Paeds 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five autism spectrum disorders?

A
Autism
Asperger’s syndrome
Rett syndrome
Childhood disintegrative disorder
Pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified (PDD-NOS)
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2
Q

Which disease in infants can present very similarly to necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis

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3
Q

What does ‘10% glucose’ mean with regards to fluids?

A

10 g glucose per 100 mL

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4
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected SUFE?

A

Frog-lateral hip X-ray

NOTE: they will have limited hip flexion and abduction

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5
Q

List some complications of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura.

A
Acute renal impairment 
Intussusception
Arthritis involving ankles and knees commonly
Testicular pain
Pancreatitis
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6
Q

What is an important first step in the management of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

Prevent tumour lysis syndrome
Hyperhydration
Start allopurinol

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7
Q

Which antibiotic should be used for neutropaenic sepsis?

A

Tazocin

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8
Q

List some clinical features of space-occupying lesions.

A
Headaches are worse when lying down 
Morning vomiting 
Headaches may cause night-time waking 
Change in mood or personality 
Change in educational performance
Focal neurology (e.g. weakness, visual field defect)
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9
Q

Which age group is most likely to experience a febrile convulsion?

A

< 6 years

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10
Q

What are some key features of frontal seizures?

A

Involves motor and pre-motor cortex

May lead to clonic movements

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11
Q

What are some key features of temporal lobe seizures?

A
Aura Automatisms (e.g. lip smaking) 
Impaired consciousness
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12
Q

Which diagnostic tests can be used for mumps and rubella?

A

Serology from blood or oral fluid sample

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13
Q

Which investigations may be used in a child with short stature?

A
MId-parental height 
Random GH measurement 
Insulin tolerance test 
CT/MRI head scan 
Bone age (using DEXA or wrist X-ray)
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14
Q

What are some complications of scarlet fever?

A
Otitis media 
Acute sinusitis/mastoiditis 
Streptococcal pneumonia
Meningitis 
Endocarditis 
Osteomyelitis 
Rheumatic fever 
Streptococcal glomerulonephritis
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15
Q

In an acute asthma attack, which other medications may be used if the patient is unresponsive to nebulised SABA and ipratropium bromide?

A

Magnesium sulphate
Aminophylline
IV salbutamol

IMPORTANT: ECG and electrolytes should be monitored

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16
Q

Who will receive the children’s flu vaccine?

A

Annually as a nasal spray in september/october for all children aged 2-9 years

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17
Q

When is the 4 in 1 preschool booster given and which vaccines does it contain?

A
Around 3 years and 4 months 
Diphtheria
Tetanus 
Pertussis 
Polio
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18
Q

When is the 3 in 1 teenage booster given and which vaccines does it contain?

A

14 years
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Polio

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19
Q

What type of murmur does a VSD cause?

A

Pansystolic heard loudest at the lower left sternal edge (fifth intercostal space)

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20
Q

What type of murmur does a PDA cause?

A

Continuous machinery murmur inferior to the left clavicle

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21
Q

What should you do first if a child presents to paediatric A&E with infectious diarrhoea, whooping cough or symptoms suggestive of MMR?

A

Put in a side room

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22
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of anterior horn cells
Leads to progressive weakness and wasting of skeletal muscles
Due to mutation in SMN1

NOTE: Werdnig-Hoffman disease is type 1 SMD

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23
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?

A

Hereditary motor sensory neuropathy
Causes symmetrical, slowly progressive distal muscle wasting
May present in preschool children with tripping from bilateral foot drop

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24
Q

What is a key feature of CSF studies in Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

