Pages 1-16 Flashcards

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1
Q

4 types of Criminal punishment

A

i) Death
ii) Imprisonment
iii) Fine
iv) Creative alternative punishments

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2
Q

General deterrence

A

basis for the justification of criminal punishment, general deterrence is the belief that by punishing people criminally for a particular activity, other people will be deterred from engaging in that activity in the future

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3
Q

Specific deterrence

A

specific deterrence is the belief that by punishing a particular person criminally, he or she will be deterred from committing that crime in the future.

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4
Q

What are the types of specific deterrence?

A

(1) Retribution: Punishment imposed on the basis of what is justly deserved; it is imposed to restore the equilibrium of the common good that was disturbed by the offender’s unjust exercise of liberty; the belief that we should punish a convicted criminal severely in order to give him just what he deserves for his conduct and/or simply as a matter of righteous vengeance.
(2) Rehabilitation: The process of seeking to improve a criminal’s character and outlook so that he can function in society without committing other crimes; it concerns expiation, restoration, and reformation; the belief that a person convicted of a crime can be “cured” while incarcerated.
(3) Incapacitation: Punishment that physically prevents a criminal from acting upon his destructive tendencies and committing other crimes; the simple recognition that putting someone in prison will keep that person from doing any further harm.
(4) Denunciation: Those who disobey criminal laws should be held up to the rest of society and denounced as violators of the rules that define what society represents; those who disobey criminal laws should be held up to the rest of society and denounced as violators of the rules that define what the society represents.

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5
Q

UTILITARIAN

A

Essentially a cost/benefit calculation; theory of punishment justifies inflicting punishment because a greater good will be served in the long run

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6
Q

Utilitarian Rationales

A

(a) People react to actual and anticipated pleasure and pain
(b) Punishment, because it inflicts pain, is an evil
(c) Therefore, punishment is justified only if it avoids or excludes some greater evil

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7
Q

Retributive

A

focuses on the moral culpability of the actor. Punishment is inflicted because it is deserved – focuses on the value of the person and the person’s place in society

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8
Q

Retributive rationales

A

(a) systematic moral response to wrongdoing – if the criminal deserves punishment, it should be inflicted
(b) Guilt is a necessary and a sufficient reason to punish
(c) requires guilt as a prerequisite for punishment (punishment of the innocent cannot be justified on the basis of a “greater good”)
(d) requires that punishment be proportional

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9
Q

What is disproportionate punishment

A

disproportionate punishment can constitute cruel and unusual punishment in violation of the Eighth Amendment

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10
Q

Positive law

A

A system of law promulgated and implemented within a particular political community by political superiors

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11
Q

Common law

A

body of law derived from judicial decisions, rather than from statutes or constitutions

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12
Q

Natural law

A

first and essential precepts which govern moral life; belongs properly to human nature because reason decrees it so; placed in us by God – written on the heart

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13
Q

6 principles

A

i) Principle of legality: A person may not be prosecuted under a criminal law that has not been previously published; courts should not create crimes
ii) Doctrine of void-for- vagueness: Forbids wholesale legislative delegation of lawmaking authority to the courts
(1) A criminal statute is void-for- vagueness if it fails to define criminal offense with sufficient definiteness that ordinary people can understand what conduct is prohibited (i.e., provides fair notice), or it fails to establish guidelines to prevent arbitrary and discriminatory enforcement
iii) Doctrine of overbreadth: If a statute is so broadly written that it deters free expression, then it can be struck down on its face because of its chilling effect, even if it also prohibits acts that may legitimately be forbidden
iv) Rule of constructive notice: Notice is presumed by law to have been acquired by a person and thus imputed to that person
v) Doctrine of strict construction: Judges should interpret a criminal statute according to its literal terms, without looking to other sources to ascertain the meaning
vi) Rule of lenity: Directs that judicial resolution of residual uncertainty or ambiguity in the meaning of a criminal statute be resolved in favor of the defendant (tie goes to ∆)

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14
Q

Actus Reus

A

1) The wrongful deed (the act or omission) that comprises the physical components of a crime
i) It generally must be coupled with mens rea to establish criminal liability
ii) Harmful conduct, a harmful result, or both

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15
Q

Attendant circumstance

A

A condition that must be present, in conjunction with the prohibited conduct or result, in order to constitute the crime

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16
Q

Social harm

A

harm that justifies punishment imposed under the criminal law

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17
Q

Result crime

A

Conduct that is proscribed because of the socially harmful outcome

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18
Q

Conduct crime

A

Conduct that is proscribed because of the socially harmful behavior

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19
Q

Voluntary Act under Common Law and Under MPC

A

Common law: It is something that is done or performed; a deed

MPC: “[A] bodily movement whether voluntary or involuntary”

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20
Q

Why is an act required – versus just punishing thoughts?

