paeds Flashcards

1
Q

what is MODY?

A

Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

characterised by the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus in patients < 25 years old

autosomal dominant

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2
Q

what sort of diet show someone with CF be on?

A

high calorie and high fat woth pancreatic enzyme supplmentation for every meal

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3
Q

what is a poor diagnosis of congential diagmphragmic hernia? (CDH)

A

if the liver has herniated into the chest

lung to head ratio, a ration>1 is good

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4
Q

is that a chance that CHD can reoccur?

A

yes

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5
Q

which side of the chest is CHD more common on?

A

left

85% of cases occur on the left, 13% on the right and 2% bilaterally.

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6
Q

what are the risk factors of CHD?

A

ulmonary hypertension, rather than systemic hypertension, is a risk of CDH.

There is increased risk where there is a positive family history in a sibling.

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7
Q

what can CHD cause?

A

pulmonary hypoplasia and hypertension which causes respiratory distress shortly after birth.

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8
Q

what is the survuval rate of CHD?

A

Only around 50% of newborns with CDH survive despite modern medical intervention.

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9
Q

Transient synovitis

A

Acute onset
Usually accompanies viral infections, but the child is well or has a mild fever
More common in boys, aged 2-12 years

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10
Q

Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis

A

Unwell child, high fever

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11
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

Limp may be painless

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12
Q

Development dysplasia of the hip (DDH)

A

a discrepancy between the skin creases behind the right and left hips

risk factors:
female sex: 6 times greater risk
breech presentation
positive family history
firstborn children
oligohydramnios
birth weight > 5 kg
congenital calcaneovalgus foot deformity
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13
Q

Perthes disease

A

More common at 4-8 years

Due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head

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14
Q

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

10-15 years - Displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly.

Knee pain

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15
Q

what is epistaxis?

A

acute hemorrhage from the nostril, nasal cavity, or nasopharynx

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16
Q

what are the causes of epistaxis?

A

nose picking (most common cause)
foreign body
upper respiratory tract infection
allergic rhinitis

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17
Q

is epistaxis common in under 2s?

A

it is recommend referring children under the age of 2 years as epistaxis is rare in this age group and may be secondary to trauma or bleeding disorders.

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18
Q

what is Kawasaki disease?

A

a type of vasculitis which is predominately seen in children

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19
Q

features of Kawasaki disease?

A

high-grade fever which lasts for > 5 days. Fever is characteristically resistant to antipyretics
conjunctival injection
bright red, cracked lips
strawberry tongue
cervical lymphadenopathy
red palms of the hands and the soles of the feet which later peel

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20
Q

what is ther management of Kawasaki disease?

A

high-dose aspirin*
intravenous immunoglobulin
echocardiogram (no radiation) (rather than angiography) is used as the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms

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21
Q

what is a cause of neonatal hypotonia?

A

Prader-Willi

neonatal sepsis

spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman disease)

hypothyroidism

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22
Q

age of child from newborn to a toddler

A
newborn=till one day
1-7 days = early neonate
7-28 days late neonate
28 days-1year = infant
1-3 yar = toddler
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23
Q

what is haemophilia A?

A

X-linked recessive so only affects the male

need two ‘affected’ x chromosomes to get it.

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24
Q

nots on x linked recessive

A

In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected.

An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome.

X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.

Each male child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being affected whilst each female child of a heterozygous female carrier has a 50% chance of being a carrier.

The possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally speaking extremely rare. However, in certain Afro-Caribbean communities G6PD deficiency is relatively common and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are seen.

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25
Q

features of intussusception?

A

paroxysmal abdominal colic pain

during paroxysm the infant will characteristically draw their knees up and turn pale

vomiting

bloodstained stool - 'red-currant jelly' - is a late sign

sausage-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant

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26
Q

treatment of intussuception?

A

the majority of children can be treated with reduction by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema

if this fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed

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27
Q

asthema management in childern over than 5?

