of esoph long, sheath is absent, tail end is forked/notched/bifid

156
Q

PATHOLOGY:
pruritus ani caused by femaile migration; insomnia and restlessness

A

enterobiasis

157
Q

PATHOLOGY:
few or no symptoms, heavy infections may cause mild anemia and rectal prolapse due to mucosal bleeding

A

trichiuriasis

158
Q

PATHOLOGY:
intestinal: pneumonitis or Loeffler’s syndrome; allergy and peripheral eosinophilia; ectopic ___

A

Ascariasis

159
Q

PATHOLOGY:
cutaneous: ground itch
pulmonary: Loeffler’s Syndrome
Intestinal: obstruction of bile duct, airway, GI blood loss leading to IDA

A

Hookworm infection

160
Q

PATHOLOGY:
cutaneous: larva migrans
pulmonary: loeffler’s syndrome
intestinal: diarrhea or malabsorption

A

strongyloidiasis

161
Q

PATHOLOGY:
abdominal pain, chronic diarrhea nad peculiar abdominal gurgling sound

A

Capillariasis

162
Q

FILARIAL WORM:
Wuchereria bancrofti arthropod vector, habitat and dse

A

mosquitoes (Aedes, Culex, Anopheles, Mansonia spp.);
lower lymphatics
lymphedema of the limbs, scrotum or breast (elephantiasis)

163
Q

FILARIAL WORM:
Brugia malayi arthropod vector, habitat and dse

A

mosquitoes (Mansonia spp.)
upper lymphatics
elephantic lesions in the upper limbs

164
Q

FILARIAL WORM:
Loa loa arthropod vector, habitat and dse

A

deerflies/mangoflies (Chrysops spp.) - doesnt cause blindness
subcutaneous tissues, eyes
Calabar or fugitive swelling

165
Q

FILARIAL WORM:
Mansonella perstans and Mansonella ozzardi arthropod vector, habitat and dse

A

midges (Cullicoides spp.)
body cavities, mesenteries
generally asymptomatic

166
Q

FILARIAL WORM:
Mansonella streptocerca arthropod vector, habitat and dse

A

midges (Cullicoides spp.)
dermis/skin
pruritic papules

167
Q

FILARIAL WORM:
Onchocerca volvulus arthropod vector, habitat and dse

A

blackflies (Simullum spp.)
subcutaneous tissues; eyes (blinding filaria)
Onchocercoma (skin nodules), river blindness

168
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: present
Nuclei in tip: ABSENT
periodicity: nocturnal periodic (10pm to 2am)

A

W. bancrofti

169
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: present
Nuclei in tip: 2 distinct terminal nuclei
periodicity: sub-periodic (night>day)

170
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: present
Nuclei in tip: PRESENT
periodicity: diurnal periodic (day)

171
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: absent
Nuclei in tip: present
periodicity: non-periodic

A

M. perstans

172
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: absent
Nuclei in tip: absent
periodicity: non-periodic

A

M. ozzardi

173
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: absent
Nuclei in tip: present (Shepherd’s crook)
periodicity: N/A (not in peripheral blood)

A

M. streptocerca

174
Q

FILARIAL WORM MORPH:
Sheath: absent
Nuclei in tip: absent
periodicity: N/A (not in peripheral blood)

A

Onchocerca volvulus

175
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
pork muscle roundworm
adult: SI; larva: skeletal muscle
MOT: ingestion of encysted larvae

A

Trichinella spiralis
trichinosis

176
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
guinea worm/sepent dragon worm
site: gravid female inhabits subcutaneous tissues of lower limbs
MOT: ingestion of L3 from copepods

A

Dracunculus medinensis
dracontiasis

177
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
rat lung worm
site: brain
MOT: ingestion of L3 from mollusks

A

Parastrongylus cantonensis
eosinophilic meningoencephalitis

178
Q

site: abdominal cavity
MOT: ingestion of L3 from mollusks

A

Parastrongylus costaricensis
abdominal angiostrongyliasis

179
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
??
site: liver
MOT: ingestion of embryonated eggs

A

Capillaria hepatica
hepatic capillairasis or spurious infection

180
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
dog roundworm/dog ascaris
site: visceral organs, eyes
MOT: ingestion of embryonated eggs

A

Toxocara canis
visceral or ocular larva migrans

181
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
cat roundworm/cat ascaris
site: visceral organs, eyes
MOT: ingestion of embryonated eggs

A

Toxocara cati
visceral or ocular larva migrans

182
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
dog hookworm
site: skin and subcutaneous tissues
MOT: skin penetration of filariform larvae
what teeth do they have

A

Ancylostoma caninum
cutaenous larva migrans/creeping eruption
3 pairs of teeth

183
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
cat hookworm
site: skin and subcutaneous tissues
MOT: skin penetration of filariform larvae
what teeth do they have?

