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paper 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

evaluate the effectiveness of extrinsic motivation for a beginner in sport (4)

A

Extrinsic rewards may result in pride which encourage the beginner to try harder to improve (1)
* Performers can become reliant on extrinsic motivation and if it is not given then the beginner may
reduce effort levels or give up completely (1)
* Intrinsic motivation leads to continued participation as the beginner may be making a lot of errors and strives to improve for personal achievement (1)
* Intrinsic is more effective for a beginner as it encourages them to play for the love of the game rather than for rewards or praise (1)

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2
Q

Describe the characteristics of physical health and wellbeing

A

All body systems working well; free from illness and injury; able to carry out everyday tasks

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3
Q

Describe the characteristics of mental health and wellbeing

A

Realises their own potential; can cope with the normal stresses of life; can work productively; able to make a contribution to their community

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4
Q

Describe the characteristics of social health and wellbeing

A

Basic human needs are met; has friendship and support; has some value in society; is socially active; has little stress in social circumstances

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5
Q

Describe the effects of exercise on physical health and wellbeing

A

Improves heart function; improves efficiency of the body systems; reduces the risk of some illness; able to do everyday tasks; to avoid obesity

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6
Q

Describe the effects of exercise on mental health and wellbeing

A

Reduces stress/tension; release of feel good hormones (serotonin); able to control emotions

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7
Q

Describe the effects of exercise on social health and wellbeing

A

Opportunities to socialise/make friends; cooperation; teamwork; have essential human needs (food, shelter, clothing)

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8
Q

Describe the effects of exercise on fitness

A

Improves fitness; reduces the chances of injury; can aid in the physical ability to work

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9
Q

What is a sedentary lifestyle?

A

A lifestyle with irregular or no physical activity

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10
Q

Describe some consequences of a sedentary lifestyle

A

Weight gain/obesity; heart disease; hypertension; diabetes; poor sleep; poor self-esteem; lethargy

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11
Q

What is obesity?

A

Having a large fat content, with a BMI of over 30

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12
Q

Describe the effects of obesity on physical health

A

Cancer; heart disease/heart attacks; diabetes; high cholesterol

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13
Q

Describe the effects of obesity on mental health

A

Depression; loss of confidence

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14
Q

Describe the effects of obesity on social health

A

Inability to socialise; inability to leave home

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15
Q

What is an ectomorph?

A

A somatotype characterised by being tall and thin, with narrow shoulders and narrow hips

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15
Q

Describe the effects of obesity on fitness

A

Limits stamina/cardiovascular endurance; limits flexibility; limits agility; limits speed/power

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16
Q

What is a mesomorph?

A

A somatotype characterised by a muscular appearance, with wide shoulders and narrow hips

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17
Q

What is an endomorph?

A

A somatotype characterised by a pear-shaped body, with wide hips and narrow shoulders

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18
Q

Describe the average calorie requirements

A

The average adult male requires 2500 Kcal per day; the average adult female requires 2000 Kcal per day

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19
Q

Describe the factors affecting calorie requirements

A

Age; gender; height; energy expenditure (exercise)

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20
Q

What is a balanced diet?

A

Eating the right amount of calories for the energy expended, and the right food types to provide suitable nutrition

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21
Q

Describe the reasons for a balanced diet

A

Unused energy is stored as fat, which could cause obesity; suitable energy can be available for activity; the body needs nutrients for energy, growth and hydration

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22
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A

The main and preferred energy source for all intensities

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23
Q

What is fat?

A

Another energy source that provides more energy than carbohydrates but only at low intensities

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24
Q

What is protein?

A

A nutrient for the growth and repair of muscle tissue

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25
Q

What are vitamins?

A

Organic substances that are required for many essential processes in the body

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26
Q

What are minerals?

A

Inorganic substances which assist the body with many of its functions

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27
Q

Describe the proportions of a balanced diet

A

55-60% carbohydrates; 25-30% fat; 15-20% protein

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28
Q

What is hydration?

A

Having enough water to enable normal functioning of the body

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29
Q

What is dehydration?

