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MTAP 1 FINALS - EE > AUBF 2 CIULLA > Flashcards

AUBF 2 CIULLA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Why is the first-voided morning urine
    specimen the most desirable specimen for
    routine urinalysis?
    A. Most dilute specimen of the day and
    therefore any chemical compounds
    present will not exceed the detectability
    limits of the reagent strips
    B. Least likely to be contaminated with
    microorganisms because the bladder is
    a sterile environment
    C. Most likely to contain protein because
    the patient has been in the orthostatic
    position during the night
    D. Most concentrated specimen of the
    day and therefore it is more likely that
    abnormalities will be detected
A

D. Most concentrated specimen of the
day and therefore it is more likely that
abnormalities will be detected

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2
Q
  1. The physical characteristic of color
    is assessed when a routine urinalysis
    is performed. What substance is
    normally found in urine that is principally
    responsible for its yellow coloration?
    A. Bilirubin
    B. Melanin
    C. Carotene
    D. Urochrome
A

D. Urochrome

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3
Q
  1. In certain malignant disorders, what
    substance is found in the urine that turns
    the urine dark brown or black on exposure
    of the urine to air?
    A. Urobilinogen
    B. Indican
    C. Melanin
    D. Porphyrin
A

C. Melanin

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4
Q
  1. What is the expected pH range of a freshly voided urine specimen?
    A. 3.5-8.0
    B. 3.5-9.0
    C. 4.0-8.5
    D. 4.5-8.0
A

D. 4.5-8.0

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5
Q
  1. Urine specimens should be analyzed as
    soon as possible after collection. If urine
    specimens are allowed to stand at room
    temperature for an excessive amount of
    time, the urine pH will become alkaline
    because of bacterial decomposition of
    A. Protein
    B. Urea
    C. Creatinine
    D. Ketones
A

B. Urea

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6
Q
  1. Which term is defined as a urine volume
    in excess of 2000 mL excreted over a
    24-hour period?
    A. Anuria
    B. Oliguria
    C. Polyuria
    D. Hypersthenuria
A

C. Polyuria

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7
Q
  1. The reagent test strips used for the
    detection of protein in urine are most
    reactive to
    A. Albumin
    B. Hemoglobin
    C. Alpha-globulins
    D. Beta-globulins
A

A. Albumin

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8
Q
  1. A urine specimen that exhibits yellow
    foam on being shaken should be suspected
    of having an increased concentration of
    A. Protein
    B. Hemoglobin
    C. Bilirubin
    D. Nitrite
A

C. Bilirubin

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9
Q
  1. How should controls be run to ensure the
    precision and accuracy of the reagent test
    strips used for the chemical analysis of
    urine?
    A. Positive controls should be run on a
    daily basis and negative controls when
    opening a new bottle of test strips.
    B. Positive and negative controls should
    be run when the test strips’ expiration
    date is passed.
    C. Positive and negative controls should
    be run on a daily basis.
    D. Positive controls should be run on a
    daily basis and negative controls on a
    weekly basis.
A

C. Positive and negative controls should
be run on a daily basis.

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10
Q
  1. The colorimetric reagent strip test for
    protein is able to detect as little as 5-20 nig
    of protein per deciliter. What may cause a
    false-positive urine protein reading?
    A. Uric acid concentration is greater than
    0.5 g/day.
    B. Vitamin C concentration is greater
    than 0.5 g/day.
    C. Glucose concentration is greater than
    130mg/day.
    D. pH is greater than 8.0.
A

D. pH is greater than 8.0.

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11
Q
  1. “Isosthenuria” is a term applied to a series of urine specimens from the same patient that exhibit a
    A. Specific gravity of exactly 1.000
    B. Specific gravity less than 1.007
    C. Specific gravity greater than 1.020
    D. Fixed specific gravity of approximately
    1.010
A

D. Fixed specific gravity of approximately
1.010

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12
Q
  1. A urine specimen is tested by a reagent
    strip test and the sulfosalicylic acid test to
    determine whether protein is present. The
    former yields a negative protein, whereas
    the latter results in a reading of 2+
    protein. Which of the following statements
    best explains this difference?
    A. The urine contained an excessive
    amount of amorphous urates or
    phosphates that caused the turbidity
    seen with the sulfosalicylic acid test.
    B. The urine pH was greater than 8,
    exceeding the buffering capacity
    of the reagent strip, thus causing
    a false-negative reaction.
    C. A protein other than albumin must be
    present in the urine.
    D. The reading time of the reagent strip
    test was exceeded (the reading being
    taken at 2 minutes), causing a falsenegative
    reaction to be detected.
A