A

Ancylostoma braziliense
cutaenous larva migrans/creeping eruption
pair of large ventral teeth

184
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
pseudohookworm/HIV of herbivores
site: SI
MOT: ingestion of filariform larvae

A

Trichostrongylus spp.
usually asymptomatic

185
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
dog heartworm
site: lung
MOT: skin inoculation of L3 by mosquitoes

A

Dirofilaria immitis
granulomatous nodules in the lungs
(x-ray presents coin lesions)

186
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
herringworm
site: stomach and SI
MOT: ingestion of infective larvae

A

Anisakis spp.
Anisakiasis

187
Q

MISC NEMATODES: parasite and dse caused?
racoon roundworm
site: visceral organs, eyes, brain
MOT: ingestion of embryonated eggs

A

Baylisascaris procyonis
Baylisascariasis (VLM, OLM, and NLM)
visceral, ocular and neural

188
Q

site: skin and deeper tissues
MOT: ingestion of

L3 from 2nd IH or paratenic host

A

Gnathostoma spinigerum
gnasthostimiasis (Yangtze edema or Chokofishi disease)

189
Q

TREMATODES:
are unsegmented, bilaterally symmertrical bodies
has oral and ventral sucekrs
the only non-hermaphroditic in trematodes
~ male: thicker with gynecophoric canal/groove
~ female: ovo-viviparous

A

diecious flukes

190
Q

TREMATODES:
leaf-like unsegmented bodies; oral and ventral suckers; hermaphroditic; oviparous or ovo-viviparous

A

monoecious flukes

191
Q

TREMATODES:
diecious vs monoecious
eggs, infective stage, MOT, hosts, habitat

A

DI: mature, embyonated, non-operculate eggs; IS is cercaria by skin penetration; needs 2 hosts (IH-snail and DH-man/animal resv); habitat is blood vessels

MO: immature or mature, operculate; IS is metacercaria by ingestion of 2nd IH; 3 hosts (IH - snail then aquatic plant/animal then DH); habitat depends on type of fluke

192
Q

when cercariae loses its tail it becomes what

A

schistosomule

193
Q

what is the IS and the DS of blood flukes
why are blood flukse considered the most romantic parasite?

A

IS: cercariae (free-swimmin released by snails in water)
DS: eggs (shed from human feces or urine in S.h.)
flukes remain in copulae throughout their lifecycle

194
Q

BLOOD FLUKES:
common name of all the blood flukes?

A

S. japonicum: Oriental blood fluke
S. mansoni: Mansoni blood fluke
S. haematobium: Vesical blood fluke

195
Q

BLOOD FLUKES:
habitat of all blood flukes?

A

SJ: mesenteric veins of the intestine
SM: mesenteric veins of the rectum
SH: venous plexuses of the urinary bladder

196
Q

BLOOD FLUKES:
IH of all blood flukes?

A

SJ: Oncomelania quadrasi
SM: Biomphalaria, Planorbis, Tropcorbis spp.
SH: Bulinus, Physopsis spp.

197
Q

BLOOD FLUKES:
general pathology of all blood flukes?

A

cercerial dermatitis: swimmer;s itch due to its skin penetration
Katayama fever: allergic reaction due to initiation of egg laying (eggs are highly immunologic)

198
Q

BLOOD FLUKES EGG MORPH:
appearance of all blood flukes?

A

SJ: has small lateral spine/knob
SM: has a large lateral spine
SH: has a terminal spine

199
Q

BLOOD FLUKES EGG MORPH:
tegument of all blood flukes?

A

SJ: smooth/non-tuberculated
SM: coarsely tuberculated
SH: slightly tuberculated

200
Q

BLOOD FLUKES EGG MORPH:
male testes and female ovary of all blood flukes?

A

SJ: 6-8; median
SM: 8-9; anterior
SH: 4-5; posterior

201
Q

eggs resemble S. japonicum but are maller and infections are geographically localized. in what place is it localilzed?