A

Excessive loss of body water interrupting the function of the body

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30
Q

Describe the effects of dehydration

A

Increased viscosity of blood slows blood flow so the heart has to work harder; increased body temperature may cause overheating; increased reaction time, poorer decisions; muscle fatigue/ cramps

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31
Q

What is a skill?

A

A learned action/behaviour with the intention of bringing about pre-determined results

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32
Q

What is ability?

A

Inherited, stable traits that determine an individual’s potential to learn/acquire a skill

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33
Q

Describe the characteristics of basic skills

A

Few decisions to be made; few decisions affect movement success; tend to be taught as a beginner; learned fairly quickly

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34
Q

Describe the characteristics of complex skills

A

Complex decision making; lots of decisions making to be successful; taught after success in basic skills; can take lots of time to master

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35
Q

Describe the characteristics of open skills

A

Unstable environment; affected by people around you; skill may change due to environment

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36
Q

Describe the characteristics of closed skills

A

Stable environment; not affected by people around you; performed the same way every time

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37
Q

Describe the characteristics of self-paced skills

A

Start of movement controlled by performer; rate of movement controlled by performer

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38
Q

Describe the characteristics of externally-paced skills

A

Start of movement controlled by external factors; rate of movement controlled by external factors

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39
Q

Describe the characteristics of gross skills

A

Large movements of the body; use of large muscle groups; movements tend not to rely on accuracy and precision

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40
Q

Describe the characteristics of fine skills

A

Small and precise movements; use of small muscle groups; movements tend to involve precision and accuracy

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41
Q

Describe the characteristics of outcome goals

A

Judged on end result; comparison against other competitors; performance standards may not be important; suited to elite performers

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42
Q

Describe the characteristics of performance goals

A

Focused on how you perform; not comparing your results against others; only analysed against own performances; suited to beginners

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43
Q

What is specific in SMART?

A

Specific to the sport being played, or movements/muscles used

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44
Q

What is measurable in SMART?

A

Possible to measure whether it has been achieved

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45
Q

What is accepted in SMART?

A

Accepted by the performer and possibly their coach

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46
Q

What is realistic in SMART?

A

Achievable/possible to complete

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47
Q

What is time bound in SMART?

A

Set over a fixed period of time

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48
Q

What is information processing?

A

Gathering data from the senses in order to make a suitable decision

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49
Q

What is input in information processing?

A

Using selective attention to gather information from the environment

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50
Q

What is decision making in information processing?

A

Selecting an appropriate response from memory

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51
Q

What is output in information processing?

A

Sending the chosen decision to the appropriate muscles to carry out a response

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52
Q

What is feedback in information processing?

A

Receiving intrinsic/extrinsic information about the success of the response

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53
Q

Describe the characteristics of extrinsic feedback

A

Comes from an external source; beginners rely on it heavily as they struggle to interpret their own success of their movement

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54
Q

Describe the characteristics of intrinsic feedback

A

Performers develop the ability to interpret sensory information; sensing movement of muscles and joints to assess skill success (kinaesthesia)

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55
Q

Describe the characteristics of positive feedback

A

Informs the athlete what was correct about the movement; given extrinsically; beginners need it to motivate them

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56
Q

Describe the characteristics of negative feedback

A

Includes information on actions required by performer to achieve the correct movement; given extrinsically; this can demotivate beginners but elite performers can accept it

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57
Q

Describe the characteristics of knowledge of results

A

How well you achieved your aim; usually given by coach or teacher but may be able to see the success yourself; suited to beginners because it is easier to interpret

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58
Q

Describe the characteristics of knowledge of performance

A

How well you performed and focusing on technique or specific aspects of your movement; quality of performance, not results; elite athletes can interpret complex feedback on performance so it is suited to them

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59
Q

What is arousal?

A

A physical and mental state of alertness, varying from deep sleep to intense excitement

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60
Q

Describe appropriate arousal levels for gross/fine skills

A

Gross skills have a higher optimal level of arousal; fine skills have a lower optimal level of arousal

61
Q

What is deep breathing?

A

A somatic relaxation technique, which involves the performer exaggerates their breaths

62
Q

What is mental rehearsal?

A

A cognitive relaxation technique, which involves the performer pictures themselves performing the skill perfectly and imagines positive outcomes

63
Q

What is positive self-talk?

