Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a Jess > Paeds > Flashcards

Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

What symptoms are associated with HSP?

A

Purpuric rash, joint pain, abdo pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the likely Hx in HSP?

A

Recent throat infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What investigation is key in HSP follow up and what are you looking for?

A

Urine - proteinuria and haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the rash most commonly seen in HSP?

A

Legs and bum, arms face and trunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Diagnosis of HSP?

A

Bloods - raised IgA, CRP, ESR, platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What distinguishes HSP from ITP/TTP?

A

Low platelet count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the cyanotic CHD?

A
  1. VSD
  2. ASD
  3. PDA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the symptoms of VSD?

A

Tachycardia, tachypnoea, panysystolic murmur at lower left sternal edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the symptoms of ASD?

A

Asymptomatic!!! Ejection systolic murmur at left upper sternal edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the symptoms of PDA?

A

Continuous blowing murmur below left clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What time frame is a PDA pathological?

A

> 1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you treat a small VSD?

A

Leave it and it will spontaneously close but monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you treat a PDA?

A

NSAIDS to close it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the cyanotic CHD?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot and transposition of great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 4 features of ToF?

A
  1. Pulmonary stenosis
  2. Overriding aorta
  3. VSD
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the symptoms of ToF?

A

Cyanosis, difficult breathing, squatting on exercise, clubbing of fingers and toes and systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How is ToF treated?

A

Open heart surgery
Beta blockers
noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What vessels are affected in transposition of great arteries?

A

SVC, IVC, Pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When is Transposition identified?

A

When the ductus arteriosis closes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do you treat Transposition (2 things)

A

Induce a PDA with prostaglandins and arterial switch operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the leading cause of acute epiglottis?

A

H. influenza B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a key fact in kids with acute epiglottis

A

Not up to date with vaccines!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are some symptoms of acute epiglottits

A

Sat upright, open mouth breathing, drooling, can’t speak or swallow, NO COUGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most important thing to do when you suspect acute epiglottis?

A

Call anaesthetist to intubate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What must you NOT do in acute epiglottis?

A

Examine throat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What symptoms are suggestive of croup?

A

Worse at night, barking cough, stridor, following short coryzal episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What heart murmur would you get for pulmonary stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic at left upper sternal edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What heart murmur would you get for aortic stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic at right upper sternal edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What heart murmur would you get for coarctation of the aorta?

A

ejection systolic at left upper sternal edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What symptoms might you get for coarctation of aorta?

A

Increasing with age, SoB, intermittent claudication, radio-radial/femoral delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the 4 S’s of harmless murmurs?

A
  1. Soft
  2. Systolic
  3. aSymptomatic
  4. left Sternal edge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Investigations if you find a murmur?

A

ECHO (antenatal)
ECG
CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What direction does the blood flow in Acyanotic CHD?

A

Left to right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What direction does blood flow in cyanotic CHD?

A

Right to left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What syndrome do you get if you do not treat acyanotic heart defects?

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the risk with Eisenmenger’s?

A

Reversal of L-R shunt so causes cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the other name for croup?

A

Laryngeotracheobronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where in the resp tract is the obstruction in croup?

A

Upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Age range for croup?

A

6 months - 6 years (peak at 2y)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tx for simple croup?

A

Dexamethasone (single dose - 0.15mg/kg)
OR
Nebulised budenoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tx for severe croup?

A

High flow oxygen

Nebulised adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tx for acute epiglottis?

A

IV Cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the other name for whooping cough?

A

Pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the main cause of whooping cough

A

Bordatella pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the symptoms of whooping cough?

A

Inspiritory whoop, worse at night, vomiting, cyanosis, nose bleeds, subconjunctival haemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How long does phases of whooping cough last?

A

Paroxysmal phase = 3-6 weeks

Cough = months (100 days_

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ix for whooping cough?

A

Nasal swab culture and PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Tx for whooping cough if <1 month old?

A

5 days of Azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Tx for whooping cough in >1 months old?

A

7 days of Azithromycin and Erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the main age range for bronchiolitis?

A

1-9 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the main cause of bronchiolitis?

A

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some other causes of bronchiolitis?

A

Parainfluenza, human metapneumovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Symptoms of bronchiolitis?

A

Resp distress, coryzal, breathless, poor feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

6 signs of resp distress?

A

Head bobbing, nasal flaring, subcostal recessions, intercostal recessions, tracheal tug, grunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Ix for bronchiolitis?

A

Nasal swab and PCR

CXR for hyperinflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mx for bronchiolitis?

