Miscellaneous Gram Negative Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

List two properties/characteristics of Gram Negative endotoxins

A
  • Heat stable
  • Lipid A of GN wall
  • Not antigenic
  • Activates coagulation, complement, fibrinolysis
  • Not secreted - released when cells disrupted
  • Less potent than exotoxins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which genera from the family of Enterobacteriaceae are always motile?

A

Proteus sp.
Providencia sp.
Morganella morganii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What genera of Enterobacteriaceae would you expect to isolate if an unknown organism was TDA positive?

A

Proteus sp.
Providencia sp.
Morganella morganii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How would you know if unknown organism was a member of the Enterobacteriaceae family and not a member of the Pseudomonas, Vibrio or Aeromonas? (hint: rapid test)

A

Conducting an oxidase test will show rapid distinction between these species because the Enterobacteriaceae family are negative oxidase and pseudomonas, vibrio and Aeromonas are all positive oxidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where is Pseudomonas aeruginosa normally found?

A

In the environment (i.e. soil, plants, water supplies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are O and H antigens located?

A

O antigen is located on the cell wall (lipopolysaccharide) on the organism and H antigen is located on the flagellum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How could you tell if an organism growing on a culture plate is encapsulated?

A

The growth will have a mucoid texture/look

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are the members of the genera Haemophilus, Neisseria and Moraxella found as normal flora?

A

Normal flora of the URT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of infections are Haemophilus and Moraxella usually associated with?

A

Respiratory Tract infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factors but can grow readily on blood agar?

A

Haemophilus haemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Why are CHOC plates always incubated in CO2?

A

This agar is used to encourage the growth of more fastidious species such as Haemophilus and Neisseria which are both capnophiles therefore they require high a CO2 environment to grow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name two pigments produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa and identify which one is fluorescent under UV light?

A

Green pyocyanin and Yellow pyoverdin (fluorescein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Compare the infectious dose required for human cholera, salmonellosis and shigellosis. Where are these organisms acquired from? (i.e. what is there usual/natural reservoir?

A

Cholera - Infective dose 10^10 orgs/ml - natural reservoir are contaminated water supplies, fish/shellfish from contaminated water supplies, contaminated foods and asymptomatic carriers.

Salmonellosis - Infective dose >10^5 orgs/ml - natural reservoir are animals such as poultry, cows, pigs, sheep, pets, birds and reptiles.

Shigellosis - Low infectious dose of 10-100 organisms - Associated only with humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What would the presence of GNID indicate if seen in a throat swab?

A

Possible Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What primary test results would you expect for a member of the Enterobacteriaceae?

A
  • Gram stain - Gram Neg Bacillus
  • non-fastidious
  • Catalase pos
  • Oxidase neg
  • OF - Fermentative
  • Facultative anaerobes
  • All motile genera have peritrichous flagella
  • Grey, moist, shiny looking colonies on BA (slightly more opaque centre than edge)
  • Usually non-haemolytic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How could you rapidly differentiate between the three swarming strains of Proteus sp.? What would be the results for each?

A

Conduct an Indole and Maltose test to differentiate between them.

  • P. vulgaris - Indole pos and Maltose pos
  • P. mirabilis - Indole neg and maltose neg
  • P. penneri - Indole neg and maltose pos
17
Q

List 4 characteristic laboratory features of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

A
GNB
Non-fastidious
Obligate aerobe
motile
oxidase pos
OF: oxidative
Distinct colony morphology: flat. matt colonies, uneven periphery, sheild shaped colonies.
18
Q

If you had mucoid LF/LLF growing on CLED or MAC, how could you differentiate this as either an Enterobacter sp. or Klebsiella sp. without setting up overnight tests?

A

check the consistency of the colony. If it’s sticky then it’s most likely Klebsiella.

19
Q

When performing an Indole Spot test what culture plates do we and don’t we take colonies from?

A

Use BA

Don’t use colonies from CLED or MAC

20
Q

What indole reaction will you get from E. coli?

A

Indole pos

21
Q

The family Enterobacteriaceae what are the overt pathogen that we consider significant (hint: they are NOT considered NF)

A
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Yersinia
  • Diarrhoea producing strains of E. coli.
22
Q

The most common isolates in the clinical lab are from what family of bacteria?

A

Enterobacteriaceae

23
Q

What are the common genera of Enterobacteriaceae? (not the clinically significant overt pathogens)

A
  • Escherichia
  • Citrobacter
  • Klebsiella
  • Proteus
  • Providencia
  • Morganella
  • Serratia
  • Enterobacter
24
Q

What are the non-motile genera of Enterobacteriaceae

A
  • Klebsiella
  • Shigella
  • Yersinia
25
Q

What are the 4 species of Escherichia sp.?

A
  • E. coli
  • E. hermanii
  • E. vulneris
  • E. fergusonii
26
Q

What is the habitat of Escherichia sp.?

A

GIT of humans and animals

27
Q

What is the most common human bacterial pathogen?

A

Escherichia coli

28
Q

What are E. coli’s distinctive features?

A
  • Lactose fermenter
  • Motile
  • Indole pos
  • May be encapsulated (mucoid)
29
Q

How does the Indole test work?

A
  • Tests if an organism produces the enzyme tryptophan

- Tryptophanase breaks down the amino

30
Q

How does the Indole test work?

A
  • Tests if an organism produces the enzyme tryptophan
  • Tryptophanase breaks down the amino acid tryptophan
  • If bacteria being tested is positive for tryptophanase the enzyme will react with kovac’s reagent and turn the API strip pink (ring on surface).
31
Q

List the characteristics of Enterobacter sp.

A
  • Lactose variable (may be mucoid)
  • Motile
  • All are indole neg
32
Q

What are the main species of Enterobacter sp.

A
  • E. cloacea (lactose neg)

- E. aerogenes (lactose pos)

33
Q

What are three distinctive features of Proteus, Providencia and Morganella morganii.

A
  • TDA pos
  • Urea pos
  • Motile (Proteus swarms)
34
Q

What are the four main diseases caused by Salmonellae?

A
  1. Gastroenteritis
  2. Enteric fever (typhoid)
  3. Extra-intestinal infections
    - Carrier status
35
Q

What disease does Shigellae cause? list some symptoms

A
Bacillary dysentery.
Symptoms include: 
- Inflammatory response
- ulceration
- Bleeding
- Blood, mucous and pus in the stool
36
Q

What are some of the distinctive features of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
  • Pigment production (Green and Yellow)
  • Metallic sheen on BA at 48 hrs
  • Grape-like odour
  • Resistant to many antimicrobials and disinfectants
  • Non-lactose Fermenter on MAC/CLED