C. A protein other than albumin must be
present in the urine.

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is the major
    organic substance found in urine?
    A. Sodium
    B. Potassium
    C. Glucose
    D. Urea
A

D. Urea

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14
Q
  1. Each of the following is included in the
    quality assurance program for a urinalysis
    laboratory. Which one represents a
    preanalytical component of testing?
    A. Setting collection guidelines for
    24-hour urines
    B. Setting a maintenance schedule for
    microscopes
    C. Reporting units to be used for crystals
    D. Requiring acceptable results for
    control specimens before any patient
    results are reported out
A

A. Setting collection guidelines for 24-hour urines

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15
Q
  1. The presence of ketone bodies in urine
    specimens may be detected by use of a
    reagent strip impregnated with sodium
    nitroprusside. This strip test is sensitive
    to the presence of
    A. Acetoacetic acid and betahydroxybutyric
    acid
    B. Acetoacetic acid and acetone
    C. Diacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric
    acid
    D. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid and acetone
A

B. Acetoacetic acid and acetone

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16
Q
  1. A routine urinalysis is performed on a
    young child suffering from diarrhea. The
    reagent test strip is negative for glucose
    but positive for ketones. These results may
    be explained by which of the following
    statements?
    A. The child has Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
    B. The child is suffering from lactic
    acidosis, and the lactic acid has falsely
    reacted with the impregnated reagent
    area for ketones.
    C. The child is suffering from increased
    catabolism of fat because of decreased
    intestinal absorption.
    D. The reagent area for ketones was read
    after the m
A

C. The child is suffering from increased
catabolism of fat because of decreased
intestinal absorption.

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17
Q
  1. The principle of the colorimetric reagent strip test for hemoglobin is based on the peroxidase activity of hemoglobin in
    catalyzing the oxidation of a dye with
    peroxide to form a colored compound.
    This method may yield false-positive
    results for the presence of hemoglobin
    when the urine specimen contains
    A. Ascorbic acid
    B. Tetracycline
    C. Myoglobin
    D. Nitrite
A

C. Myoglobin

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18
Q
  1. A reagent test strip impregnated with
    a diazonium salt such as diazotized
    2,4-dichloroaniline may be used to
    determine which analyte?
    A. Glucose
    B. Ketone
    C. Hemoglobin
    D. Bilirubin
A

D. Bilirubin

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following will contribute to a specimen’s specific gravity if it is present
    in a person’s urine?
    A. 50-100 RBC/hpf
    B. 85 mg/dL glucose
    C. 3+ amorphous phosphates
    D. Moderate bacteria
A

B. 85 mg/dL glucose

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20
Q
  1. With infections of the urinary system,
    white blood cells are frequently seen in
    the urine sediment. What type of white
    blood cell is seen the most frequently in
    urine sediment?
    A. Eosinophil
    B. Lymphocyte
    C. Monocyte
    D. Neutrophil
A

D. Neutrophil

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21
Q
  1. A random urine is collected from a patient and the results obtained are as follows: urine albumin =16 mg/dL and urine
    creatinine = 140 mg/dL. These findings are consistent with
    A. Microalbuminuria
    B. Macroalbuminuria
    C. Nephrotic syndrome
    D. Obstructive jaundice
A

A. Microalbuminuria

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22
Q
  1. To detect more easily the presence of casts in urine sediments, which microscopic
    method can be used?
    A. Fluorescent microscopy
    B. Phase-contrast microscopy
    C. Polarized microscopy
    D. Brightfield microscopy
A

B. Phase-contrast microscopy

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23
Q
  1. Which substance found in urinary
    sediment is more easily distinguished
    by use of polarized microscopy?
    A. Lipids
    B. Casts
    C. Red blood cells
    D. Ketone bodies
A

A. Lipids

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24
Q
  1. “Glitter cell” is a term used to describe
    a specific type of
    A. Ketone body
    B. Oval fat body
    C. Fatty droplet
    D. Neutrophil
A