A

A cognitive relaxation technique, which involves the performer reassures themself with positive thoughts

64
Q

What is direct aggression?

A

Aggression which involves physical contact with others

65
Q

What is indirect aggression?

A

Aggression which does not involve physical contact, instead taken out on an object to gain an advantage

66
Q

Describe the characteristics of introverts

A

Shy/quiet; thoughtful; enjoy being by themselves

67
Q

Describe the sport preference of introverts

A

Tend to play individual sports; suited to fine skills with concentration/precision; prefer low arousal

68
Q

Describe the characteristics of extroverts

A

Enthusiastic/talkative; enjoy interaction with others; prone to boredom when by themselves

69
Q

Describe the sport preference of extroverts

A

Tend to play team sports; suited to gross skills without concentration/precision; prefer high arousal

70
Q

What is intrinsic motivation?

A

The drive that comes from within the performer

71
Q

What is extrinsic motivation?

A

The drive to perform well or win in order to gain external rewards

72
Q

What is visual guidance

A

When the performer can see something e.g. a diagram, or the coach showing the movement

73
Q

Strengths of visual guidance

A

beginners can understand movement pattern

74
Q

Weaknesses of visual guidance

A

Needs to be simple and reinforced verbally, ineffective for helping elites improve

75
Q

What is verbal guidance

A

When the perfomer can hear instructions from the coach

76
Q

Strengths of visual guidance

A

Can give in detal to elites, and other guidance is not needed with it to elites

77
Q

Weaknesses of visual guidance

A

Needs visual guidance with verbal for beginners, and needs to be clear

78
Q

What is manual guidance

A

When the performer is physically moved by the coach

79
Q

Strengths of manual guidance

A

Beginners can understand the feel of the movement, supperted and no risk

80
Q

Weaknesses of manual guidance

A

Reliance on the support, reduces kinaesthetic feel of your own movement

81
Q

What is mechanical guidance

A

When the performer is assisted by mechanical aids

82
Q

What is an example of mechanical guidance

A

A float used in swimming to develop the movement of leg kick

83
Q

Strengths of mechanical guidance

A

Performs correct movement if they cannot do it themselves, performer feels safe

84
Q

Weaknesses of mechanical guidance

A

Reliance on mechanical aid, not always realistic

85
Q

Describe the inverted U theory

A

The performance goes up with arousal until it reaches the optimum level, then when arousal increases the performances decreases because arousal level is too high. When arousal is too low the performance is also low.

86
Q

What are engagement patterns?

A

How levels of participation vary over different social groups

87
Q

Describe some social groups

A

Gender; race/religion/culture; age; family/friends/peers; disability

88
Q

Explain how gender affects participation

A

Much fewer women participate in sport than men; many girls do not see the relevance of sport and think choices in school sport are limited; many girls dislike taking part with boys who play aggressively; many girls feel judged and are therefore embarrassed by how they look; many girls lack positive role models and see that women’s sport usually has a lower status and receives less media coverage; many women have less spare time due to childcare responsibilities

89
Q

Explain how race/religion/culture affects participation

A

Black and Minority Ethnic communities have lower rates of participation in sport; this is mostly due to a lack of BME role models involved in leading and organising sport; there may also be cultural stereotypes associated with minority groups

90
Q

Explain how age affects participation

A

As people become older, their participation in sport decreases; adolescents undergo rapid physical changes and are conscious of their body image; women may experience changes during menopause which may affect their confidence; older people may experience weight gain and decreased fitness and find it harder to recover; people gain responsibilities as they age and may have less time due to the pressure of exams, a career or a family

91
Q

Explain how family/friends/peers affect participation

A

Family members can act as role models in sport for young people; family can provide financial, logistical and emotional support for young people; peer groups can positively or negatively influence participation in sport

92
Q

Explain how disability affects participation

A

Disabled participation in sport is significantly lower than able-bodied participation; this is due to physical barriers, logistical reasons or psychological reasons; disabled people can be integrated into mainstream sports or participate in adapted sports

93
Q

What is commercialisation?

