Parasites and Fungi Flashcards

1
Q

What are macroconidia?

A

Large Multicellular Spores (e.g. Microsporum sp.)

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2
Q

What are microconidia?

A

Small Single Celled Spores (e.g. Penicillium sp.)

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3
Q

What is a Sporangium?

A

the Spore Sac

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4
Q

What are hyphae?

A

Threadlike structures

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5
Q

why do culture media for the isolation of fungi ad yeast often contain a chemical agent such as chloramphenicol or gentamicin?

A

these agents inhibit/stop bacterial growth on the media ensuring that only the yeast is able to grow.

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6
Q

What groups/types of people would be considered to be immunocompromised?

A

Young, elderly and sick persons (esp. those with immune disorders like AIDS or following chemotherapy).

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7
Q

Why are the lungs, the primary site of infection for many fungal diseases?

A

Due to inhalation of spores that settle in the lungs.

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8
Q

What is a dimorphic fungi?

A

Can either be yeast-like or have a filamentous form

Can be a mix of both moulds and yeasts

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9
Q

How would you report the presence of yeast cells in a Gram stain?

A

We report the colour and the shape as well as the size of the cell. This is NOT reported as Negative or Positive as yeast lacks peptidoglycan.

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10
Q

What is the name of the process by which yeast cells divide?

A

Budding

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11
Q

How is the role of a fungal spore different to a bacterial spore?

A

Fungal spores are a product of sexual and asexual reproduction in fungi, whereas in bacteria they are mechanism of survival if the bacterial organism is destroyed.

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12
Q

What is the technical name given to microconidia contained inside a spore sac?

A

Sporangiospores

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13
Q

List 4 general growth conditions that fungi prefer?

A
  1. high moisture content
  2. dark environment
  3. low pH (acidic)
  4. High glucose content
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14
Q

List the three fungal types? Give one example (genus + species) from on of these groups (name the group/type that it belongs to).

A
  1. Moulds
  2. Yeasts and yeast-like fungi - e.g. Candida albicans
  3. Dimorphic Fungi
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15
Q

What is the difference between aerial hyphae and vegetative hyphae?

A

Aerial hyphae - portion projecting above the surface, usually giving rise to reproductive spores

vegetative mycelium - Nutrient absorbing and water exchanging portion of fungus that penetrates media/tissue

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16
Q

In host parasite relationships, what is meant by the term definitive host?

A

An animal in which the parasite passes its adult existence and/or undergoes a sexual reproductive phase.

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17
Q

Name the geographical factors that can affect the distribution of parasites?

A
  • Climate
  • soil type (sand, lime)
  • Coprozoic organisms (beetles, earthworms, slugs)
  • surface water
  • vegetation
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18
Q

Name the socio-economic factors that can effect the distribution of parasites?

A
    • Housing
  • Coprophagic animals (animals that consume faeces)
  • Urbanisation
  • Economic activities
  • Domestication of animals
  • Migration, wars, tourism
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19
Q

What is the common name for Enterobius vermicularis?

A

Pinworm

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20
Q

In the lifecycle for E. vermicularis, in what location do the eggs become infective?

A

Eggs become infective outside the the body in 4-6 hours

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21
Q

Which protozoan parasite is responsible for causing diarrhoea, mucus secretion and flatulence?

A

Giardia lamblia

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22
Q

What is the definitive host for Taenia saginata?

A

Humans

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23
Q

What is the intermediate host for Taenia solium?

A

Pigs

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24
Q

What is the intermediate host for Taenia saginata?

A

Cows

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25
Q

List 4 ways that a parasite can harm a host?

A
  1. Mechanical injury (hookworm attaches to mucosa which causes damage)
  2. Obstruction (round worm can obstruct GIT)
  3. Metabolic products toxic to host (whip worm releases a toxin)
  4. Host reactions/response esp. if parasite dies. (immune system gets overactive).
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26
Q

List 4 ways that a parasite may gain entry to the host?

A
  1. Oral (faecal/oral route)
  2. Percutaneous (through the skin)
  3. Inhalation
  4. Sexual intercourse
  5. Transplacental
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27
Q

List the scientific names for the three groups of worms (flukes, tapeworms and roundworms)? name a genus and species from one of these three groups and indicate which group it belongs to.

A
  1. Flukes - Trematodes
  2. Tapeworms - Cestodes
  3. Roundworms - Nematodes
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28
Q

What is a Platyhelminth?

A

A Flat worm

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29
Q

Name the three types of parasites

A
  1. Helminths - worms
  2. Protozoa - malaria, toxoplasmosis
  3. Arthropods- louse, ticks, mites
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30
Q

What is the definition of a parasite?

A

A parasite is an organism living in close association with a larger organism (the host) of a different species to gain nutrition and other benefits to the detriment of the host.

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31
Q

What is an Intermediate host?

A

Where the parasite spends some time, but not as an adult, and with no sexual reproductive phase.

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32
Q

Name the 3 main species of Schistosomiasis

A
  1. Schistosoma haematobium
  2. Schistosoma japonicum
  3. Schistosoma mansoni
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33
Q

What are the two less common species of Schistosomiasis?

A
  1. Schistosoma mekongi (SE Asia only)

2. Schistosoma intercalatum (stool only)

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34
Q

How big do the female Schistosoma worms get?

