Pages: 79-87 (General Diagnosis) Flashcards

1
Q

HLA-B27 will have high values in all of the following except:

a. AS
b. multiple sclerosis
c. psoriasis
d. malaria

A

d. malaria

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2
Q

All of the following causes a fixed specific gravity or urine except:

a. pyelonephritis
b. GMN
c. SLE
d. RA

A

d. RA

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3
Q

Which is a normal level of urinary output in a 24 hour interval?

a. 500 ml
b. 1200-1600 ml
c. 3000 ml
d. 200-800 ml

A

b. 1200-1600 ml

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4
Q

Black or brown urine is not associated with _____?

a. malaria
b. black water fever
c. cholestasis
d. psoriasis

A

d. psoriasis

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5
Q

Which is usually not associated with proteinuria?

a. multiple myeloma
b. toxemia or pregnancy
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. trigeminal neuralgia

A

d. trigeminal neuralgia

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6
Q

The renal pelvis lining is composed of _____?

a. caudate epithelial cells
b. stratified squamous epithelial cells
c. transitional epithelial cells
d. none of the above

A

c. transitional epithelial cells

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7
Q

RA latex of greater than _____ will indicate rheumatoid arthritis.

a. 1:20
b. 1:80
c. 1:10
d. 1:3

A

b. 1:80

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8
Q

Bence-Jones protein is associated with _____?

a. RA
b. SLE
c. GMN
d. multiple myeloma

A

d. multiple myeloma

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9
Q

Cooked white eggs shape at 55 degrees Celsius is found in a urinalysis of Bence-Jones protein. This is one step that tests for the condition of _____?

a. RA
b. SLE
c. multiple myeloma
d. benign proteinuria

A

c. multiple myeloma

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10
Q

WBC count of _____ mm3 is considered normal.

a. 5,000 to 10,000
b. 1,000 to 2,000
c. 10, 000 to 20,000
d. 3,000 to 3,300

A

a. 5,000 to 10,000

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11
Q

High ESR is found in all of the following except:

a. sickle-cell anemia
b. TB
c. RA
d. inflammation

A

a. sickle-cell anemia

- also polycythemia is decreased ESR

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12
Q

All of the following will usually display a percussive note of dull over the affected area except:

a. atelectasis
b. pneumonia
c. empyema
d. closed pneumothorax

A

d. closed pneumothorax

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13
Q

All of the following have high erythrocyte sedimentation rates except:

a. RA
b. DJD
c. gouty arthritis
d. viral infection

A

b. DJD

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14
Q

WBC count is high in which condition?

a. influenza
b. typhoid fever
c. rubella
d. inflammation

A

d. inflammation

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15
Q

Consumption of alcohol is associated with which type of headache?

a. Cluster
b. Tension
c. Tumor
d. Trigeminal neuralgia

A

a. Cluster

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16
Q

Polycythemia vera does not result from which of the following?

a. increase in hematocrit levels above 55%
b. increase in total RBC mass
c. cause from being in extreme altitudes
d. from iron deficiency anemia

A

d. from iron deficiency anemia

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17
Q

WBC count is usually low in all of the following except:

a. rubella
b. mononucleosis
c. typhoid fever
d. leukemia

A

d. leukemia

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18
Q

Iron deficiency anemia has low values in all of the following except:

a. RBC’s
b. hematocrit
c. hemoglobin
d. WBC’s

A

d. WBC’s

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19
Q

Alpha-fetoprotein found in an adult male may indicate _____?

a. spina bifida
b. malaria
c. DJD
d. multiple myeloma

A

a. spina bifida

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20
Q

Normal total serum bilirubin levels are _____?

a. 1.3 mg/dl
b. 6.0 mg/dl
c. 7.0 mg/dl
d. 0.3 mg/dl

A

a. 1.3 mg/dl

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21
Q

Which is not a sign or symptom of malaria?

a. chills
b. splenomegaly
c. fever
d. increased appetite

A

d. increased appetite

22
Q

Which is an abnormal amount of total serum bilirubin in neonates?

a. 1.0 mg/dl
b. 7.0 mg/dl
c. 1.3 mg/dl
d. 20 mg/dl

A

d. 20 mg/dl

23
Q

Which is not true of hepatitis A?

a. causes disruption of bile flow
b. causes clay colored stools
c. is called infectious hepatitis
d. has an insidious onset

A

d. has an insidious onset

24
Q

Which type of hepatitis is spread through needles?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. both b and c

A

d. both b and c

25
Q

Which type of malaria is least common?

a. P.ovale
b. P.malariae
c. P.falciparum
d. P.vivax

A

a. P.ovale

26
Q

The most serious type of malaria is _____?

a. P.ovale
b. P.malariae
c. P.falciparum
d. P.vivax

A

c. P.falciparum

27
Q

Which of the following have a quartan type of temperature spike?

a. P.ovale
b. P.malariae
c. P.falciparum
d. P.vivax

A

b. P.malariae

28
Q

Bilirubin test is used to evaluate how the _____ is functioning.