D. Neutrophil

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25
Q
  1. The final phase of degeneration that
    granular casts undergo is represented
    by which of the following casts?
    A. Fine
    B. Coarse
    C. Cellular
    D. Waxy
A

D. Waxy

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26
Q
  1. A 40-year-old female patient with a history
    of kidney infection is seen by her physician
    because she has felt lethargic for a few
    weeks. She has decreased frequency of
    urination and a bloated feeling. Physical
    examination shows periorbital swelling
    and general edema, including a swollen
    abdomen. Significant urinalysis results
    show the following: color = yellow;
    appearance = cloudy/frothy; specific
    gravity = 1.022;pH = 7.0; protein =
    4+; 0-3 WBC/hpf; 0-1 RBC/hpf; 0-2
    renal epithelial cells/hpf; 10-20 hyaline
    casts/lpf; 0-1 granular casts/lpf; 0-1 fatty
    casts/lpf; occasional oval fat bodies. Her
    serum chemistries show significantly
    decreased albumin, increased urea
    nitrogen, and increased creatinine. These
    findings suggest which condition?
    A. Multiple myeloma
    B. Glomerulonephritis
    C. Nephrotic syndrome
    D. Chronic renal failure
A

C. Nephrotic syndrome

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27
Q
  1. A 47-year-old female patient with
    controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus
    complains of urinary frequency and
    burning. She provides a first-morning,
    clean-catch specimen. Results show
    color = yellow; appearance = cloudy;
    pH = 6.5; a representative microscopic
    high-power field is shown in Color
    Plate 46B. Which of the following is true
    for this patient?
    A. The number of bacteria seen would
    result in a positive nitrite.
    B. The major formed elements are white
    blood cells and yeast.
    C. The type and number of epithelial
    cells suggest incorrect sample
    collection.
    D. The red blood cells would be sufficient
    to give a positive blood result on the
    reagent strip.
A

B. The major formed elements are white
blood cells and yeast.

28
Q
  1. Alkaptonuria, a rare hereditary disease, is characterized by the urinary excretion of
    A. Alkaptone
    B. Phenylalanine
    C. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
    D. Homogentisic acid
A

D. Homogentisic acid

29
Q
  1. A 22-year-old female clinical laboratory
    student performs a urinalysis on her own
    urine as part of a lab class. Significant
    results include: color = yellow;
    appearance = cloudy; pH = 7.5;
    nitrite = positive; leukocyte
    esterase - 2+; 25^0 WBC/hpf;
    0-3 RBC/hpf; 2-5 squamous epithelial
    cells/hpf; moderate bacteria. All other
    chemistries and microscopic results
    were normal. These findings suggest
    A. Glomerulonephritis
    B. Upper urinary tract infection
    C. Lower urinary tract infection
    D. Nephrolithiasis
A

C. Lower urinary tract infection

30
Q
  1. Metastatic carcinoid tumors arising from
    the enterochromaffin cells of the gastrointestinal
    tract are characterized by
    increased excretion of urinary
    A. Serotonin
    B. 5-Hydroxytryptophan
    C. Homogentisic acid
    D. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid
A

D. 5-Hydroxyindole acetic acid

31
Q
  1. Some clinical conditions are characterized
    by unique urinalysis result patterns.
    Which of the following shows such a
    relationship?
    A. Nephrotic syndrome: positive protein
    on reagent strip, negative protein with
    sulfosalicylic acid
    B. Intensive dieting: increased ketones,
    negative glucose
    C. Multiple myeloma: positive protein
    by both reagent strip and sulfosalicylic
    acid
    D. Cystitis: positive nitrite and protein
A

B. Intensive dieting: increased ketones,
negative glucose

32
Q
  1. Nitrite in a urine specimen suggests the
    presence of
    A. White blood cells
    B. Red blood cells
    C. Bacteria
    D. Yeasts
A

C. Bacteria

33
Q
  1. If a fasting plasma glucose level of 100
    mg/dL is obtained on an individual, what
    is the expected fasting cerebrospinal fluid
    (CSF) glucose level in mg/dL?
    A. 25
    B. 50
    C. 65
    D. 100
A