A

SABA–>ICS–>LTRA–>LABA

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28
Q

what is MART?

A

form of combined ICS and LABA treatment in which a single inhaler, containing both ICS and a fast-acting LABA, is used for both daily maintenance therapy and the relief of symptoms as required

MART is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component (for example, formoterol)

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29
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in the newborn period. It is caused by delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs. No cynosis

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30
Q

what us the cause of transietn tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

common following Caesarean sections, possibly due to the lung fluid not being ‘squeezed out’ during the passage through the birth canal

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31
Q

investigation and managemnet og TTN?

A

Chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure

Supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturations. Transient tachypnoea of the newborn usually settles within 1-2 days

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32
Q

are childron with Down’s prone to snorking?

A

yes, sleep apnoea

This is due to the low muscle tone in the upper airways and large tongue/adenoids. There is also an increased risk of obesity which in people with Down’s syndrome which is another predisposing factor to snoring.

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33
Q

causes of snoring in children?

A
obesity
nasal problems: polyps, deviated septum, hypertrophic nasal turbinates
recurrent tonsillitis
Down's syndrome
hypothyroidism
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34
Q

what is Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

when the posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve are displaced anteriorly towards the apex of the right ventricle

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35
Q

what murmurs are heard in Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

tricuspid regurgitation (pan-systolic murmur) and tricuspid stenosis (mid-diastolic murmur).

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36
Q

does Ebstein’s anomaly cause right atrium enlargement?

A

yes

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37
Q

what causes Ebstein’s anomaly?

A

lithium use in pregnancy

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38
Q

what is Hischprung’s dosease?

A

a congenital abnormality causing the absence of ganglionic cells in the mycenteric and submucosal plexuses.

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39
Q

what are the symptons of Hirschprung’s?

A

delayed passage of meconium (> 2 days after birth), abdominal distension and bilious vomiting.

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40
Q

treatment of hirschprung’s?

A

daily rectal washouts

anorectal pull-through

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41
Q

what is the definitive investigation of Hirschprung’s?

A

rectal biopsy

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42
Q

Malrotation

A

High caecum at the midline
Feature in exomphalos, congenital diaphragmatic hernia, intrinsic duodenal atresia
May be complicated by the development of volvulus, an infant with volvulus may have bile stained vomiting
Diagnosis is made by upper GI contrast study and USS
Treatment is by laparotomy, if volvulus is present (or at high risk of occurring then a Ladd’s procedure is performed

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43
Q

Intussusception

A

Telescoping bowel
Proximal to or at the level of, ileocaecal valve
6-9 months of age
Colicky pain, diarrhoea and vomiting, sausage-shaped mass, red jelly stool.
Treatment: reduction with air insufflation

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44
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

M>F
5-10% Family history in parents
Projectile non bile stained vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life
Diagnosis is made by test feed or USS
Treatment: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy (open or laparoscopic)

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45
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Absence of ganglion cells from myenteric and submucosal plexuses
Occurs in 1/5000 births
Full-thickness rectal biopsy for diagnosis
Delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension
Treatment is with rectal washouts initially, after that an anorectal pull through procedure

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46
Q

Oesophageal atresia

A

Associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios
May present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration
VACTERL associations

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47
Q

Meconium ileus

A

Usually delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension
The majority have cystic fibrosis
X-Rays will not show a fluid level as the meconium is viscid, PR contrast studies may dislodge meconium plugs and be therapeutic
Infants who do not respond to PR contrast and NG N-acetyl cysteine will require surgery to remove the plugs

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48
Q

Biliary atresia

A

Jaundice > 14 days
Increased conjugated bilirubin
Urgent Kasai procedure

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49
Q

Necrotising enterocolitis

A

Prematurity is the main risk factor
Early features include abdominal distension and passage of bloody stools
X-Rays may show pneumatosis intestinalis and evidence of free air
Increased risk when empirical antibiotics are given to infants beyond 5 days
Treatment is with total gut rest and TPN, babies with perforations will require laparotomy

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50
Q

what is the classic presentation of primary amenorrhoea?

