Paper 1: Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What is an ex parte application

A

An application brought without notice to anyone except the registrar of the high court either because no relief is sought against any person or it is not necessary to give notice to the respondent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what would you include in the POC where the people are refusing to sign the contract for a transfer of property?

A
  • P and D
  • entered into a written agreement + copy attached
  • P paid and fulfilled obligations
  • D refused to transfer
  • court has jurisdiction
  • prayers (transfer of property or sheriff signs)
  • costs of suits/f and a relief
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

list 6 acts of insolvency

A

(1) absence from republic or dwelling
(2) failure to satisfy judgment
(3) disposition prejudicing creditors or preferring one creditor
(4) removal of property with intent to prejudice or prefer
(5) offer of arrangement
(6) failure to apply for surrender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Absence from the Republic or dwelling

A

(If he leaves the Republic, or being out of the Republic, remains absent from the Republic, or departs from his dwelling or otherwise absents himself, with intent by
doing so evade or delay payment of his debts).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Failure to satisfy judgment

A

If a court has given judgment against him/her and he/she fails, upon the demand of the officer whose duty it is to execute the judgment, to satisfy it or to indicate to the
officer disposable property sufficient to satisfy it, or it appears from the return made by the officer that he has not found sufficient disposable property to satisfy the judgment).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Disposition prejudicing creditors or preferring one creditor

A

(If he/she makes, or attempts to make, any disposition of any of his/her property which
has, or would have, the effect of prejudicing his/her creditors or of preferring one
creditor above another).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Removal of property with intent to prejudice or prefer

A

(If he/she gives notice in writing to any one of his/her creditors that he/she is unable to
pay of his/her debts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Offer of arrangement

A

(If he/she makes, or offers to make, an arrangement with any of his/her creditors for releasing him/her wholly or in part from his debts).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Notice of inability to pay

A

(If he/she gives notice in writing to any one of his/her creditors that he/she is unable to
pay any of his/her debts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what type of application would you bring to ensure that someone does not destroy evidence/material/documentation?

A

ex parte application, anton pillar order to preserve the evidence/ material /documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is an ex parte/ anton pillar order enforced?

A

The order would provide for service of the order by sheriff
- who should be accompanied by an independent (not connected to applicant’s attorneys) supervising attorney
- both the independent supervising attorney and sheriff should make an inventory
of all items removed by the sheriff in terms of the order to prevent any future
disputes relating to removed items
- sheriff may also be required to file a report describing the manner in which the order was complied with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Draw a s115 statement and s112 statement including the heading:
Your client Bandi Fundien is a town councillor of the Municipality of Nozuko. He attends a council meeting which becomes heated and degenerates into a brawl between members of the various political parties. In the heat of the incident, he grabs a jug of water and hits a fellow councillor on the head. The councillor sustains serious injuries, is hospitalised for two weeks incurring medical expenses and loses wages as a consequence of being absent from his employment.
Fundien is duly charged with assault to do grievous bodily harm. The state wishes to present as evidence a number of medical reports which are admitted by your client.

A

[draw]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Explain a criminal claim for damages

A

s300 CPA:

  • a court can award compensation where an offence has caused damage or loss of property
  • The injured person or prosecutor acting on instructions of the injured party has to apply to the court to award the injured party compensation for such damage or loss
  • The complainant may claim hospital and medical expenses, loss of wages and general damages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How would the court determine damages in terms of s300 of the CPA?

A

In determining the amount of compensation, the court may refer to evidence and the proceedings at the trial or hear further evidence either upon affidavit or orally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the effect of any order made by the court ito s300 of the CPA and what remedy is available to the complainant should the accused fail to comply with the court order?

A

The effect of the award is that of a civil judgment of that court and the injured person has all the civil remedies at his / her disposal in order to recover the award

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the difference between withdrawing a charge and stopping a prosecution?

A

After a matter had been withdrawn, one can be prosecuted of the same charge again. That
is not the position when prosecution had been stopped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

explain withdrawal of charge

A

A charge may be withdrawn only before an accused pleads to a charge . After the withdrawal, the accused shall not be entitled to a verdict of acquittal in respect of that charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

explain stopping of a prosecution?

A

It can be done any time after an accused has pleaded but before conviction. The court must then acquit the accused in respect of that charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In a collision claim, what type of evidence should P lead to his witness to establish the damages to his vehicle?

A

The Plaintiff should lead evidence by an expert as to the cost of repairs to the motor vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In a collision claim, on what points should the P lead the witness to establish the damages to the vehicle?

A

the nature of his experience, that he has examined the

motor vehicle, and what he estimates the cost of repairing the motor vehicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In a collision claim, where P wishes to lead evidence - what procedural steps should P take first to enable him to lead such evidence?