A

SUPPORTIVE!!!
humidified O2
NG feeds if cannot feed
Fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a preventative treatment for bronchiolitis, and when is it given?

A

Palivizumab.
IM once a month
Indications: CF, downs, immunocompromised, CHD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Define asthma

A

Chronic inflammatory disorder of the lower airways, secondary to hypersensitivity. It is reversible airway obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Classic triad of symptoms in asthma?

A
  1. Bronchospasm
  2. Mucosal swelling and inflammation
  3. increased mucus forming a plug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Features of asthma

A

Nocturnal dyspnoea, wheeze, cough, sputum, diurnal variation, low exercise tolerance, disturbed sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Diagnosis of asthma (3 kinds)

A
  1. FEV1:FVC = <70%
  2. Reversibility with bronchodilator of FEV +12%
  3. FeNO >35ppb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What cells are involved in asthma?

A

CD4 cells / eosinophils / IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What role does IgE have in asthma?

A

Binds to mast cells in mucosa, causing release of inflammatory mediators + histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What causes increased mucus in asthma?

A

Histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What Tx must be done for asthma in all ages?

A

Avoid triggers, check inhaler technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What to add if SABA and low dose ICS don’t work in >5y?

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonists (e.g. Montelukast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If SABA, ICS, LTRA don’t work in asthma >5y

A

LABA / Maintenance and reliever therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What to add if asthma not controlled by SABA in <5y?

A

8 week trial of moderate-dose ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Difference in measuring <5 and >5y asthma attack

A

If >5y must include PEF values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Severe asthma attack

A
  1. Sats <92%
  2. PEF <50%
  3. Unable to talk
  4. Tachycardic and pnoeic
  5. Use of accessory muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Life threatening asthma attack

A
  1. Sats <92%
  2. PEF <33%
  3. Silent chest
  4. Poor resp effort
  5. Decreasing consciousness
  6. Cyanosed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Mx of asthma attack

A
  1. ABCDE
  2. High flow O2
  3. Nebulised Salbutamol
  4. IV Hydrocortisone
  5. Ipratropium Bromide
  6. Mg Sulphate IV
    CALL ICU!!!!!!!!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Mx CF

A

High calcium and fat diet
Chest physio and draining
Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy
Prophylactic Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Main pathogens in causing chest infection in CF

A

Pseudomonas aeriginosa

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What acid-base disturbance might you find in pyloric stenosis

A

HypoK, hypoCl, metabolic acidic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Most common site for intussusception?

A

Ileum into caecum via oleo-caecal valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What signs would you find in intusseption?

A

Child drawing knees up to chest and going pale.
Redcurrent jelly stool.
Sausage shaped mass in Right Lower Quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What would an USS show if a pt had intussusception?

A

Doughnut / target sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How to treat intussusception?

A

Rectal air insufflation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What can intestinal malrotation lead to?

A

Volvulus and infarction of the entire midgut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What age does intestinal malrotation present?

A

1-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Signs and symptoms of intestinal malrotation

A

BILLIOUS VOMITING
Abdominal pain
Tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the single diagnostic test for malrotation?

A

Upper GI contract study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the treatment for intestinal malrotation?

A

Ladd’s procedure - rotate bowel anticlockwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What would you suspect in a premature baby that is fed with cow’s milk with GI symptoms?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Signs and symptoms of NEC

A

BILLIOUS VOMITING
Fresh blood in stool
Abdo pain and distension
Shock

88
Q

What might and X-ray show if a baby has NEC?

A

Distended loops of bowel
Thick bowel wall
Football sign

89
Q

Mx for NEC?

A

ABCDE
Stop oral feeds
Broad spectrum antibiotics (ampicillin, gentamicin, cefotaxime)
Surgery

90
Q

What causes Hirschsprung’s?

A

Absence of ganglionic cells from myenteric plexus of large bowel

91
Q

What actually happens to the bowel in Hirschsprung’s?

A

Narrowing, contracted segment

92
Q

What is the identifying factor for Hirschsprung’s?

A

Failure to pass meconium within 48 hours

93
Q

What disorder is associated with Hirschsprung’s?

A

Down’s

94
Q

Clinical features of Hirschsprung’s?

A
  1. Abdo distension

2. Late bile stained vomit

95
Q

What happens if you do a PR exam in Hirschsprung’s?

A

You feel a narrow segment and then when you withdraw, there is a flow of liquid stool

96
Q

What is the diagnostic test for Hirschsprung’s?