C. 65

34
Q
  1. A 35-year-old man has just experienced
    severe crush injuries sustained in a car
    accident. He has a broken pelvis and right
    femur and has numerous abrasions and
    contusions. A random urinalysis specimen
    shows a brown color and clear appearance.
    pH is 6.0, protein is 1 + , and blood is 3+.
    There is, however, only 0-1 RBC/hpf,
    along with 0-3 WBC/hpf. Casts found
    include hyaline (0-2/lpf) and granular
    (0-1/Ipf). Other urine results are normal.
    Which of the following is true about this
    patient?
    A. The positive blood result is from a
    hemolytic anemia.
    B. The bilirubin result should have also
    been positive for this patient.
    C. Rhabdomyolysis may be a cause for
    the discrepant chemical/microscopic
    blood findings.
    D. The bone crushing led to the increased
    protein result.
A

C. Rhabdomyolysis may be a cause for
the discrepant chemical/microscopic
blood findings.

35
Q
  1. A 67-year-old male has routine testing
    done and shows an estimated glomerular
    filtration rate (eGFR) of 42 mL/min/1.73 m2.
    Which of the following is true for this
    patient?
    A. This test requires a 24-hour urine
    collection.
    B. The patient does not have chronic
    kidney damage, based on these results.
    C. Similar results would be obtained
    using the Cockgroft-Gault formula.
    D. The patient is in Stage 3 chronic
    kidney damage.
A

D. The patient is in Stage 3 chronic
kidney damage.

36
Q
  1. Which is true about the formed element
    shown in Color Plate 47 *?
    A. May be found in normal alkaline urine
    B. Associated with renal pathology
    C. Characteristic of glomerulonephritis
    D. Associated with lung pathology
A

A. May be found in normal alkaline urine

37
Q
  1. The major formed element in the highpower field shown in Color Plate 48 *
    is most likely a
    A. Granular cast
    B. Hyaline cast
    C. Waxy cast
    D. Fiber artifact
A

D. Fiber artifact

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about the
    final concentrating of urine in the kidney?
    A. The distal convoluted tubule, through
    active transport, reabsorbs water.
    B. Water is reabsorbed under the direct
    influence of angiotensin II.
    C. Vasopressin controls the collecting
    duct reabsorption of water.
    D. Water reabsorption is influenced by
    urine filtrate levels of potassium.
A

C. Vasopressin controls the collecting
duct reabsorption of water.

39
Q
  1. If a urine specimen is left standing at room temperature for several hours, which of the following changes may occur?
    A. Multiplication of bacteria
    B. An increase in the glucose concentration
    C. Production of an acid urine
    D. Deterioration of any albumin present
A

A. Multiplication of bacteria

40
Q
  1. The formed element shown in Color
    Plate 49B would usually be found in the
    patient’s urine along with which soluble
    biochemicals?
    A. Phenylalanine and tyrosine
    B. Ornithine and arginine
    C. Isoleucine and leucine
    D. Acetoacetic acid and (3-hydroxybutyric
    acid
A

B. Ornithine and arginine

41
Q
  1. A 13-year-old ice skater is having her
    routine physical before the school year.
    Her first morning urinalysis results
    include color = straw; appearance =
    hazy; pH = 6.0; protein = trace; a
    representative microscopic high-power
    field is shown in Color Plate 50B. All
    other chemical results were normal. The
    major formed elements are and
    suggest .
    A. Hyaline casts and waxy casts;
    nephrotic syndrome
    B. Mucus and fibers; no pathology
    C. Granular casts and red blood cells;
    glomerulonephritis
    D. Hyaline casts and mucus; normal
    sediment
A

D. Hyaline casts and mucus; normal
sediment

42
Q
  1. Phenylketonuria may be characterized
    by which of the following statements?
    A. It may cause brain damage if
    untreated.
    B. It is caused by the absence of the
    enzyme, phenylalanine oxidase.
    C. Phenylpyruvic acid excess appears
    in the blood.
    D. Excess tyrosine accumulates in the
    blood.
A

A. It may cause brain damage if
untreated.

43
Q
  1. What condition is suggested by the
    number of the formed element that
    predominates in the high-power field
    of Color Plate 5 !*?
    A. Glomerulonephritis
    B. Improperly collected specimen
    C. Pyelonephritis
    D. Normal sample
A