A

Managing an organisation in a way designed to make a profit

94
Q

Explain the relationship between the sport, sponsorship and the media

A

The golden triangle shows the commercial relationship between sport, sponsorship and the media; the media uses sport to get viewers and increase advertising revenue; sponsors pay the media to advertise their brand/products; money from the media and sponsors funds sport to increase its quality

95
Q

What is sponsorship?

A

The supply of funds or other support to an organisation in return for some commercial return

96
Q

What is the media?

A

Diversified technologies which act as the main means of mass communication

97
Q

Describe the types of sponsorship

A

Financial; clothing/equipment/footwear; facilities

98
Q

Describe the types of media

A

Television; radio; the press; the internet; social media

99
Q

Describe the positive impacts of commercialisation on the sport

A

Raises the profile of the sport due to increased exposure; provides an increased level of funding to improve resources/coaching/facilities; gives the sport financial security; attracts the best players in the world

100
Q

Describe the negative impacts of commercialisation on the sport

A

Tends to support the popular sports and causes the less popular sports to lose out; changes to the sport format and rules have been introduced to make the sport audience-friendly; causes an increase in adverts and the loss of some sports traditions

101
Q

Describe the positive impacts of commercialisation on the sponsor

A

Raises awareness for their brand/products to increase sales; promotes a positive healthy image of the brand by linking it with sport

102
Q

Describe the negative impacts of commercialisation on the sponsor

A

Uncertain investment as sporting success is not guaranteed; bad publicity caused by the sport or performers reflects badly on the sponsor

103
Q

Describe the positive impacts of commercialisation on the performer

A

Allows performers to earn income as a full-time job; performers gain maximum exposure to promote their personal brand; can lead to additional roles within the sport after their playing career; performers might be contracted to put in appearances and attend public speaking; relieves financial worries

104
Q

Describe the negative impacts of commercialisation on the performer

A

Sponsorships might only be short-term; encourages deviant behaviour due to the pressure of success; performers may have to advertise a brand/product that they do not like; generally favours males over females and able-bodied over disabled

105
Q

Describe the positive impacts of commercialisation on the official

A

Income has increased as there is more money in the sport; opened up full-time jobs in elite sports due to the demand; the opportunity to travel around the world

106
Q

Describe the negative impacts of commercialisation on the official

A

Placed in the media spotlight over decisions they have made; making bad decisions could cause them to be dropped and find it difficult to find jobs again; severe criticism from the general public

107
Q

Describe the positive impacts of commercialisation on the spectator

A

Offers a wider choice of sports available to spectate; viewing experience has been enhanced due to investment in technology and audience participation

108
Q

Describe the negative impacts of commercialisation on the spectator

A

Encourages spectating not participating; can become very expensive for fans; can affect the viewing experience due to increased TV breaks and advertisement

109
Q

Describe the positive impacts of technology on the sport

A

Analysis of sport improves the quality of feedback given; increased accuracy in time and distance measurements; improved design of sport equipment, clothing and footwear; provides spectators with a greater access to the particular sport

110
Q

Describe the negative impacts of technology on the sport

A

Sports are no longer equal due to differences in access to technology; those with access to better technology often win; might take away from the intensity of the game

111
Q

Describe the positive impacts of technology on the sponsor

A

Can advertise in more places and more often, leading to more sales

112
Q

Describe the negative impacts of technology on the sponsor

A

Negative effects of technology like cheating can affect the associated sponsors;

113
Q

Describe the positive impacts of technology on the performer

A

Safety improvements (body protection); nutrition and fitness (software monitors players); injury rehabilitation (ice baths, oxygen tents, hyperbaric chambers); clothing/equipment (full-body suits, tennis rackets, football boots, prosthetics); match analysis (GPS, physiological variables, video analysis)

114
Q

Describe the negative impacts of technology on the performer

A

Cost to performers; opposition can use it to analyse weaknesses; performers with less funding may struggle to compete; could lead to more cheating in order to win; physiological tracking invades privacy

115
Q

Describe the positive impacts of technology on the official

A

Used to make more accurate decisions; can communicate easily with each other; pressure and criticism are reduced; shot clocks speed up play and make it more exciting; time and score keeping allow officials to focus on officiating

116
Q

Describe the negative impacts of technology on the official

A

The danger of becoming over-reliant on the technology; undermines the trust and respect for officials and their expertise; can slow the game too much; cost to install or regularly use the technology

117
Q

Describe the positive impacts of technology on the spectator

A

Improved experience from home; a wider range of sports available to watch; camera technology has improved the viewing experience as there are more angles shown at a higher quality; on-screen information makes it more interactive for the fans

118
Q

Describe the negative impacts of technology on the spectator

A

Time taken for decisions to be made with technology can be frustrating for spectators; increases the costs for spectators

119
Q

What is etiquette?