A

androgen insensitivity

51
Q

what is androgen insensitivity?

A

This is a genetic disorder that makes XY fetuses insensitive (unresponsive) to androgens (male hormones). Instead, they are born looking externally like normal girls

52
Q

Would Non-Hodgkin’s lymphom give groin swelling?

A

yes

53
Q

Disorders of sex hormones?

A

Klinefelter’s syndrome

Klinefelter’s syndrome is associated with karyotype 47, XXY

Features
often taller than average
lack of secondary sexual characteristics
small, firm testes
infertile
gynaecomastia - increased incidence of breast cancer
elevated gonadotrophin levels

Diagnosis is by chromosomal analysis

Kallman’s syndrome

Kallman’s syndrome is a recognised cause of delayed puberty secondary to hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Kallman’s syndrome is thought to be caused by failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus.

The clue given in many questions is lack of smell (anosmia) in a boy with delayed puberty

Features
‘delayed puberty’
hypogonadism, cryptorchidism
anosmia
sex hormone levels are low
LH, FSH levels are inappropriately low/normal
patients are typically of normal or above average height

Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects are also seen in some patients

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition due to end-organ resistance to testosterone causing genotypically male children (46XY) to have a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome

Features
‘primary amenorrhoea’
undescended testes causing groin swellings
breast development may occur as a result of conversion of testosterone to oestradiol

Diagnosis
buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal 46XY genotype

Management
counselling - raise child as female
bilateral orchidectomy (increased risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes)
oestrogen therapy

54
Q

what is rotavirus vaccine?

A

an oral, live attenuated vaccine

2 doses for babies aged 8 and 12 weeks

55
Q

what is the rotavirue vaccine a risk of?

A

intussusception

56
Q

treatment of pneumonia in children?

A

Amoxicillin is first-line for all children with pneumonia
Macrolides (erythromycin) may be added if there is no response to first line therapy
Macrolides should be used if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected
In pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended

57
Q

cerebral palsy

A

defined as a disorder of movement and posture due to a non-progressive lesion of the motor pathways in the developing brain.

58
Q

causes of cerebral palsy?

A

antenatal (80%): e.g. cerebral malformation and congenital infection (rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV)
intrapartum (10%): birth asphyxia/trauma
postnatal (10%): intraventricular haemorrhage, meningitis, head-trauma

59
Q

features of cerebral palsy?

A

abnormal tone early infancy
delayed motor milestones
abnormal gait
feeding difficultie.

60
Q

other motor problems associated with cerebral palsy?

A

learning difficult
squint
epilepsy
hearing impariment

61
Q

management of cerebral palsy?

A

multidisciplinary apparoach

diazepam (oral) and intrathecal baclofen

62
Q

head lice

A

Diagnosis
fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair

Management
treatment is only indicated if living lice are found
a choice of treatments should be offered - malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate and cyclomethicone

School exclusion is not advised for children with head lice

63
Q

Roseloa infantum

A

Roseola infantum is caused by Herpes virus 6. It is characterised by a 3-5 day high fever followed by a 2 day maculopapular rash which starts on the chest and spreads to the limbs. This generally occurs as the fever is disappearing.

febrile convulsions occur in around 10-15%

64
Q

HHV6 infection

A

aseptic meningitis
hepatitis

Roseloa infantum

65
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

parallelogram shaped head
the incidence of plagiocephaly has increased over the past decade. This may be due to the success of the ‘Back to Sleep’ campaign

66
Q

Craniosynostosis

A

premature fusion of skull bones

67
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common malignancy affecting children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. The peak incidence is at around 2-5 years of age and boys are affected slightly more commonly than girls

Features may be divided into those predictable by bone marrow failure:

anaemia: lethargy and pallor
neutropaenia: frequent or severe infections
thrombocytopenia: easy bruising, petechiae

And other features
bone pain (secondary to bone marrow infiltration)
splenomegaly
hepatomegaly
fever is present in up to 50% of new cases (representing infection or constitutional symptom)
testicular swelling

68
Q

what is genetic anticipATION?