A

S. mekongi
in countries near Mekong river

202
Q

eggs resemble S. hematobium with a terminal spine and acid fast but of larger size and are found in stool

A

S. intercalatum

203
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
developmental stages (egg to adult)

A

unembryonated>embyonated>miracidium>sporocyst>redia>cercaria>metacercaria>adult

ms race me

204
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
common name of Paragonimus westermani and its 2nd IH

A

oriental lung fluke; fresh water crab, crayfish

205
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Fasciola hepatica common name and its 2nd IH

A

Sheep liver fluke; water plants (watercress)

206
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Clonorchis sinensis common name and its 2nd IH

A

Chinese/Oriental liver fluke; cyprinoid fish

207
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Opitochis felineu & viverrini common name and its 2nd IH

A

Cat liver fluke, SEA liver fluke; cyprinoid fish

208
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Fasciolopsis buski common name and its 2nd IH

A

Giant intestinal fluke; water plants (caltrop, chestnut, bamboo shoots)

209
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Echinostoma ilocanum common name and its 2nd IH

A

Garrison’s fluke; edible snails (all hosts are mollusks)

210
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Heterophyes heterophyes common name and its 2nd IH

A

Dwarf fluke/Von Siebold’s; fish

211
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Metagonimus yokogawai common name and its 2nd IH

A

Yokogawa’s fluke; salmonoid and cyprinoid fish

212
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES:
Nanophyetus salmincola common name and its 2nd IH

A

Salmon poisoning fluke; Salmonoid fish

213
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
broadly ovoidal with flat operculum and abopercular thickening

A

P. westermani egg

214
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
coffee bean-shaped with zigzag intestinal ceca

A

P. westermani adult

215
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
large, yellowish brown with thin shell and small operculum

A

F. hepatica egg

216
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
with cehalic cone and dendtritic structures

A

F. hepatica adult

217
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
broadly ovoidal with convex domed operculum and abopercular knob

A

C. sinensis egg

218
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
dendritic testes and granular vitellaria

A

C. sinensis adult

219
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
elongately ovoidal with tapering ends

A

Opistorchis spp. egg

220
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
lobed testes and tranverse vitellaria

A

Opistorchis spp. adult

221
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
indistinguishable from F. hepatica and F. gigantica ova

A

F. buski egg

222
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
no cephalic cone

A

F. buski adult

223
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
straw colored, ovoid, operculated

A

E. ilocanum egg

224
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
with circumoval disk of spines

A

E. ilocanum adult

225
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
similar to that Clonorchis but with smaller abopercular knob

A

H. heterophyes egg

226
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
with 3rd sucker called gonotyl/genital sucker

A

H. heterophyes adult

227
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
thin-shelled, light yellow

A

M. yokogawai egg

228
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
no 3rd sucker

A

M. yokogawai adult

229
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
similar to D. latum eggs but somewhat larger and narrower and have aboercualr thickening instead of a knob

A

N. salmincola egg

230
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES MORPH:
genital opening is just posterior to the ventral sucker

A

N. salmincola adult

231
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
pulmonary inflammation and fobrosis resulting in pneumonia o TB-like syndrome

A

P. westermani

232
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
liver rot in sheep and goatsl Halzoun syndrome;
~ liver dse in man = allergic pharyngitis

A

F. hepatica

233
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
liver disease characterized by jaundice, edema and painful progressive hepatomegaly; associated with cholangio carcinoma

A

C. sinensis and Opistorchis spp.

234
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
ulecration of the mucosa, abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting and flatulence

235
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
no marked symptoms are produced other than intestinal irritation

A

E. ilocanum

236
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
colicky pains and mucous diarrhea; self-terminating in about two months

A

H. heterophyes and M. yokogawai

237
Q

LUNG, LIVER AND INTESTINAL FLUKES PATHOLOGY:
abdominal discomfort and intermittent diarrhea; vector of salmon poisoning disease in dogs

A

N. salmincola

238
Q

Parts of a tapeworm:
- head or the hold-fast organ
- budding zone/ growth zone where segments arise
- entire chain of proglottids

A

scolex, neck, strobila

239
Q

CESTODES:
scolex: globular with 4 acetabula/suckers
gravid proglottids: apolytic (detach and rupture)
hermaphroditic, ovo-viviparous
host requirement: 2 (IH and DH)

A

cyclophyllidea

240
Q

CESTODES:
scolex: spatulate w 2 bothria (sucker for attachment)
gravid proglottids: anapolytic; (eggs released by uterine pore)
host requirement: 4 (2 IH, PH, DH)

A

pseudophyllidea

241
Q

CESTODES:
eggs: mature, non-opercualted
embryo: hexacanth/ooncosphere
encysted larva: cysticercus/cysticercoid/coenurus/hydatid cyst

