PARA CIULLA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by finding
    A. Eggs in perianal specimens
    B. Larvae in perianal specimens
    C. Larvae in feces
    D. Eggs in the feces
A

A. Eggs in perianal specimens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The best direct diagnosis of Echinococcus granulosus infection in humans is made by identification of
    A. Adult worms in the intestine
    B. Adult worms in tissues
    C. Eggs in feces
    D. Hydatid cysts in tissues
A

D. Hydatid cysts in tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which statement is correct for specimen
    collection and processing?
    A. Stool samples can contain urine.
    B. Stools can be frozen without affecting
    parasitic structure.
    C. Liquid stools are best for detecting
    ameba and flagellate trophozoites.
    D. Unpreserved stools can remain at
    room temperature for up to 72 hours.
A

C. Liquid stools are best for detecting
ameba and flagellate trophozoites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Cysts are the infective stage of this
    intestinal flagellate.
    A. Balantidium coli
    B. Dientamoebafragilis
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Giardia lamblia
A

D. Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Eggs or larvae recovered in the stool are
    not routinely used to diagnose infections
    caused by which one of the following
    helminths?
    A. Trichinella spiralis
    B. Strongyloides stercomlis
    C. Necator americanus
    D. Ascaris lumbricoides
A

A. Trichinella spiralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Many parasites have different stages of
    growth within different hosts. The host
    where the sexual reproductive stage of the
    parasites exists is called the
    A. Commensal
    B. Definitive host
    C. Intermediate host
    D. Vector
A

B. Definitive host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Species identification of an immature
    amebic cyst can be very difficult. The
    presence of a large glycogen mass is
    sometimes seen in
    A. Dientamoebafragilis
    B. Endolimax nana
    C. Entamoeba coli
    D. Entamoeba histolytica
A

C. Entamoeba coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Which of the following is typical in cysts
    of lodamoeba biitschlii?
    A. A glycogen mass
    B. Blunt chromatoidal bars
    C. Four nuclei with large karyosomes
    D. Many ingested bacteria
A

A. A glycogen mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most
    important feature in differentiating cysts
    of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar?
    A. Number of nuclei
    B. Size of the cyst
    C. Shape of the karyosome
    D. Distinguishing surface antigens by
    immunologic assays
A

D. Distinguishing surface antigens by
immunologic assays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Which of the following findings in a
    peripheral blood smear is especially
    associated with tissue-invading helminths
    but may also be found in a variety of
    allergic conditions and other diseases?
    A. Eosinophilia
    B. Leukopenia
    C. Lymphocytosis
    D. Neutropenia
A

A. Eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. A 48-year-old man from Texas developed fever and weakness 16 days after a hunting trip in northwest Tanzania.
    Several days after the onset of fever, he
    noticed a raised, tender, erythematous
    nodule (6-8 cm in diameter) on the
    posterior aspect of his right arm. He was
    hospitalized in Africa and treated for
    5 days with a cephalosporin for presumed
    cellulitis. After little improvement, he
    returned to Texas. On arrival, the patient
    had a temperature of 38.9°C (102°F), a
    morbilliform rash of the trunk, and rightsided, anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Cerebrospinal fluid contained 12 red cells and 18 mononuclear cells/uL and a normal protein level (32 mg/dL). Laboratory tests of peripheral blood revealed a hemoglobin level of 107 g/L, a white cell count of 2.4 X 109/L, and a platelet count of 75 X 109/L. The diagnosis was made by finding the extracellular flagellate parasite in a peripheral blood smear. Which of the following is the most probable etiologic agent of this infection?
    A. Leishmania donovani
    B. Trypanosoma brucei
    C. Tiypanosoma cruzi
    D. Toxoplasma gondii
A

B. Trypanosoma brucei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm?
    A. Plasmodium knowlesi
    B. Plasmodium falciparum
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium vivax
A

D. Plasmodium vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

1.3. With a fecal specimen, which one of the following is the most dependable
procedure for the accurate, specific
diagnosis of an intestinal amebic
infection?
A. Direct saline wet mount
B. Direct iodine wet mount
C. Permanently stained smear
D. Formalin-ethyl acetate sedimentation
technique

A

C. Permanently stained smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. In an examination of stained blood films, Babesia spp. are likely to resemble
    A. Leishmania donovani
    B. Plasmodiumfalciparum
    C. Toxoplasma gondii
    D. Trypanosoma cruzi
A

B. Plasmodiumfalciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following is a mercury containing fixative used to preserve
    parasites in stool specimens?
    A. Formalin
    B. Sodium acetate
    C. Buffered glycerol
    D. Polyvinyl alcohol
A

D. Polyvinyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Examination of a fecal smear following
    acid-fast stain reveals round acid-fast
    positive structures 8-10 um in diameter.
    You should suspect
    A. Cryptosporidium
    B. Cyclospora
    C. Isospora
    D. Microsporidia
A

B. Cyclospora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A 22-year-old male presents to his family physician complaining of fatigue, muscle pain, periorbital edema, and fever. He denies travel outside the U.S. The physician suspects infectious mononucleosis; however, serologic tests for infectious mononucleosis are negative. The complete blood count revealed a slightly elevated white blood count, and there were 10% eosinophils on the differential. Which of the following should be considered part of the differential diagnosis?
    A. Ascaris lumbricoides
    B. Taenia solium
    C. Trichinella spiralis
    D. Trypanosoma cruzi
A

C. Trichinella spiralis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which Schistosoma species has a large
    terminal spine?
    A. S. haematobium
    B. S.japonicum
    C. S. mansoni
    D. S. mekongi
A

A. S. haematobium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Elephantiasis is a complication associated
    with which of the following?
    A. Cysticercosis
    B. Guinea worm
    C. Hydatid cyst disease
    D. Filariae
A

D. Filariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. A patient with history of human immunodeficiency
    virus infection presents with a
    5-day history of diarrhea and weight loss.
    A series of stool specimens is collected
    and examined for the presence of ova and
    parasites. An acid-fast stain on direct
    smear reveals pink-stained round
    structures approximately 4 (am in
    diameter. The most likely pathogen is
    A. Blastocystis hominis
    B. Cryptosporidium sp.
    C. Isospora sp.
    D. Microsporidium
A

B. Cryptosporidium sp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. A 55-year-old female presents to her
    physician complaining of a fever that
    “comes and goes” and fatigue. A complete
    blood count reveals decreased red blood
    cell count and hemoglobin. History
    reveals the patient recently traveled
    through Europe and Africa. You should
    suspect
    A. Cutaneous larval migrans
    B. Filariasis
    C. Malaria
    D. Trichinella
A

C. Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. The disease most commonly associated
    with Acanthamoeba sp. is
    A. Diarrhea
    B. Keratitis
    C. Liver abscess
    D. Meningoencephalitis
A

B. Keratitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. A modified trichrome stain of a fecal
    smear can be used to detect microsporidia.
    Which of the following would describe the
    appearance of this parasite in this stain?
    A. Purple circles, 10-15 um in diameter
    B. Pink ovals, 1-3 urn in diameter
    C. Blue ovals, 4-6 urn in diameter
    D. Fluorescent circles, 8-12 um in
    diameter
A

B. Pink ovals, 1-3 urn in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Hydatid cysts in humans are due to
    ingestion of a tapeworm stage normally
    found in canines. This stage is the
    A. Cercaria
    B. Cercocystis
    C. Cysticercus
    D. Embryonated egg
A

D. Embryonated egg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Oocysts, the infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii, is found in
    A. Cat feces
    B. Human feces
    C. Undercooked pork
    D. Undercooked beef
A

A. Cat feces

26
Q
  1. A 15-um pear-shaped flagellate with a
    visible parabasal body and “falling leaf”
    motility in a direct saline mount of a
    diarrheal stool specimen is most probably
    A. Balantidium coli
    B. Chilomastix mesnili
    C. Giardia lamblia
    D. Trichomonas hominis
A

C. Giardia lamblia

27
Q
  1. This parasitic infection may result in
    vitamin B12 deficiency, and individuals
    with pernicious anemia are predisposed
    to more severe symptoms.
    A. Diphyllobothrium latum
    B. Echinococcus granidosus
    C. Hymenolepis diminuta
    D. Taenia saginata
A

A. Diphyllobothrium latum

28
Q
  1. Knowledge of nocturnal periodicity is
    especially important in the diagnosis of
    certain infections caused by
    A. Babesia
    B. Plasmodium
    C. Microfilariae
    D. Trypanosoma
A

C. Microfilariae

29
Q
  1. For which of the following diseases is
    close contact with an infected human host
    the most important mechanism of
    transmission?
    A. Schistosomiasis
    B. Toxoplasmosis
    C. Trichinosis
    D. Trichomoniasis
A

D. Trichomoniasis

30
Q
  1. Which of the following helminths
    produces an elongate, barrel-shaped egg
    (50 X 22 |xm) with a colorless polar plug
    at each end?
    A. Ascaris lumbricoides
    B. Hymenolepis nana
    C. Necator americanus
    D. Trichuris trichiura
A