A

The signs and symptoms of some genetic conditions tend to become more severe and appear at an earlier age as the disorder is passed from one generation to the next.

69
Q

what disease have genetic anticipation?

A

Huntington’s and Myotonic dystrophy

Fragile X (CGG)
Huntington's (CAG)
myotonic dystrophy (CTG)

spinocerebellar ataxia
spinobulbar muscular atrophy
dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy

70
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition.

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition.

Homocystinuria is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

Trisomy 21 is due to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This can occur due to non-disjunction at meiosis, Robertsonian translocation or mosaicism.

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition.

Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition.

Homocystinuria is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

71
Q

croup

A

Epidemiology
peak incidence at 6 months - 3 years
more common in autumn
Parainfluenza viruses account for the majority of cases.

Features
stridor
barking cough (worse at night)
fever
coryzal symptoms

Management
CKS recommend giving a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15mg/kg) to all children regardless of severity
prednisolone is an alternative if dexamethasone is not available

Emergency treatment
high-flow oxygen
nebulised adrenaline

72
Q

Nocturnal enuresis

A

The majority of children achieve day and night time continence by 3 or 4 years of age. Enuresis may be defined as the ‘involuntary discharge of urine by day or night or both, in a child aged 5 years or older, in the absence of congenital or acquired defects of the nervous system or urinary tract’

Look for possible underlying causes/triggers (e.g. Constipation, diabetes mellitus, UTI if recent onset)

desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age 7 years, particularly if short-term control is needed or an enuresis alarm has been ineffective/is not acceptable to the family

73
Q

new born hearing test

A

Otoacoustic emission test

if abnormal then use Auditory Brainstem Response test

distraction test is carried out at 6-9 months

74
Q

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

classically seen in obese boys. It is also is known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Common in adolescence.

Features
hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain
loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion
bilateral slip in 20% of cases

Investigation
AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views are diagnostic

Management
internal fixation: typically a single cannulated screw placed in the center of the epiphysis

75
Q

Seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a relatively common skin disorder seen in children. It typically affects the scalp (‘Cradle cap’), nappy area, face and limb flexures.

Cradle cap is an early sign which may develop in the first few weeks of life. It is characterised by an erythematous rash with coarse yellow scales.

Management depends on severity
mild-moderate: baby shampoo and baby oils
severe: mild topical steroids e.g. 1% hydrocortisone

76
Q

CF , can cause pancreatic insufficiency

A

Cystic fibrosis (CF) can give rise to pancreatic insufficiency and consequently steatorrhoea caused by gastrointestinal malabsorption of fats. CF also classically affects the lungs resulting in persistent pulmonary infections. While the majority of new cystic fibrosis (CF) diagnoses are detected very early in life in the UK (via newborn screening), there is a small percentage of children, adolescents and adults who receive a late diagnosis.

It is also important to remember that not all countries test for CF as part of their neonatal screening program. For example, in Germany, only approximately 15% of neonates are tested for cystic fibrosis in regional research programs and voluntary early-detection program.

Although type 1 diabetes mellitus is more commonly seen in patients with coeliac disease (due to the auto-immune nature of both conditions), the recurrent chest infections would not be typical of coeliac disease.

77
Q

features of CF in children?

A

neonatal period (around 20%): meconium ileus, less commonly prolonged jaundice
recurrent chest infections (40%)
malabsorption (30%): steatorrhoea, failure to thrive
other features (10%): liver disease

78
Q

Paediatric basic life support

A

Compression:Ventilation ratios

Adults 30:2
Paeds 15:2
Neonates 3:1

79
Q

neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)

A

Prematurity is the major risk factor for NRDS. Caesarean section is the major risk factor for tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is the major risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.