High protein

25
What is myotonic dystrophy?
Autosomal dominant trinucleotide repeat (CTG) disorder | Presents with hypotonia, feeding difficulties, respiratory difficulties and abnormal facies (in older children)
26
List some causes of ataxia.
``` Friedreich ataxia Ataxia telangiectasia Cerebellar tumour Cerebellar agenesis/dysgenesis Post-infectious cerebellitis Toxins (e.g. ethanol) ```
27
What is Friedreich ataxia and how does it present?
Autosomal recessive triplet repeat in FXN gene Worsening ataxia and dysarthria Distal wasting of lower limbs Absent reflexes Pes cavus (associated with Charcot-Marie-Tooth) Impairment of proprioception
28
What are the main clinical features of ataxia telangiectasia?
``` Telangiectasia in the conjunctiva Mild delay in motor development Oculomotor problems Coordination problems Complex eye movement disorders ```
29
What are the main features of NF1?
``` 6 or more cafe au lait spots Neurofibromas Axillary freckling Optic glioma Lisch nodules 1st degree relative with NF1 ```
30
What are the main features of NF2?
Multiple schwannomas Meningiomas Ependyomas Bilateral acoustic neuroma
31
List the main clinical features of tuberous sclerosis.
Cutaneous: ash leaf depigmentation, shagreen patches (roughened), angiofibromata (across the bridge of the nose) Neurological: developmental delay, epilepsy, intellectual disability
32
What are the main features of Sturge-Weber syndrome?
Port wine stain in the distribution of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve Similar lesion intracranially May have epilepsy, intellectual disability and contralateral hemiplegia
33
List some neurodegenerative conditions that occur in children.
``` Lysosomal storage disorders Peroxisome enzyme defects Wilson disease Tay Sachs Gaucher Niemann Pick ```
34
What is adrenoleukodystrophy?
Group of disorders caused by peroxisomal defects Peroxisomes are important for breaking down fatty acids Neonatal and X-linked forms
35
What are some clinical features of growing pains?
Age 3-12 Symmetrical pain not limited to joints Pain never present at the start of the day Physical activities not limited (no limp) Normal physical examination
36
how does subluxation of the patella present?
Sudden lateral dislocation of the patella Very painful Feeling of instability/giving way Requires reduction and immobilisation
37
How many joints must be affected to be classified as polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
More than 4
38
Describe the difference in the iron content of breast milk and cows milk.
Breast milk - low iron content, high absorption | Cows milk - high iron content, low absorption
39
List some clinical features of Edwards syndrome.
``` Low-set ears Small chin Microcephaly Overlapping fingers Rocker-bottom feet Cardiac defects (VSDs) Renal anomalies Learning disability 90% death within 1 year ```
40
List some clinical features of Patau syndrome.
``` Structural brain defects Small eyes Polydactyly Cardiac/renal malformations Death within 1 year ```
41
List some clinical features of Klinefelter's syndrome.
``` Most common cause of male hypogonadism Small firm testes Tall Behavioural problems Delayed speech Gynaecomastia ```
42
List some clinical features of fragile X syndrome.
``` Moderate learning difficulties (most common genetic cause of learning difficulties) Macrocephaly Large testes Large ears Long face Prominent mandible and forehead ```
43
How is fragile X syndrome inherited?
X-linked dominant | Female carriers may have mild learning difficulties
44
What is Still's disease?
Systemic form of JIA thought to be of autoimmune origin Intermittent pyrexia Salmon-pink rash Aches and pains of joints and muscles
45
List some clinical features that are common to all congenital TORCH infection.
``` Low birth weight Prematurity Jaundice Microcephaly Seizures Anaemia Failure to thrive Encephalitis ```
46
Which medication is used to chelate lead in lead poisoning?
EDTA (ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid) NOTE: it present with encephalopathic features (e.g. behavioural problems, pica) and causes a hypochromic microcytic anaemia with basophilic stippling
47
Which other condition can present very similarly to acute epiglottitis?
``` Retropharyngeal abscess (causes fever, drooling, dysphagia and stridor) Typically has a longer history than acute epiglottitis (over a few days) ```
48
Which murmur is typically heard in tetralogy of Fallot?
Ejection systolic murmur heard best in the 3rd intercostal space with a single heart sound
49
Which tumour markers can be used for neuroblastoma?
Urinary catecholamines
50
What is a craniopharyngioma?
Rare type of brain tumour derived from pituitary gland embryonic tissue
51
Which tissue does neuroblastoma arise from?
Neural crest tissue in the adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system NOTE: MIBG scans are used to identify neurblastoma tissue
52
Which tissue does nephroblastoma arise from?
Embryonal renal tissue
53
What is the most common type of malignant bone tumour in children?
Osteosarcoma NOTE: Ewing is common in younger children
54
Describe the inheritance pattern of retinoblastoma.
Autosomal dominant | Located on chromosome 13
55
What is a common benign cause of proteinuria in children?
Orthostatic (postural) proteinuria | Proteinuria is only found when the child is upright during the day
56
List some features of Fanconi syndrome.
``` Polydipsia and polyuria Salt depletion and dehydration Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis Rickets Faltering growth ```
57
List some causes of heart failure in neonates.
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome Critical aortic valve stenosis Severe coarctation of the aorta Interruption of the aortic arch
58
Which congenital heart defect is most commonly seen in DiGeorge syndrome?
Interrupted aortic arch | Others include persistent truncus arteriosus, TOF and VSD
59
What are some features suggestive of atypical UTI?
``` Seriously ill Poor urine flow Abdominal mass Raised creatinine Septicaemia Failure to respond to antibiotic treatment Infection with non-E. coli organisms ```