A

cyclophyllidea

242
Q

CESTODES:
egg: immature, operculate
embryo: coracidium
encysted larvae: 1st IH procercoid
2nd IH plerocercoid/sparganum

A

pseudophyllidea

243
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES:
T. solium common name, IH, DH, IS and dse caused

A

Pork tapeworm; pig; man; cysticercus cellulose causing taeniasis

244
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES:
T. saginata common name, IH, DH, IS and dse caused

A

Beef tapeworm; cow/cattle; man; cysticercus bovis; taeniasis

245
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES:
H. nana common name, IH, DH, IS and dse caused

A

Dwarf tapeworm; none or insect; man; egg and cysticercoid; hymenolepiasis

246
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES:
H. diminuta common name, IH, DH, IS and dse caused

A

Rat tapeworm; insect; rat (rarely man); cysticercoid; hymenolepiasis

247
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES:
D. caninum common name, IH, DH, IS and dse caused

A

Dog/double pored tapeworm; insect; dog/cat (rarely man); cysticercoid; dipylidiasis

248
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES:
D. latum common name, IH, DH, IS and dse caused

A

Broad fish tapeworm; 1st IH=copepod, 2nd IH=small fish; plerocercoid; diphyllobothriasis

249
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES EGG MORPH:
thick striated shell with hexacanth embryo (6 hooklets)

A

Taenia spp.

250
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES EGG MORPH:
inner membrane has polar-thickening from which 4-8 polar filaments arise

251
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES EGG MORPH:
resembles H. nana but lacks polar filaments; with intralaminar layer

A

H. diminuta

252
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES EGG MORPH:
8-15 eggs contained in a sec or packet

A

D. caninum

253
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES EGG MORPH:
inconspicuous operculum and small abopercular knob

254
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES SCOL and PROGLO:
scolices: has chitinous hooks around rostellum
gravid prog: lateral uterine branches 7-12, finger-like/dendtritic
other: 800 to 1000, 2-8 m

255
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES SCOL and PROGLO:
scolices: no rostellum or hooks
gravid prog: lateral uterine branches 15-20 tree-like/dichotomous
other: 1000 to 2000, 5-10 m

A

T. saginata

256
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES SCOL and PROGLO:
scolices: retractile reostellum with Y-shaped hooks
gravid prog: sac-like uterus
other: craspedote strobila

257
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES SCOL and PROGLO:
scolices: rostellum without hooks
gravid prog: sac-like uterus
other: craspedote strobila

A

H. diminuta

258
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES SCOL and PROGLO:
scolices: rostellum with 7 rows of thorn-shaped hooks
gravid prog:vase-shaped or resemble rice grains, filled with egg packets
other: 2 genital pores, 2 sets of reproductive structures

A

D. caninum

259
Q

INTESTINAL CESTODES SCOL and PROGLO:
scolices: no rostellum or hooks, with midventral and middorsal bothria
gravid prog: rosette-shaped uterus
other: up to 3000 segmetns, 3-10 m

260
Q

new name of D. latum

A

Dibothriocephalus latus

261
Q

only cestode that is monoxenous

262
Q

3rd human taenia/ Taiwan or Asian taena
immediate host is: ____
cysticerci are located primarily in the ___
morphologically similar to ___

A

Taenia asiatica
pig/wild boar
liver
T. saginata

263
Q

TISSUE CESTODES:
DH: man; IH: pig
IS: egg (from human feces)
dse caused is: ___

A

Taenia solium
cysticercosis

264
Q

TISSUE CESTODES:
DH: dog/cat; IH: sheep, rodent, rabbit
IS: egg (from dog/cat feces)
dse caused is: ___

A

Taenia multiceps, Taenia serialis
coenurosis

265
Q

TISSUE CESTODES:
DH: dog; IH: sheep, goat, cattle
IS: egg (from dog feces)
dse caused is: ___

A

Echinococcus granulosus
hydatidoisis/hydatid disease

266
Q

TISSUE CESTODES:
DH: dog, fox, wolf ; IH: rodent
IS: egg (from dog feces)
dse caused is: ___

A

E. multilocularis
hydatidosis/hydatid disease

267
Q

TISSUE CESTODES:
DH: bush dog; IH: rodent
IS: eggs (from dog feces)
dse caused is: ___

A

E. vogeli
hydatidosis/hydatid disease

268
Q

TISSUE CESTODES:
DH: dog/cat; IH: copepod (1st), fish (2nd)
IS: plerocercoid/procercoid
dse caused is: ___

A

Spirometra spp.
sparganosis

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