Neonates with NRDS usually present with respiratory distress shortly after birth which usually worsens over the next few days. In contrast, TTN usually presents with tachypnoea shortly after birth and often fully resolves within the first day of life. A chest radiograph can be useful. In NRDS the characteristic features are a diffuse ground glass lungs with low volumes and a bell-shaped thorax. In TTN the CXR depicts a heart failure type pattern (e.g. interstitial oedema and pleural effusions) but key distinguishing features from congenital heart disease are a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the failure type pattern within days.

80
Q

Meconium staining is the major risk factor for?

A

aspiration pneumonia

81
Q

round glass apearance on x-ray?

A

Neonates with NRDS

82
Q

Hirschsprung’s disease

A

is a congenital bowel disease, which is five times more likely to occur in boys than girls. and associated with downs.

It usually presents with bilious vomiting, abdominal distension, constipation and failure to pass meconium in the first 48 hours.

Hirschsprung disease may not present until childhood or adolescence. Colon biopsy demonstrates an aganglionic segment of bowel.

83
Q

puberty in males

A

first sign is testicular growth at around 12 years of age (range = 10-15 years)
testicular volume > 4 ml indicates onset of puberty
maximum height spurt at 14

84
Q

puberty in girls

A

Boobs, Pubes, Grow, Flow

first sign is breast development at around 11.5 years of age (range = 9-13 years)
height spurt reaches its maximum early in puberty (at 12) , before menarche
menarche at 13 (11-15)
there is an increase of only about 4% of height following menarche

85
Q

when is asthema life-theratening?

A
SpO2 <92%
PEF <33% best or predicted
Silent chest
Poor respiratory effort
Agitation
Altered consciousness
Cyanosis
86
Q

bronchiolitis

A

A lower respiratory tract infection commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus

87
Q

epidemiology of bronchiolitis?

A

most common cause of a serious lower respiratory tract infection in < 1yr olds (90% are 1-9 months, with a peak incidence of 3-6 months).

Maternal IgG

provides protection to newborns against RSV
higher incidence in winter

88
Q

features of bronchiolitis

A

coryzal symptoms (including mild fever) precede:
dry cough
increasing breathlessness
wheezing, fine inspiratory crackles (not always present)
feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea are often the reason for hospital admission

89
Q

management of bronchiolitis

A

humidified oxygen is given via a head box and is typically recommended if the oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%
nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth
suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions

90
Q

Maternal anti-epileptic use during pregnancy can cause what?

A

orofacial clefts

91
Q

causes of orofacial clefts?

A

smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic use, rubella infection

trisomies 18, 13 and 15

92
Q

features of patent ductus arteriosus?

A

left subclavicular thrill

continuous ‘machinery’ murmur

large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse

wide pulse pressure
heaving apex beat

treatment is indomethacin (prostalglandin)

93
Q

Mx of PDA

A

indomethacin (inhibits prostaglandin synthesis) closes the connection in the majority of cases
if associated with another congenital heart defect amenable to surgery then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair

94
Q
Parainfluenza virus : Croup
RSV : Bronchiolitis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa : pseudomonas
Streptococcus pneumoniae : Pneumonia
Bordetella pertussis : Whooping cough
A

fh

95
Q

features of benign murmur?

A
may vary with posture
localised with no radiation
no diastolic component
no thrill
no added sounds (e.g. clicks)
asymptomatic child
no other abnormality
96
Q

what is decompressin?

A

a synthetic replacement for vasopressin or antidiuretic hormone

97
Q

Sudden infant death syndrome risk factors?

A
prone sleeping
parental smoking
bed sharing
hyperthermia and head covering
prematurity
98
Q

suden infant death syndrome protective factors?

A

breastfeeding
room sharing (but not bed sharing, which is a significant risk factor)
the use of dummies (pacifiers)

99
Q

features of hypernatraemic dehydration?