D. Trichuris trichiura

31
Q
  1. Which species of Plasmodium may
    readily be identified when crescent-shaped
    gametocytes are found in stained blood
    films?
    A. P. falciparum
    B. P. malariae
    C. P. ovale
    D. P. vivax
A

A. P. falciparum

32
Q
  1. Cysts of Giardia lamblia
    A. Contain four nuclei
    B. Are motile by flagella
    C. Have an undulating membrane
    D. Are rarely found in stool specimens
A

A. Contain four nuclei

33
Q
  1. Migration of larva through the skin can
    sometimes produce allergic reactions called larva migrans; this is associated with
    A. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Dracunculus medinensis
    C. Onchocerca volvulus
    D. Loa loa
A

A. Strongyloides stercoralis

34
Q
  1. A free-living ameba that causes primary
    amebic meningoencephalitis is
    A. Dientamoebafragilis
    B. Entamoeba coli
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Naegleriafowleri
A

D. Naegleria fowleri

35
Q
  1. Decontamination of drinking water, fruits, and vegetables before consumption is necessary in countries without well developed public sanitation. Which of the
    following diseases would probably be
    least affected by that kind of precaution?
    A. Amebiasis
    B. Ascariasis
    C. Filariasis
    D. Giardiasis
A

C. Filariasis

36
Q
  1. Which stage of Taenia saginata is usually infective for humans?
    A. Cysticercus larva
    B. Embryonated egg
    C. Filariform larva
    D. Rhabditiform larva
A

A. Cysticercus larva

37
Q
  1. This amebic cyst has an average size of
    6-8 um and is usually spherical. When
    mature, it has four nuclei, but immature
    cysts with one or two nuclei are often
    seen. The nuclei have fine uniform
    granules of peripheral chromatin and
    small, discrete, usually central
    karyosomes. Chromatoidal bars with
    bluntly rounded ends are sometimes
    present. Name the species.
    A. Endolimax nana
    B. Entamoeba coli
    C. Entamoeba hartmanni
    D. Entamoeba histolytica
A

C. Entamoeba hartmanni

38
Q
  1. Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is
    infective for humans?
    A. Proglottid
    B. Filariform larva
    C. Rhabditiform larva
    D. Embryonated ovum
A

D. Embryonated ovum

39
Q
  1. An intestinal parasite is seen in an iodinestained
    fecal wet mount that is described
    as being 25 (Jim in diameter with a
    homogenously stained central body
    surrounded by a thin ring of cytoplasm
    containing a number of nuclei. This best
    describes
    A. Blastocystis hominis
    B. Endolimax nana
    C. Entamoeba dispar
    D. lodamoeba btitschlii
A

A. Blastocystis hominis

40
Q
  1. Sanitary disposal of human feces is the
    most important factor in decreasing the
    incidence of most infections caused by
    intestinal parasites. Which of the
    following diseases would not be affected
    by that kind of sanitation?
    A. Ascariasis
    B. Taeniasis
    C. Trichinosis
    D. Hookworm infection
A

C. Trichinosis

41
Q
  1. Which species of Plasmodium is characterized by the presence of Schiiffner’s dots in the infected erythrocytes?
    A. Plasmodiumfalciparum
    B. Plasmodium knowlesi
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium ovale
A

D. Plasmodium ovale

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is the largest
    intestinal protozoa infecting humans?
    A. Balantidium coli
    B. Dientamoeba frag His
    C. Entamoeba histolytica
    D. Giardia lamblia
A

A. Balantidium coli

43
Q
  1. The rhabditiform larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis
    A. Mate and produce ova
    B. Are infective for humans
    C. Are the diagnostic form found in feces
    D. Are found in the blood of infected
    humans
A

C. Are the diagnostic form found in feces

44
Q
  1. Which species of Plasmodium can have
    exoerythrocytic stages capable of causing
    relapses months or years after initial
    infection?
    A. P. falciparum
    B. P. ovale
    C. P. malariae
    D. P. cynomolgi
A

B. P. ovale

45
Q
  1. A Giemsa-stained thick blood film showed many ring forms with no older stages, and a number of the rings had double chromatin dots. These findings are
    characteristic of
    A. Plasmodium falciparum
    B. Plasmodium vivax
    C. Plasmodium malariae
    D. Plasmodium ovale
A

A. Plasmodium falciparum

46
Q
  1. Which of the following nematode
    parasites is acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected pork?
    A. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Taenia saginata
    C. Taenia solium
    D. Trichinella spiralis
A