A

The Plaintiffs’ attorney must give 15 days’ notice of his intention to lead the evidence of an expert and 10 days’ notice to give a summary of his opinions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a Magistrate’s court action, the Plaintiff failed to respond to a notice calling on him to discover.

What remedies does the Defendant’s attorney have?

A

Defendant may apply to Court for an order requiring Plaintiff to discover; (1)
Defendant may object to the Plaintiff using such document in the action; (1)
Defendant may apply for an adjournment of the trial. (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In a Magistrate’s court action, the Plaintiff failed to respond to a notice calling on him to discover. The Plaintiff duly filed his discovery affidavit in a Magistrate’s court action. The Defendant believes the Plaintiff has in his possession a letter which is relevant to the case. What are the options open to the Defendant?

A

Defendant may give the Plaintiff notice that he requires the document to be made available for inspection or that the Plaintiff declares that the document is not in his
possession and state the whereabouts if known to him.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In an action in the Magistrate’s Court, the magistrate finds that the Plaintiff’s damage to his vehicle amounts to R60 000.00 and the damage to the Defendant’s vehicle amounts to R50 000.00. The magistrate further finds that Plaintiff was 40% to blame for the collision and the Defendant was 60% to blame. Defendant made a without prejudice tender of R18 000.00 plus costs in terms of Rule 18 to settle Plaintiff’s claim. Plaintiff did not accept the tender.

What amount would the magistrate award and to whom would he make such award?

A

Defendant is liable to pay 60% of R60 000.00, which amounts to R 36 000.00 (1), and is entitled to recover 40% of R50 000.00, amounting to R 20 000.00 (1), i.e. Defendant is to pay R16 000.00 (1) to the Plaintiff. (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The magistrate was not aware of the tender when he gave judgment. What should the Defendant do?

A

When the magistrate is giving judgment or within five (5) days thereafter the Defendant can draw the attention of the court to his tender (1) and can expect that the order for costs will be amended to provide for the Plaintiff to pay the Defendant’s costs from the time of the tender. (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what should a notice of motion for liquidation of a CC include (apart from heading)

A
  • order will be sought that costs be costs in the liquidation;
  • affidavit of X will be used in support of the application;
  • request that the matter be placed on the role accordingly;
  • It should be dated and signed on behalf of the Applicant; It should be addressed to the Respondent;
  • It should also be addressed to the Clerk of the Registrar of the relevant Regional Court;
  • An address where the notice will be served on the employees and/or trade union of employees of the respondent CC; and
  • An indication that the notice will be served on SARS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what circumstances: rent interdict summons

A

A rent claim in which you wish to seize Defendant’s furniture. (1)

28
Q

what circumstances: provisional sentence summons

A

Based on a liquid document

29
Q

what circumstances: interpleader summons issued at the instance of a party who is not a sheriff

A

Plaintiff has an asset but does not know who the rightful owner is

30
Q

what circumstances: a simple summons

A

Plaintiff has a liquidated claim against the defendant

31
Q

what circumstances: declaration

A

Plaintiff has an unliquidated claim or is suing for a divorce.

32
Q

The Plaintiff, in an action in the High Court, in which you represent the Defendant, serves and files a notice of withdrawal of the action before the matter is formally set
down for trial, without tendering costs.

What remedy does your client have in the circumstances?

A

Apply to court for an order that Plaintiff pays the costs of the action as well as costs of the application. Within 20 court days from the date of receiving of the notice of withdrawal.

33
Q

What would be included in the notice of motion for an application for P to pay costs of the action and application where D has withdrawn before matter set down for trial without tendering costs (no heading)

A
  • Take note that …
  • date and time ….
  • order for the P to pay costs of the withdrawn action
  • order for P to pay costs of the application
  • affidavit of X will be used in support of the affidavit
  • kindly enrol the matter accordingly
34
Q

List the documents to be in Counsel’s brief in the case of opposed claim for provisional sentence. (6 docs)

A
  1. Copy of the summons together with the documents on which the claim rests
  2. The copy of the return of service
  3. The original liquid document
  4. A copy of the Defendant’s answering affidavit
  5. A copy of the Plaintiff’s replying affidavit
  6. A copy of notice of set down
35
Q

In which instances can a party to proceedings apply for a default judgment?

A
  1. Where the Defendant is in default with his Notice of intention to defend.
  2. Where the Defendant failed to plead after service on him/her of Notice of Bar.
  3. Where the Plaintiff failed to deliver a Declaration and was barred from doing so.
  4. Where the Plaintiff or Defendant failed to appear at the hearing
36
Q

when may a Plaintiff/Applicant apply for summary judgment?