D. Normal sample

44
Q
  1. Xanthochromia of cerebrospinal fluid
    (CSF) samples may be due to increased
    levels of which of the following?
    A. Chloride
    B. Protein
    C. Glucose
    D. Magnesium
A

B. Protein

45
Q
  1. Which of the following will be characterized
    by an increased number of the urinary
    component seen in Color Plate 52M?
    A. Acute glomerulonephritis
    B. Biliary tract obstruction
    C. Contamination from vaginal discharge
    D. Nephrotic syndrome
A

A. Acute glomerulonephritis

46
Q
  1. To determine amniotic fluid contamination
    with maternal urine, which of the
    following measurements could be used?
    A. Creatinine concentration
    B. Delta absorbance at 410 nm
    C. Albumin/globulin ratio
    D. Lactate dehydrogenase
A

A. Creatinine concentration

47
Q
  1. With the development of fetal lung
    maturity, which of the following phospholipid
    concentrations in amniotic fluid
    significantly and consistently increases?
    A. Sphingomyelin
    B. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
    C. Phosphatidyl inositol
    D. Phosphatidyl choline
A

D. Phosphatidyl choline

48
Q
  1. A patient has been diagnosed with an
    upper gastrointestinal bleed. Which of the
    following would be characteristic for this
    condition?
    A. Brown stool with streaks of bright red
    B. Stool with lack of brown color
    (“clay-colored”)
    C. Stool with a much darker brown/black
    color
    D. Yellow stool with increased mucus
A

C. Stool with a much darker brown/black
color

49
Q
  1. A pleural effusion is found to have 3000
    white blood cells per microliter and 5 g/dL
    total protein. From this it can be determined
    that the patient’s effusion is
    A. A transudate
    B. An exudate
    C. Noninflammatory
    D. Hemorrhagic
A

B. An exudate

50
Q
  1. Patients with diabetes insipidus tend to
    produce urine in _________ volume with _________ specific gravity.
    A. Increased; decreased
    B. Increased; increased
    C. Decreased; decreased
    D. Decreased; increased
A

A. Increased; decreased

51
Q
  1. The estimation of hyaluronic acid
    concentration by measurement of
    viscosity is useful in evaluating which
    type of fluid?
    A. Spinal
    B. Peritoneal
    C. Pleural
    D. Synovial
A

D. Synovial

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is characteristic of an exudate effusion?
    A. Leukocyte count >1000/uL
    B. Clear appearance
    C. Protein concentration <3.0 g/dL
    D. Absence of fibrinogen
A

A. Leukocyte count >1000/uL

53
Q
  1. Which of the following systems utilizes
    polyelectrolytes to determine the specific
    gravity of urine?
    A. Refractometer
    B. Osmometer
    C. TS meter
    D. Reagent strip
A

D. Reagent strip

54
Q
  1. Which methods may be used to quantify
    protein in both cerebrospinal fluid and
    urine specimens?
    A. Trichloroacetic acid and bromcresol
    green
    B. Ponceau S and Coomassie brilliant
    blue
    C. Bromcresol green and Coomassie
    brilliant blue
    D. Coomassie brilliant blue and
    trichloroacetic acid
A

D. Coomassie brilliant blue and
trichloroacetic acid

55
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics is
    true of the primary urinary components
    shown in Color Plate 53B?
    A. Consist of uromodulin protein
    B. Presence always indicates a disease
    process
    C. Can be observed with polarized
    microscopy
    D. Appear yellowish in brightfield
    microscopy
A

A. Consist of uromodulin protein

56
Q
  1. A characteristic of substances normally
    found dissolved in the urine is that they
    are all
    A. Water soluble
    B. Inorganic
    C. Organic
    D. Waste products
A

A. Water soluble

57
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies
    to the proper collection and handling of
    CSF?
    A. The second tube collected should be
    used for chemistry analyses.
    B. The third tube collected should be
    used for bacteriologic studies.
    C. CSF collected in the evening should
    be refrigerated and assays performed
    only by day-shift personnel.
    D. With low-volume specimens, a culture
    is performed first, before cell counts
    are done.
A

D. With low-volume specimens, a culture
is performed first, before cell counts
are done.

58
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics is
    true for the urinary components shown in
    Color Plate 54B?
    A. Never should appear in a freshly
    collected sample
    B. Can also resemble cysteine crystals
    C. Appear insoluble in alkaline urine
    D. Presence indicates an inborn error of
    metabolism
A