A

i) Thoughts difficult to ascertain
ii) Thoughts can’t be socially stigmatizing
iii) Sanctions can deter acts – not thoughts
iv) To punish thoughts – intrusion on privacy and personal autonomy

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21
Q

VOLUNTARY ACT – Common Law - conditions

A

i) It is any act that is done by design or intention; implies:
(1) willed or volitional behavior by the actor;
(2) is more than just self-generated physical movement;
(3) involves the use of the actor’s mind, and not just the actor’s brain (i.e. elec impulses)

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22
Q

VOLUNTARY ACT – MPC: voluntary-act rule - conditions

A

i) Similar to C/L – no express definition given
(1) Excludes punishment for mere thoughts and bars liability for purely involuntary conduct
(2) a person is not guilty of an offense unless his conduct “includes a voluntary act or the omission to perform an act of which he is physically capable”
(3) consistent with retributive justification – punishment based on free will, no blame for absence of choice

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23
Q

INVOLUNTARY ACT – is still an act!!!!

A

i) Lack of culpability for the movement
ii) Lack of volition for the movement (i.e. ∆ did not volitionally appear in public)
iii) Suggests a lack of consciousness of the act (movement)
 (i.e. lips moving while snoring – the actor’s brain is causing the movement, but no engaging of the mind to volitionally choice to move them due to being asleep)
iv) “Involuntary” is sometimes used in a broad sense, to mean that the actor is not blameworthy
 Ex. a person who commits an act under duress is still willed or volitional in the narrow sense but may not be blameworthy
v) Automatism – lack of voluntary act (think drunk Vietnam vet who kills son)
vi) Time-framing – can be used to show liability even for involuntary acts
 Ex. epileptic who knows of disorder and still drives a car; “act” is decision to drive

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24
Q

Omissions / “Negative” Act

A

1) Generally crim law does not prosecute omissions b/c:
i) Ambiguous – hard to determine motive
ii) Avoids line drawing problems
iii) Intervention can often make matters worse
iv) Failing to act merely withholds a benefit, it does not affirmatively harm

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25
Q

There is criminal liability for failing to act when

A

i) a statutory duty to another – tort duty
ii) a status relationship to another – e.g. family
iii) a contractual duty to care for another
iv) a voluntarily assumption of care of another that so secluded the helpless person as to prevent others from rendering aid
v) creating a risk of harm to another

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26
Q

Omission crimes – in the US, typically recognize:

A

i) ‘Misprision’ of felony: knowledge of a crime by another; active concealment from law
ii) Aiding and abetting: knowledge; affirmative assistance, encouragement or advice

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27
Q

Social Harm (again). Two types of offenses

A

i) Result crimes: law punishes an unwanted outcome (e.g., death in a criminal homicide)
ii) Conduct crimes: law punishes specific dangerous behavior (e.g., DUI)
 Remember, both the conduct and the result may be punished by a single crime (e.g., homicide by using an automatic weapon)

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28
Q

Social harm and RESULT CRIMES

A

i) Punishes the harm caused by the act or omission
ii) Immediate victim is harmed
iii) Society is also harmed by result crimes (e.g., loss of a sense of security)
iv) Recall that the criminal law is not intended simply to redress private harm

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29
Q

Social harm and CONDUCT CRIMES

A

i) In a narrow sense, conduct crimes may not cause social harm
 E.g., DUI where no one is killed or injured (arguably there’s no immediate victim or tangible harm)
ii) Conduct crimes are punished to deter and avoid the harmful result crimes that might otherwise occur
iii) In a broader sense, they always cause social harm
 E.g., DUI where no one is killed or injured (arguably the tangible harm includes increased insurance rates and discretionary spending on traffic enforcement)
 Common good (quality of life) also harmed

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30
Q

Mens Rea

A

The state of mind that the prosecution must prove a defendant had when doing the wrongful deed in order to secure a conviction

i) Broad (culpable) sense: means “guilty mind” or a “morally culpable state of mind,” without specifying a specific type of mental culpability. Thus, an actor is guilty if he performs the actus reus of an offense with any morally blameworthy state of mind.
ii) Narrow (elemental) sense: Mens rea is the specific mental state required by the definition of the offense

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31
Q

Why do we require mens rea?