A

after the defendant has filed their plea

37
Q

What must the Plaintiff demonstrate in the founding affidavit supporting summary judgement?

A
  • Plaintiff must prove that there is no bona fide defence and attach the plea.
  • Plaintiff must identify any point of law relied upon, the facts upon which the Plaintiff’s claim is based, and explain briefly why the defence pleaded does not
    raise any issue for trial.
38
Q

what is a special plea?

A

A special plea does not concern itself with the merits of the case but with some special defence or objection to Plaintiff’s case (pleas that could postpone Plaintiff’s
case i.e. dilatory special pleas or pleas that could destroy Plaintiff’s case i.e. special pleas in abatement)

39
Q

List 6 special pleas

A
Arbitration
Lis Pendens
Prescription
Misjoinder/Non-joinder
Jurisdiction
Non locus standi in iudicio
Res judicata
40
Q

Draft a special plea of jurisdiction

A
  • hon court lacks jur
  • resides outside area of court
  • cause of action arose outside area of court
  • prays for case to be dismissed with costs
41
Q

what sentences can be imposed in terms of s276 of the CPA?

A
  1. Imprisonment
  2. Periodical imprisonment
  3. A fine
  4. Correctional supervision (Section 276(h))
  5. Correctional supervision, that is imprisonment from which such a person may be
    placed under correctional supervision in his discretion by the Commissioner (Section
    276 (i)).
42
Q

what are the benefits of correctional supervision?

A
  • less intrusive than imprisonment and can be applied when fine inappropriate
  • family life of offender can continue
  • compulsory training and education can develop skills of the offender
  • offender will not be exposed to negative influences in prison
  • cost effective and involves the community
  • personal circumstances make it possible to maintain effective control and supervision
43
Q

what should be included in a notice of appeal against a sentence

A
  • mag erred and did not take pers circ into consideration
  • did not take alternative forms of punishment into consideration
  • over emphasising interests of public over that of the appellant
  • no substantial and compelling circumstances to not impose a minimum sentence
  • sentence imposed a sense of shock
44
Q

Mary entered into a contract with Bob Builder Close Corporation (BBCC) who undertook to build a swimming pool at the cost of R120 000. She paid a deposit
of R60 000 and shortly after work commenced, she paid a further sum of R10 000. BBCC informs Mary that it entered into a large contract in Johannesburg and was unable to continue the work. Mary then obtained another quotation at a fair and reasonable price of R70 000 to complete the swimming pool. You were asked to sue for the damages Mary suffered. Explain what Mary can sue for and for how much?

A

Mary is paying out R140 000 , i.e. R20 000 more than her contract price.

45
Q

what procedure should you adopt to amend a summons?

A

Notice to amend recording that if no objection is made the summons will be amended. The defendant can object within 10 days giving reasons. If court gives permission to amend you can file the amended page on behalf of your plaintiff.

46
Q

what must you do before photographs can be used at a trial?

A

Plaintiff must give 10 days’ notice that he will be using the photographs.

47
Q

What steps can the Plaintiff take if the Defendant objects to the photographs being used at a trial ?

A

The photographer will have to be called (Magistrate may penalise the Defendant with a costs order).

48
Q

In the course of a building contract, an apprentice drove a truck into the Plaintiffs’ garage causing considerable damage to the garage. You act for the garage owner. You sued the builder who entered a plea in which his only defence was that the apprentice did not have a driver’s license. Draft the document, including the heading and the prayers that you would file.

A

Exception:

  1. 2 The clerk of the Court and;
  2. 3 Defendant’s attorney;
  3. 4 Please take notice that Plaintiff excepts to the Defendant’s plea in that it fails to disclose a defence;
  4. 5 Particulars;
  5. 6 The fact that apprentice does not have a licence does not excuse his negligence;
  6. 7 Prayer;
  7. 8 That this exception be upheld with costs.
49
Q

State which of the following should be included in the Plaintiff’s discovery affidavit
schedule and which should not:
14.1 A statement obtained by an attorney in Zambia for the purpose of trial; (1)
14.2 Notes you made of a phone conversation with Defendant’s attorney; (1)
14.3 In a collision claim, notes made by your client at the time of the collision; (1)
14.4 The terms of an offer of settlement made by Defendant’s father. (1)

A
  1. 1 No, not included. (1)
  2. 2 Yes, included. (1)
  3. 3 Yes, included. (1)
  4. 4 Yes, included. (1)
50
Q

Name the two disclosures, in terms of Section 60 (11B) of the Criminal Procedure Act, which an accused is compelled to make to the Court at a bail application.

A

He has previously been convicted of any offence; and
There are any charges pending against him or her and whether he or she has been released on bail in respect of these charges.