A

A convention in an activity which is not enforceable but is usually observed

120
Q

What is sportsmanship?

A

Conforming to the rules, spirit and etiquette of a sport

121
Q

What is gamesmanship?

A

Attempting to gain an advantage by bending the rules but not breaking them

122
Q

What is contract to compete?

A

The unwritten agreement within sports where participants agree to do their best with a degree of sportsmanship

123
Q

Describe the advantages of PEDs

A

Increased chances of success; fame/wealth;

124
Q

Describe the disadvantages of PEDs

A

Cheating is immoral; associated health risks; fines/bans; reputational damage to the individual/sport

125
Q

Describe blood doping

A

A technique used to increase the amount of red blood cells in the body; red blood cells are removed to be frozen and stored; they are then thawed and reinjected after the body has replenished the lost red blood cells

126
Q

Describe the positive influence of spectators

A

The creation of atmosphere motivates the performers; home-field advantages improve the performance of the home team due to more fans

127
Q

Describe the negative influence of spectators

A

Negative effect on performance as a result of increased pressure; potential for crowd trouble/hooliganism; safety costs/concerns; negative effect on participation numbers amongst younger performers

128
Q

Explain some reasons for hooliganism

A

Rivalries between teams lead to aggression; hype from the atmosphere leads to fans losing control; alcohol/drugs fuels aggression and reduces inhibitions; frustration at the result or a decision can lead to more aggression; display of masculinity to show who is better

129
Q

Explain some strategies against hooliganism

A

Early kick-offs reduce the potential for alcohol consumption; all-seater stadia means no fan is getting in the way of another; segregation of fans prevents violence between opposing fans; improved security prevents violence from breaking out; alcohol restrictions mean fans have more control over their inhibitions; travel restrictions ban hooligans from travelling to away fixtures; education/campaigns promote anti-hooliganism

130
Q

Effect of stimulants

A

Increased alertness

131
Q

Effect of narcotic agents

A

Painkiller to mask injury

132
Q

Effect of anabolic agents

A

Increased muscle mass

133
Q

Effect of peptide hormones

A

Increases oxygen carrying capacity

134
Q

Effect of duiretics

A

Lose weight

135
Q

Effect of beta blockers

A

Fine motor control as it decreases heart rate

136
Q

Effect of blood doping

A

Increases oxygen carrying capacity

137
Q

Advantages of stimulants

A

Decrease reaction time

138
Q

Advantages of narcotic agents

A

The pain will not affect performance

139
Q

Advantages of anabolic agents

A

Increase hypertrophy and bone growth so athletes can train harder

140
Q

Advantages of peptide hormones

A

Increases red blood cell count to improve endurance

141
Q

Advantages of diuretics

A

Lose weight quickly by removing excess water and masks other drugs

142
Q

Advantages of beta blockers

A

Reduces heart rate, muscle tension and blood pressure to improve precision

143
Q

Advantages of blood doping

A

Increases red blood cell count to improve endurance

144
Q

Disadvantages of stimulants

A

Addictive, insomnia

145
Q

Disadvantages of narcotic agents

A

Loss of coordination, risk of long term injuries from playing with injuries

146
Q

Disadvantages of anabolic agents

A

High blood pressure endocrine disruption

147
Q

Disadvantages of peptide hormones

A

Thickening of blood, body produces the correct amount naturally so it is dusrupting that

148
Q

Disadvantages of duiretics

A

Dehydration kidney problems

149
Q

Disadvantages of beta blockers

A

Nausea, weakness, heart problems

150
Q
A

PE GCSE (4 decks)

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