A

i) Utilitarian view – conduct done without awareness of factors making it criminal does not merit need to punish in order to deter
ii) Retributive view: unjust to punish one who is not morally blameworthy – cause unjust socially stigmatization
iii) Natural law view: no justification in punishing unless actor use free will or choice

32
Q

Specific intent

A

intent to accomplish the precise criminal act with which one is charged; to act with conscious objective or purpose of accomplishing a result or engaging in conduct

33
Q

Knowledge

A

conscious awareness that a given result is practically certain to be caused by one’s conduct

34
Q

COMMON LAW – Mens Rea for specific intent

A

(a) Specific intent
(b) Knowledge
(c) Willfulness
(d) Purposefully

35
Q

General Intent

A

morally blameworthy state of mind usually taking a form of

(a) Recklessness – actual awareness of risk and culpable taking of that risk
(b) Negligence – blameworthy inadvertence (unconscious risk taking)
(c) Wickedness – C/L approach: any morally blameworthy state of mind

36
Q

Presumption

A

A legal assumption that a fact exists, based on the known or proven existence of some other fact or group of facts; a presumption normally shifts the burden of production or persuasion to the opposing party

37
Q

Transferred Intent

A

Intent that has been shifted from the originally intended wrongful act to the wrongful act actually committed

38
Q

MPC & Mens Rea

A

1) Applies a narrow/elemental approach to mens rea
 The prosecution must prove the actor possessed a particular state of mind when the actor committed each material element of the crime as expressed in the statute

39
Q

Mens rea MPC; Recognizes and applies four distinct types of criminal mens rea:

A

“purposely,” “knowingly,” “recklessly,” and “negligently”

40
Q

MPC mens rea purposefully

A

(a) Actor has as a conscious object to engage in conduct of that nature or to cause such a result; and
(b) aware of the existence of attendant circumstances or believes or hopes they exist

41
Q

MPC mens rea Knowingly

A

(a) Aware of the actus reus conduct or that attendant circumstances exist; and
(b) aware that is practically certain that conduct will cause the actus reus result

42
Q

MPC mens rea recklessly

A

consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk

(a) conduct and the circumstances involves a gross deviation from the standard of conduct that a RPP would observe in the actor’s situation
(b) Advertent disregard of risk

43
Q

MPC mens rea negligently

A

should be aware of a substantial and unjustifiable risk

(a) Failure to perceive risk is gross deviation
(b) Unreasonable but inadvertent disregard of risk

44
Q

to determine mens rea under MPC; 3 step process

A

(1) Read the applicable criminal statute
(2) Determine whether the relevant element – i.e., the element pertaining to the mens rea at issue – concerns a result actus reus, a conduct actus reus, or attendant circumstance
(3) Apply the definitions of the four criminal mens rea to the result actus reus at issue
4) When no mens rea is specified – does NOT mean strict liability
 each element must be committed either purposefully, knowingly, or recklessly
1. Proof of negligence is insufficient when no mens rea stipulated

45
Q

Conditional intent

A

when a particular purpose (intent) is an element of an offense the element is established although such a purpose is conditional (e.g. will kill you if you do not give me your car), unless the condition negatives the harm or evil sought to be prevented

46
Q

D. Knowledge of Attendant Circumstances:

1) Common Law

A

person acts knowingly with regard to attendant circumstance when they are aware that those circumstances exist

47
Q

Knowledge of Attendant Circumstances: MPC

A

i) Actual knowledge the circumstances exist (e.g. actually knew underage dancer was 17)
ii) “willful blindness” / “deliberate ignorance”: When knowledge of the existence of a particular fact – e.g. an attendant circumstance – is an element of an offense, such knowledge is established if a person is aware of a high probability of its existence, unless he actually believes that it does not exist.”

48
Q

 Why does MPC recognize a limited “willful blindness” or “deliberate ignorance” exception to the requirement for actual knowledge?