B. Can also resemble cysteine crystals

59
Q
  1. A patient sends the following question to an online consumer health Web site: “I am a 22-year-old female who experienced
    increasing headaches, thirst, and decreasing energy. I was studying in the library when I felt lightheaded and passed out. I was taken to a hospital emergency
    department and they told me that my
    serum Acetest® was 40 mg/dL and urine
    glucose was 500 mg/dL. What does this
    mean?” How would you reply?
    A. Your lab results pattern suggests
    diabetes mellitus.
    B. You probably have been crash dieting
    recently.
    C. The two results do not fit any disease
    pattern.
    D. The tests need to be repeated because
    they could not possibly occur together.
A

A. Your lab results pattern suggests
diabetes mellitus.

60
Q
  1. Which urinalysis reagent strip test will
    never be reported out as “negative”?
    A. Protein
    B. Urobilinogen
    C. Bilirubin
    D. Nitrite
A

B. Urobilinogen

61
Q
  1. The following urinalysis results were
    obtained on a 40-year-old white male
    whose skin appeared yellowish during the
    clinical examination. Color and clarity—
    dark brown, clear; protein—negative;
    glucose—negative; blood—negative;
    ketones—negative; bilirubin— moderate;
    urobilinogen—0.2 mg/dL. These results
    are clinically significant in which of the
    following conditions?
    A. Bile duct obstruction
    B. Cirrhosis
    C. Hepatitis
    D. Hemolytic anemia
A

A. Bile duct obstruction

62
Q
  1. Compared to the fecal occult blood test,
    which of the following is a disadvantage
    of performing a DNA-based test to detect
    colon cancer?
    A. The DNA test is more invasive.
    B. The DNA test is less sensitive.
    C. The DNA test is more expensive.
    D. Additional diet restrictions are needed
    for the DNA test.
A

C. The DNA test is more expensive.

63
Q
  1. Which of the following may be associated
    with morphologic examination of
    spermatozoa?
    A. Evaluation should include assessment
    of 1000 spermatozoa.
    B. A small number of sperm should have
    normal morphologic characteristics.
    C. Papanicolaou stain may be used.
    D. Presence of red or white cells and
    epithelial cells need not be noted.
A

C. Papanicolaou stain may be used.

64
Q
  1. Which condition is characterized by
    increased levels of immunoglobulins in
    the cerebrospinal fluid, originating from
    within the central nervous system and not
    from the general blood circulation?
    A. Gout
    B. Erythroblastosis fetalis
    C. Multiple myeloma
    D. Multiple sclerosis
A

D. Multiple sclerosis

65
Q
  1. Which of the following statements
    pertains to screening methods used to
    determine pregnancy?
    A. Immunoassays will use reagent
    anti-hCG to react with patient hCG.
    B. A random urine specimen is the
    preferred specimen for pregnancy
    screening tests.
    C. Internal controls provided within the
    kit will assess if the patient’s specimen
    was collected correctly.
    D. External quality control is not needed
    with these methods.
A

A. Immunoassays will use reagent
anti-hCG to react with patient hCG.

66
Q
  1. The following urinalysis biochemical
    results were obtained from a 4-month-old
    infant who experienced vomiting and
    diarrhea after milk ingestion and failed to
    gain weight: pH—6; protein—negative;
    glucose—negative; ketone—negative;
    bilirubin—negative; Clinitest®—2+.
    These results are clinically significant in
    which of the following disorders?
    A. Diabetes mellitus
    B. Ketosis
    C. Starvation
    D. Galactosemia
A

D. Galactosemia

67
Q
  1. Which of the following is a true statement?
    A. Renal tubular cells originate from the
    renal pelvis.
    B. Red blood cells in acid urine (pH 4.5)
    will usually be crenated because of the
    acidity.
    C. Bacteria introduced into a urine
    specimen at the time of the collection
    will have no immediate effect on the
    level of nitrite in the specimen.
    D. Pilocarpine iontophoresis is the
    method of choice for the collection of
    pericardial fluid.
A

C. Bacteria introduced into a urine
specimen at the time of the collection
will have no immediate effect on the
level of nitrite in the specimen.

MTAP 1 FINALS - EE (3 decks)

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