51
Q

What are the possible consequences of an accused wilfully failing to make such disclosures? s60(B)

A

offence punishable by a fine or to imprisonment.

court can withdraw bail

52
Q

when is written permission from a spouse not needed when they are married in ICOP?

A
  • Actions between spouses.
    • The spouse’s separate property.
    • The recovery of damages due to the commission of a delict against the spouse.
    • Any matter relating to the trade, profession or business of the spouse.
53
Q

Are you entitled to advise a client to plead not guilty?

A

yes

54
Q

If your client is guilty - In the event of your client deciding to plead not guilty what ethical principles are
applicable?

A

The attorney is an officer of the Court and may accordingly not mislead the Court in any way.

  • onus is on state
  • no explanation of plea/ right to remain silent
  • no misleading questions can be put to witnesses
  • accused cannot give evidence
  • if state proves case then will have to change plea
55
Q

what certificate must an estate agent have

A

valid fidelity fund certificate issued to him in terms of section 29(a) of Act 112 of 1976 and who had fidelity insurance in terms of section 26(b) of Act 112 of 1976.

56
Q

what summons would you use in the magistrate’s court for: arrear rental and ensure that the assets, brought by the tenant onto the rental premises during the period of the lease agreement, will not be removed from the premises

A

summons + rent interdict

57
Q

what summons would you use to claim delictual damages from the defendant?

A

combined summons

58
Q

what summons would you use if your client holds an amount of cash to which three persons make adverse claims

A

interpleader summons

59
Q

what summons would you use where your client is owed money in terms of a liquid document and your client would like payment of the amount due before the defendant debtor is allowed to defend the action?

A

provisional sentence summons

60
Q

What are the requirements the court may consider to enable the court to grant voluntary surrender?

A

(i) The debtor’s estate is, in fact, insolvent (1).
(ii) The debtor owns realisable property of sufficient value to defray all costs of the sequestration which will, in terms of the Act, be payable out of the free residue of his estate (1).
(iii) Sequestration will be to the advantage of creditors (1).
(iv) All formalities as required in the Insolvency Act have been complied with (1).

61
Q

List the matters /instances where Rule 43 is available for a spouse in a matrimonial matter?

A
  1. Maintenance pendente lite.
  2. a contribution towards the costs of a pending matrimonial action
  3. interim care of any child
  4. interim contact with any child
62
Q

List any six essential matters which must appear from the minutes of a pre-trial conference by virtue of the provisions of Rule 37(6).

A

The date, place and duration of the conference and the names of the parties present
• The nature of prejudice and non-compliance if any (1)
• That every party claiming relief has requested such party’s opponent to make a settlement proposal and that such opponent has reacted thereto (1)
• Whether any issue has been referred by the parties for mediation, arbitration or decision by third party (1)
• Whether the case should be transferred to another court (1)
• Which issues should be decided separately (1)

63
Q

You are an attorney and receive instructions from a client to appear on his behalf in the Criminal Court. You establish that you have never appeared before the Magistrate. What do the rules of the profession and ethics require from you before the court proceedings commence?

A

You approach the prosecutor (1) and request him/her to accompany you to the Magistrate and to introduce you to him/her (1)

64
Q

Your client is out on bail but cannot attend crim court as he is hospitalized - what must you do to protect the interests of your client?

A

Obtain a letter from the doctor/hospital where the client is being treated which can confirm it. / convey to the court that your instructions are that the client is in hospital and you will make letter available at next court appearance.

Show the letter to the prosecutor. (1)

Request the Magistrate to receive the letter. (1)

Request the Court to issue a warrant but the execution to be held over until a future date.

Postpone the case to a next date.

65
Q

Name the five (5) grounds that have to be considered by the Magistrate to determine whether it is in the interest of justice to grant bail to an accused or to refuse bail.

A

The likelihood that the accused will try to evade his trial.

The likelihood that the accused will try to influence and/or intimidate the potential state witnesses or conceal/destroy evidence.

The likelihood that the accused will undermine or jeopardise the objectives of the proper functioning of the criminal justice system, including the bail system.

The likelihood that the accused will endanger the safety of the public and/or any particular person or will commit a schedule 1 offence. (1)

The likelihood that in exceptional circumstances, the release of the accused will disturb the public order or undermine public peace or security.

66
Q

In a civil trial in the Magistrate’s court, your client must prove the value of certain household items. You intend calling a sworn appraiser as an expert to prove the value of the items. List five aspects of testimony you would
present to the court by the evidence of the appraiser to establish the value of the items.

A

The expert witness must testify on:

a) his occupation
(b) his expertise (experience
(c) he inspected the items
(d) his opinion of the value