A
jittery movements
increased muscle tone
hyperreflexia
convulsions
drowsiness or coma
100
Q

features of shock?

A

Decreased level of consciousness

Cold extremities

Pale or mottled skin

Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Weak peripheral pulses
Prolonged capillary refill time
Hypotension
101
Q

features of dehydration?

A
Sunken eyes
Dry mucous membranes
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Normal peripheral pulses
Normal capillary refill time
Reduced skin turgor
Normal blood pressure
102
Q

5 Ts of cyanotic congenital heart disease?

A
Tetralogy of fallot
Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Truncus arteriosus
103
Q

The most likely cause for constipation developing at this age is dietary. It would therefore be useful to provide dietary advice (e.g. increasing fibre and fluid intake). Other lifestyle advice such as increasing activity level should also be provided.

A laxative would also be very useful, and would be indicated due to the progressively worsening constipation. An osmotic laxative should be prescribed initially as the stool is likely to be hard. A stimulant laxative may also be required, but only once the stools are soft.

A

The frequency at which children open their bowels varies widely, but generally decreases with age from a mean of 3 times per day for infants under 6 months old to once a day after 3 years of age.

104
Q

Hand, foot and mouth disease

A

Management
symptomatic treatment only: general advice about hydration and analgesia
reassurance no link to disease in cattle
children do not need to be excluded from school*

105
Q

Reflex anoxic seizures have a rapid recovery unlike epileptic seizures

Collapse, jerking, stiffness and cyanosis can all occur in both epilepsy and reflex anoxic seizures. Reflex anoxic seizures typically have a quick recovery, where as epileptic seizures typically have a prolonged recovery.

A

Reflex anoxic seizure describes a syncopal episode (or presyncope) that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli. It is thought to be caused by neurally-mediated transient asystole in children with very sensitive vagal cardiac reflexes. It typically occurs in young children aged 6 months to 3 years

Typical features
child goes very pale
falls to floor
secondary anoxic seizures are common
rapid recovery
106
Q

APGAR score

A
activity
pulse
grimance
appearance
reflex
107
Q

Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy

A

Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions are seen

Features
regurgitation and vomiting
diarrhoea
urticaria, atopic eczema
'colic' symptoms: irritability, crying
wheeze, chronic cough
rarely angioedema and anaphylaxis may occur

Management
extensive hydrolysed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula for infants with mild-moderate symptoms
amino acid-based formula (AAF) in infants with severe CMPA or if no response to eHF
around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk

108
Q

Whooping cough

A

caused by the Gram-negative bacterium Bordetella pertussis

Paroxysmal cough.
Inspiratory whoop.
Post-tussive vomiting.
Undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants.

an oral macrolide (e.g. clarithromycin, azithromycin or erythromycin) within the first 21 days of symptoms

109
Q

A jittery and hypotonic baby

A

suggest neonatal hypoglycaemia

or
the use of maternal opiates or illicit drug use in pregnancy

110
Q

Meconium aspiration syndrome

A

Meconium aspiration syndrome refers to respiratory distress in the newborn as a result of meconium in the trachea. It occurs in the immediate neonatal period. It is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. It causes respiratory distress, which can be severe. Higher rates occur where there is a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking or substance abuse.

Chest X-ray shows patchy infiltrations and atelectasis

111
Q

features of Turners symdrom?

A

short stature
shield chest, widely spaced nipples
webbed neck
bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%)
primary amenorrhoea
cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally)
high-arched palate
short fourth metacarpal
multiple pigmented naevi
lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet)
gonadotrophin levels will be elevated
hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s
horseshoe kidney: the most common renal abnormality in Turner’s syndrome

112
Q

Precocious puberty

A

development of secondary sexual characteristics before 8 years in females and 9 years in males’

May be classified into:

  1. Gonadotrophin dependent (‘central’, ‘true’)
    due to premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
    FSH & LH raised
  2. Gonadotrophin independent (‘pseudo’, ‘false’)
    due to excess sex hormones
    FSH & LH low
113
Q