A
  1. Persons who are willfully blind are as culpable as those who have actual knowledge
  2. Persons who deliberately avoid acquiring guilty knowledge can be held culpable as if they had such knowledge
49
Q

3) Willfulness under Common Law

A

i) Usually the mens rea of a specific intent offense
ii) It generally requires the actor intentionally perform the prohibited act in bad faith, with either a wrongful motive or in violation of a known legal duty
 If “willful” means D acted with a “wrongful motive,” then the offense is a specific intent crime because it requires proof of a particular motive
 If “willful” means D violated a “known legal duty,” then the offense is a specific intent crime because it requires knowledge of an attendant circumstance (the legal duty)

50
Q

Wilful under MPC

A

i) Satisfied by proving the mens rea of Knowingly

51
Q

E. Problems in Statutory Interpretation

A

1) Rule 1: mens rea term at beginning modifies all of the verbs or verb phrases in the statute.
2) Rule 2: exception to this general rule is recognized when an actus reus term is an attendant circumstance, in which case the court is less likely to find that the mens rea term modifies it
3) Rule 3: another exception, when phrases are set off from the rest of the statute by punctuation marks

52
Q

5) MPC – if mens rea term given

A

i) Rule – such provision shall apply to all the material elements of the offense,
(1) Exception – unless a contrary purpose plainly appears applies to all terms, unless contrary purpose plainly appears

53
Q

1) Strict liability crime defined

A

: “A crime that does not require a MENS REA element, such as speeding or attempting to carry a weapon aboard an aircraft.” – BLACK’S LAW DICTIONARY

54
Q

Strict Liability crimes

A

2) Strict liability crimes are EXCEPTIONS to the rule that criminal offenses require a culpable mens rea with respect to all the actus reus [conduct / result] elements of the offense
 Thus the absence of mens rea needs legislative intent to prove that strict liability was meant to be applied to that element

55
Q

4) MPC GENERAL RULE

A

unless otherwise prescribed, the prosecution must prove at least RECKLESSNESS with respect to all material elements for which a mens rea is not specified, provided the conduct at issue is not a mere violation (§§1.04(5) & 2.5)

i) The presumption of MPC is that mens rea is included
ii) Exception: §§213.3 & 213.6 expressly make statutory rape a strict liability crime with respect to the age of the female, if the female is less than 10 years old.

56
Q

Mistake of Fact; Mens Rea - Common law

A

General Intent; Recklessness, negligence, wickedness - BOTH honest and reasonable
Specific Intent; knowingly, willfully, purposefully - mistake must be Honest

57
Q

Mistake of Fact; mens rea - MPC

A

four distinct mens rea – purposely, knowingly, recklessly, and negligently

58
Q

MPC uses the elemental approach to resolve all mistake of fact issues:

A

determine the mens rea for the element at issue, and
(2) then determine if the mistake of fact negates that particular mens rea
Purposely, Knowingly = Honest Mistake negates
Negligently = Honest and Reasonable negates
Reckless = was he aware of risk or not?

59
Q

4) “Moral wrong” doctrine

A

An actor will not be excused for a mistake (even if it is reasonable and honest) where, his conduct would still be immoral
ii) Rationale: An actor can make a reasonable and honest mistake regarding an attendant circumstance, and yet he may nonetheless manifest a bad character or otherwise demonstrate he deserves punishment

60
Q

iii) What are the bases for criticizing the “moral wrong” doctrine?

A

(1) The doctrine assumes there exists agreement about matters of morality in our heterogeneous society
(2) The doctrine can raise serious proportionality questions (i.e. extended prison time when engaging in legal act but immoral – pre-marital sex – with person who turns out to be under age?)

61
Q

5) “Legal wrong” doctrine

A

i) Actor is not excused for a mistake (even if reasonable and honest) if his conduct would still be illegal
ii) Note that similar concerns about proportionality, raised with respect to the “moral wrong” doctrine, can apply to the “legal wrong” doctrine

62
Q

5) “Legal wrong” doctrine

A

i) Actor is not excused for a mistake (even if reasonable and honest) if his conduct would still be illegal
ii) Note that similar concerns about proportionality, raised with respect to the “moral wrong” doctrine, can apply to the “legal wrong” doctrine