D. Trichinella spiralis

47
Q
  1. Which of the following pairs of helminths cannot be reliably differentiated by the appearance of their eggs?
    A. Ascaris lumbricoides and Necator
    americanus
    B. Hymenolepis nana and H. diminuta
    C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma
    duodenale
    D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Fasciola
    hepatica
A

C. Necator americanus and Ancylostoma
duodenale

48
Q
  1. Which of the following forms of
    Toxoplasma gondii are produced in
    infected humans?
    A. Bradyzoites
    B. Macrogametes
    C. Sporoblasts
    D. Oocysts
A

A. Bradyzoites

49
Q
  1. Hematuria is a typical sign of human
    infection caused by
    A. Trypanosoma cruzi
    B. Trichinella spiralis
    C. Trichomonas vaginalis
    D. Schistosoma haematobium
A

D. Schistosoma haematobium

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is the vector for
    Babesia?
    A. Fleas
    B. Lice
    C. Ticks
    D. Mosquitoes
A

C. Ticks

51
Q
  1. Chagas disease (American trypanosomiasis) is caused by
    A. Tiypanosoma brucei
    B. Trypanosoma cruzi
    C. Leishmania braziliensis
    D. Dracunculus medinensis
A

B. Trypanosoma cruzi

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is the preferred
    anticoagulant for preparing blood smears
    for diagnosing malaria?
    A. EDTA
    B. Heparin
    C. Sodium citrate
    D. Sodium fluoride
A

A. EDTA

53
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 38*. This is a
    photomicrograph of a trichrome stain
    of a fecal smear, magnification 400 X.
    The parasite measures 65 X 45 um. What
    is the identification of this parasite?
    A. Balantidium coli
    B. Diphyllobothrium latum
    C. Giardia lamblia
    D. Schistosoma japonicum
A

A. Balantidium coli

54
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 39 *. This is a
    photomicrograph of an iodine wet prep
    made from a stool sample; magnification
    is 400 X. The ovum is about 70 X 50 um.
    What is the identification of the parasite?
    A. Hookworm
    B. Enterobius vermicularis
    C. Trichuris trichiura
    D. Ascaris lumbricoides
A

D. Ascaris lumbricoides

55
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 40*. This is a photomicrograph
    of an iron hematoxylin stain
    from a fecal smear. The magnification is
    1000X. The parasite is approximately
    20 um long and 15 um wide. What is the
    identification of this parasite?
    A. Chilomastix mesnili trophozoite
    B. Giardia lamblia trophozoite
    C. Trichomonas hominis trophozoite
    D. Trichomonas tenax trophozoite
A

B. Giardia lamblia trophozoite

56
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 41 *. This is a photomicrograph
    of an iron hematoxylin stain
    from a fecal smear. The magnification is
    1000X. The parasite is approximately
    12 um in diameter. What is the identification
    of this parasite?
    A. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite
    B. Entamoeba hartmanni trophozoite
    C. Dientamoebafragilis trophozoite
    D. Entamoeba coli trophozoite
A

C. Dientamoebafragilis trophozoite

57
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 42 *. This is a photomicrograph
    of an iodine wet-mount from
    a fecal sample. The magnification is
    1000X. The parasite is approximately
    25 um in diameter. What is the identification
    of this parasite?
    A. Entamoeba histolytica cyst
    B. Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite
    C. Entamoeba coli cyst
    D. Entamoeba coli trophozoite
A

C. Entamoeba coli cyst

58
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 43*. This is a photomicrograph
    of an iodine wet mount from
    a fecal sample. The magnification is 400X.
    The ovum is approximately 70 X 38 um.
    What is the identification of this parasite?
    A. Hookworm
    B. Ascaris lumbricoides
    C. Diphyllobothrium latum
    D. Taenia solium
A

A. Hookworm

59
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 44*. This is a photomicrograph
    of a trichrome stain from a
    fecal smear. The magnification is 1000X.
    The parasite is approximately 15 (urn in
    diameter. What is the identification of this
    parasite?
    A. Entamoeba hartmanni
    B. Dientamoeba fragilis
    C. lodamoeba biltschlii
    D. Blastocystis hominis
A

D. Blastocystis hominis

60
Q
  1. Refer to Color Plate 45 B. This is a photomicrograph
    of a blood smear stained with
    Wright’s stain. Identify the parasite.
    A. Babesia sp.
    B. Plasmodium malariae
    C. Plasmodiumfalciparum
    D. Trypanosoma cruzi
A

B. Plasmodium malariae

61
Q
A