a. stomach
b. liver
c. kidney
d. heart

A

b. liver

29
Q

High levels of direct bilirubin is associated with _____?

a. tumors
b. worms
c. cholestasis
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

30
Q

High SGOT levels are found in _____?

a. MI
b. viral hepatitis
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

31
Q

The most common type of headache is a _____?

a. tension headache
b. classic migraine
c. cluster headache
d. common migraine

A

a. tension headache

32
Q

Cluster headaches are associated with _____?

a. peau d’orange skin
b. T.I.A.
c. men in their late twenties
d. women mostly

A

c. men in their late twenties

33
Q

Ptosis of the eyelid is due to injury of cranial nerve _____ and Bell’s Palsy is a disorder of cranial nerve _____?

a. 3, 7
b. 6, 7
c. 2, 5
d. 3, 5

A

a. 3, 7

34
Q

An interruption of bile excretion is most closely defined as: _____?

a. cholelithiasis
b. cholestasis
c. amophorous sediment
d. hepatitis

A

b. cholestasis

35
Q

Which is not associated with having the HLA-B27 antigen?

a. psoriasis
b. pancreatitis
c. AS
d. Chron’s disease

A

b. pancreatitis

36
Q

Which is a normal range of pronate specific antigen (PSA)?

a. 0-4 ug/L
b. 25-30 ug/L
c. 12.1-25 ug/L
d. 37-45 ug/L

A

a. 0-4 ug/L

37
Q

Which is not a normal value of specific gravity?

a. 1.010
b. 1.003
c. 1.30
d. 1.030

A

c. 1.30

38
Q

All of the following will be seen with high specific gravity except:

a. decreased fluid intake
b. diabetes mellitus
c. diabetes insipidus
d. fever

A

c. diabetes insipidus

39
Q

A 39-year-old male with hyponatremia, corticosteroid deficiency, excessive levels of potassium in the blood, and chronic dehydration. The most likely diagnosis is?

a. myxedema
b. diabetes mellitus
c. Addison’s disease
d. Von Willebrand’s disease

A

c. Addison’s disease

40
Q

All of the following are causes of proteinuria except:

a. multiple myeloma
b. DJD
c. glomerulonephritis
d. nephrotic syndrome

A

b. DJD

41
Q

Nitrites are found in a routine urinalysis. What does this finding indicate?

a. pyuria
b. SLE
c. diabetes
d. alcohol intoxication

A

c. diabetes

42
Q

The pH of urine is not within normal limits with a value of _____?

a. 4
b. 5.6
c. 6.9
d. 7.6

A

a. 4

- Values between 4.5 and 8 are within normal limits.

43
Q

A 15-year-old male has a history of drug abuse. He presents with puffy eyelids and nausea. Lab findings: proteinuria, decreased albumin in the blood, decreased sodium in urine. The most likely diagnosis is?

a. multiple myeloma
b. drug withdrawal
c. nephrotic syndrome
d. bile duct tumor

A

c. nephrotic syndrome

44
Q

An elevated level of _____ is most closely related to testicular cancer.

a. creatinine
b. estrogen
c. lipase
d. alpha-feto protein

A

d. alpha-feto protein

45
Q

A highly common cause of cirrhosis is?

a. Alpha-antitrypsin deficiency
b. Wilson’s disease
c. Alcohol abuse
d. Vitamin C deficiency

A

c. Alcohol abuse

46
Q

A 53-year-old female complains of stiff swollen wrist bilateral ad occasional fevers. Hyper pigmentation is present in her thighs. Lab findings: decreased white blood cells, +ANA. The most likely diagnosis is?

a. scleroderma
b. SLE
c. Felty’s syndrome
d. AS

A

c. Felty’s syndrome

47
Q

High levels of lipase in the blood are usually not observed in?

a. pancreatitis
b. cirrhosis
c. ankylosing spondylitis
d. cancer of pancreas

A

c. ankylosing spondylitis

48
Q

LE Prep show high values in all of the following conditions except:

a. Scleroderma
b. Hepatitis
c. Lupus erythematosis
d. Ectopic pregnancy

A

d. Ectopic pregnancy

49
Q

Spider angioma is a vascular skin condition that can be caused by which of the following?

a. syphilis
b. vitamin B deficiency
c. vitiligo
d. psoriasis

A

b. vitamin B deficiency

50
Q

Prominent eyes and lid retraction are most commonly found in which condition?

a. myxedema
b. acromegaly
c. hyperthyroidism
d. microcephaly

A

c. hyperthyroidism

51
Q

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom associated with Horner’s syndrome?

a. ptosis
b. ipsilateral miosis
c. mediastinal tumor
d. cataract

A

d. cataract

52
Q

Which of the following is not part of the Tetralogy of Fallot that is common in infants?

a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. pulmonary artery stenosis
c. ventricular septal defect
d. aorta is dextroposed

A

a. left ventricular hypertrophy