63
Q

mistake of law and mens rea - at common law

A

ignorance of the law is no excuse

 Law is definite and excuses could be given in bad faith to escape punishment

64
Q

mistake of law and mens rea - MPC

A

Neither knowledge, recklessness, or even negligence as to the existence, meaning, or application of the law is an element of an offense “unless the definition of the offense or the Code provides”
 Thus MPC starts like C/L – ignorance is no excuse
ii) Step 2: Exceptions to the rule –
(a) When the offense contains an element requiring knowledge, recklessness, or negligence as to the law
(b) Reliance on an official statement of law which is later determined to be invalid or erroneous; It does not permit a defense based on a personal misunderstanding of the law

65
Q

1) Common law ACTUAL CAUSATION

A

cause without which the event could not have occurred; the “but for” test;

66
Q

Actual Causation MPC

A

): “Conduct is the cause of a result when:

(a) it is an antecedent “BUT FOR” which the result in question would not have occurred; and
(b) the relationship between the conduct and result satisfies any additional causal requirements imposed by the Code or by the law defining the offense.”

67
Q

B. PROXIMATE CAUSE

A

the cause which is legally sufficient to result in liability; directly produces the event and without which the event would not have occurred

68
Q

i) Intervening Cause

A

event which comes between the initial event in a sequence and the end result and thereby alters the natural course of events that might have connected a wrongful act to an injury

69
Q

2) SUBSTANTIAL FACTOR TEST

A

cause is a substantial factor if it is one of two or more independent causes that – if occurring alone – would have been sufficient to cause the event to occur

70
Q

4) Acceleration/Aggravation Theory

A

one person’s acts can cause the acceleration of another’s death caused by injury initially inflicted by another

71
Q

i) TWO TYPES OF INTERVENING CAUSES:

A

(1) Coincidental intervening cause
(a) D’s act merely put V at a certain place at a certain time, and because V was so located it was possible for V to be acted upon by the intervening cause
 Rule: Coincidence will break the causal chain only if it is UNFORESEEABLE
(2) Responsive intervening cause
(a) Intervening cause reacted to conditions created by D
 Rule: For response to break the causal chain it must be more than merely unforeseeable, but it must also be HIGHLY ABNORMAL OR BIZARRE

72
Q

6) “OMISSIONS” doctrine

A

An omission can never function as a superseding intervening cause, so as to relieve an earlier wrongdoer of criminal responsibility

73
Q

7) “INTENDED CONSEQUENCES” doctrine

A

Any intended consequence of an act is considered to be a “proximate”
i) If an intentional wrongdoer accomplishes the result he desires in the “manner” desired, he will not escape criminal responsibility even if the result is not achieved precisely in the way the wrongdoer intended

74
Q

8) “APPARENT SAFETY” DOCTRINE

A

When a person reaches a position of apparent safety, the original wrongdoer is no longer responsible for the ensuing harm

75
Q

FREE, DELIBERATE AND INFORMED HUMAN INTERVENTION” doctrine

A

A person is not held criminally responsible for resulting harm if there is an intervening cause that springs from free, deliberate and informed human action (Note 9, page 220)
 Rationale: The concept of free will is so important that, when a human intervenor freely chooses to act, any blame that is attached to the result of that act is shifted from the earlier wrongdoer to the human intervenor

76
Q

10) MPC and Proximate Cause

A

i) But-for causation is the only strictly causal requirement; the remaining issue is the proper scope of liability based on the actor’s culpability
ii) Liability requires mens rea (one of the four) with respect to the result actus reus element
iii) Bottom line: like the common law, the issue under the MPC is one of relative remoteness (is the actual result too remote or accidental in occurrence)

77
Q

Proximate Cause and MPC

A

iv) Purpose / Knowledge: when these are required, if the actual result is not within the actor’s purpose of contemplation, the culpability requirement is not satisfied. Exceptions
(1) If the actual result differs from the result designed or contemplated only as to the specific person injured or property affected, or is less severe than that designed or intended, the actor remains culpable
(2) If the actual result is the same kind of injury or harm designed or intended, but the precise injury or harm differs or is inflicted in a different way, the actor remains culpable provided the actual harm is not too remote or accidental
v) Recklessness / Negligence: when required, if the actual result is not (in the case of recklessness) within the risk of which the actor was aware or (in the case of negligence) of which he should have been aware, the culpability requirement is not satisfied. Same exceptions above apply