Retinoblastoma

A

Pathophysiology
autosomal dominant
caused by a loss of function of the retinoblastoma tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 13
around 10% of cases are hereditary

Possible features
absence of red-reflex, replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria) - the most common presenting symptom
strabismus
visual problems

Management
enucleation is not the only option
depending on how advanced the tumour is other options include external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy and photocoagulation

Prognosis
excellent, with > 90% surviving into adulthood

114
Q

Caput succedaneum

A

a subcutaneous, extraperiosteal, collection of fluid that collects as the result of pressure on the baby’s head during delivery.

crosses the suture line

115
Q

cephalohaematoma

A

a haemorrhage between the skull and periosteum. Because the swelling is subperiosteal, it’s limited by the boundaries of the baby’s cranial bones.

116
Q

Focal neurological deficit

A

is a problem with nerve, spinal cord, or brain function. It affects a specific location, such as the left side of the face, right arm, or even a small area such as the tongue. Speech, vision, and hearing problems are also considered focal neurological deficits.

117
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Joint pain with a salmon-pink rash is characteristic of juvenile idiopathic arthritis

mx: Immunosuppression > biological therapy/methotrexate
- NSAIDS
- Joint injection> first line treatment for oligoarticular JIA (affecting up to 4 joints)
- Cytokine modulators

A

describes arthritis occurring in someone who is less than 16 years old that lasts for more than 6 weeks. Systemic onset JIA is a type of JIA which is also known as Still’s disease

Features of systemic onset JIA include
pyrexia
salmon-pink rash
lymphadenopathy
arthritis
uveitis
anorexia and weight loss

Investigations
ANA may be positive, especially in oligoarticular JIA
rheumatoid factor is usually negative

118
Q

croup

A

Mild croup:
Occasional barking cough with no stridor at rest
No or mild recessions
Well looking child

Moderate croup:
Frequent barking cough and stridor at rest
Recessions at rest
No distress

Severe croup:
Prominent inspiratory stridor at rest
Marked recessions
Distress, agitation or lethargy
Tachycardia
119
Q

Neonatal hypoglycaemia causes?

A
maternal diabetes mellitus
prematurity
IUGR
hypothermia
neonatal sepsis
inborn errors of metabolism
nesidioblastosis
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
120
Q

normal fetal blood glucose values?

A

> 2.5 mmol/L

121
Q

At what age would the average child acquire the ability to sit without support?

A

6-8 months

122
Q

Urinary tract infection in children: features, diagnosis and management, UTI

A

Presentation in childhood depends on age:
infants: poor feeding, vomiting, irritability
younger children: abdominal pain, fever, dysuria
older children: dysuria, frequency, haematuria
features which may suggest an upper UTI include: temperature > 38ºC, loin pain/tenderness

Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician
children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to hospital. If not admitted oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days
children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours
antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs

123
Q

Chicken pox

A

Rare complications include
pneumonia
encephalitis (cerebellar involvement may be seen)
disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox
arthritis, nephritis and pancreatitis may very rarely be seen

Chickenpox is highly infectious
spread via the respiratory route
can be caught from someone with shingles
infectivity = 4 days before rash, until 5 days after the rash first appeared*
incubation period = 10-21 days

Management is supportive
keep cool, trim nails
calamine lotion
school exclusion: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries state the following: Advise that the most infectious period is 1–2 days before the rash appears, but infectivity continues until all the lesions are dry and have crusted over (usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash).
immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops then IV aciclovir should be considered

124
Q

Cystic fibrosis can cause diabetes mellitus

A

Out of the options available, only cystic fibrosis can cause the development of diabetes. Cystic fibrosis presents in childhood with respiratory symptoms, but as the disease progresses, further features begin to develop. If the pancreas becomes affected, then diabetes mellitus can develop. It can take time for the pancreas to be affected enough to cause diabetes, which is why children with cystic fibrosis may develop diabetes later in life.