A

7-20 mm

35
Q

What are the symptoms of Schistosomiasis?

A
  • Fever
  • Cough
  • Abdominal pain
  • Diarrhoea
  • Hepatosplenomegaly and eosinophilia
  • May be asymptomatic
36
Q

How is Schistosomiasis diagnosed and treated?

A
  • eggs in faeces
  • eggs are 100-150 microns by 60 microns
  • can be seen under x400 objective
  • Treatment is with Praziquantel or Oxamniquine
37
Q

Taenia saginata and Taenia solium are what type of worm?

A

Cestodes

38
Q

In what geographical location would you fin Taenia sp.?

A

Worldwide

39
Q

True or False: Humans are the only definitive host for Taenia sp.?

A

True

40
Q

How long can the eggs of Taenia sp. survive in the environment?

A

days to months

41
Q

What is a Cysticercus in the Taenia sp., where is it found and how long can it survive?

A

Cysticercus is the larvae tapeworm encased within a sac embedded in the muscle of the intermediate host. It can survive several years in this location.

42
Q

Where in the human body does Taenia sp. grow into an adult?

A

In the Gastro Intestinal Tract

43
Q

How long does it take for Taenia sp. to mature into an adult in the human GIT? How long can it survive there?

A

It takes 2 months for full maturation into adult species and can survive for several years in the GIT.

44
Q

How is Taenia sp. diagnosed?

A

eggs within faeces

45
Q

How large are the eggs of Taenia sp.?

A

30-40 microns

46
Q

How is speciation carried out for Taenia sp.?

A

By examination of proglottids (sections of tapeworm broken off) or scolex (head that attached to GIT wall)

47
Q

How do we treat Taenia sp.?

A

Praziquantel

48
Q

How long after ingestion of Taenia sp. can a diagnosis be made?

A

after 3 months

49
Q

How long can a Beef tapeworm (Taenia saginata) get?

A

4-10 meters long

50
Q

How long can a Pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) get?

A

2-4 meters long

51
Q

How is tapeworm (Taenia sp.) contracted?

A

By ingesting undercooked red beef and pork

52
Q

What is thought to be the most common nematode infection?

A

Pinworm (Enterobius vermicularis)

53
Q

What is the source of infection of Enterobius vermicularis?

A

Eggs living in the environment (i.e. soil)

54
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Pinworm?

A

Anal skin irritation (esp. at night)

55
Q

How do we treat Pinworm?

A

Mebendazole (Vermox) or Pyrantel pamoate (Conbantrin)

56
Q

True or false: Pinworm is more common in adults than children.

A

False. It is more common in children (but can be passed to parents)

57
Q

What is the source of infection for Giardia lamblia?

A
  • Contaminated water

- Person to person contact (poor hygene)

58
Q

When referring to Giardia lamblia’s stages of development, what do we call the organism before it becomes a mature protozoa?

A

a cyst

59
Q

What is the mature protozoa of Giardia lamblia called?

A

Trophozoites

60
Q

What is the treatment for Giardia lamblia?

A

Metronidazole or Quinacrine

61
Q

In Fungi, what are Spores for?

A

Reproduction

62
Q

What is an important feature for the identification of fungi?

A

The Conidia or Conidiospores

63
Q

Approximately how many species of Fungi cause the majority of infections?

A

Approx. 25 species

64
Q

What types/s of cell are Fungi?

A

Unicellular and multicellular

65
Q

There are >50,000 species of Fungi, of these how many species are Primary pathogens of man?

A

100-150 species

66
Q

What type of organism are Fungi?

A

Eukaryotes

67
Q

What is Mycoses

A

A fungal infection of the body

68
Q

What are the 3 categories of Mycoses?

A

Superficial/cutaneous
Subcutaneous
Systemic

69
Q

What type of organism causes the different categories of Mycoses?

A

Opportunistic fungi

70
Q

What is Sabouraud agar?

A

A selective media for culturing fungi in the lab.

71
Q

What is the temperature at which Fungi is grown in the lab?

A

Room Temp. (20-28 deg. C)

72
Q

How long does it take to grow fungi in the lab?

A

28 days

73
Q

What is a dermatophyte group and what does it infect?

A

A dermatophyte group is a mould that infects skin, hair and nails (feeds on keratin)

74
Q

Aspergillus sp. and Penicillium sp. are common contaminants of what?

A

Food

75
Q

Dimorphic fungi are filamentous or yeast like at what temperatures, respectively?

A

Filamentous - Room Temp.

Yeast - 37 deg C

76
Q

What are moulds?

A

Filamentous fungi

77
Q

Hyphae intertwined to form a network are called?

A

Mycelium

78
Q

What are the two types of mycelium?

A

Vegetative &

Aerial

79
Q

Yeasts usually produce what type of colonies on agar?

A

discrete colonies

80
Q

Those most susceptible to yeast infections are?

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Those being treated for other infections (such as antimicrobials)
  • Diabetics
  • Drug addicts
81
Q

What genus of fungi causes candidiasis?

A

Candida sp.

82
Q

Those at risk of Candidiasis are?

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Diabetics
  • pregnant women
  • Women on OCP
  • People on antibiotics
  • Babies (nappy rash)
83
Q

What are the three most common species that cause Candidiasis?

A
  • C. albicans
  • C. tropicalis
  • C. krusei