A

Suction rectal biopsy

97
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Minimal change disease

98
Q

Triad of features in nephrotic syndrome?

A
  1. Hypoalbuminaemia
  2. Proteinuria
  3. Oedema (peripheral, scrotal/vulval, periorbital, ascites)
99
Q

Tx for the MOST nephrotic disease

A

Prednisolone (60mg/m2/day)

100
Q

Tx if steroid-resistant nephrotic disease

A 
Diuretics
Salt restriction
ACEi
NSAIDs
Cyclophosphamid + ciclosporin
101
Q

3 main features of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A
  1. Acute renal failure
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
102
Q

What classically precedes HUS?

A

Bloody diarrhoea caused by E. coli

103
Q

Tx for HUS

A

Supportive

Plasma exchange if severe thrombocytopenia and anaemia

104
Q

Complications of HUS

A

HTN, chronic renal failure

105
Q

3 main features of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura

A
  1. Sandpaper like raised purpura
  2. Arthritis in knees and ankles
  3. Abdo pain
106
Q

What classically precedes HSP

A

URTI caused by Strep pyogenes

107
Q

What are the features of an infantile spasm?

A

Head nodding, arm jerking

108
Q

What is the diagnostic test for infantile spasms

A

EEG shwoing hypsarrhythmia

109
Q

How to you define status epilepticus

A

> 30min tonic-clonic seizure (but treat after 5 min)

110
Q

How to treat status epilepticus

A

Buccal midazolam
IV lorazepam
IV phenytoin

111
Q

What MUST you give in the community if you suspect meningitis

A

IM benzylpenicillin

112
Q

What causes meningitis in neonates

A

Group B Strep
E. coli
Listeria

113
Q

What causes meningitis in infants? (1m - 6y)

A

N. meningitidis
Strep. pneumonia
H. influenza

114
Q

What causes meningitis in older kids?

A

N. meningitidis

Strep. pneumonia

115
Q

What do you screen for at 11-13 weeks?

A

Down’s syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome

116
Q

At 11-13w, what do you measure?

A
  1. hCG
  2. PAPP-A
  3. USS nuchal translucency
117
Q

What defects might you pick up on the 20w scan?

A

Neural tube
Major heart defects
Renal agenesis
Skeletal/CNS

118
Q

What is the name of the heel-prick, blood spot test?

A

Guthrie’s

119
Q

What age is Guthrie’s done?

A

5-8 days

120
Q

What 6 things does Guthrie’s test for?

A 
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital hypothyroid
Phenylketonuria
Medium-chain-acetly-coA-dehydrogenase-deficiency
Maple syrup urine
Sickle cell
121
Q

What is the only antenatal test for chromosomal and inherited disorders?

A

Chorionic villous sampling - placental biopsy of fetal cells

122
Q

Signs for Patau’s syndrome (13)?

A

Polydactyly, cleft palate, heart defects, global developmental delay

123
Q

Edward’s syndrome signs (18)?

A

Cleft palate, heart defects, global delay, kidney malformation

124
Q

What type of people get Turner’s syndrome?

A

Females (because deletion of X)

125
Q

Symptoms of Turner’s syndrome?

A

Short, wide spaced nips, webbed neck, micrognathia, amenorrhoea, delayed puberty, infertile, coarctation of aorta

126
Q

Tx for Turner’s

A

growth hormone and oestrogen replacement via COCP

127
Q

What maternal things might cause spina bifida?

A 
Insufficient folic acid
Antiepileptic drugs (valproate, carbamazepine)
128
Q

What are the two manoeuvres used in testing for hip dysplasia?

A

Barlow’s - dislocation

Ortolini’s - relocation

129
Q

Risk factors for hip dysplasia

A

Breech
Family Hx
Prematurity
Twins

130
Q

At why age would you be concerned about palmar grasp?

A

5 months

131
Q

At what age would you be concerned if the child couldn’t yet walk?

A

18 months

132
Q

What would you expect a 6 week old baby be able to do?

A

social smile, eye tracks movements, head stabilisation

133
Q

What are the 4 categories for development?

A
  1. Gross motor
  2. Fine motor and vision
  3. Speech and language
  4. Social
134
Q

Presentation of cerebral palsy

A 
Spasticity
Rigidity
Hypereflexia 
Weakness
Delayed milestones
Poor coordination
Peristent primitive reflexes
135
Q

Key 3 features of hemiplegic cerebral palsy?

A
  1. More likely arm than leg spasticity.
  2. Tiptoe.
  3. Dystonic posture
136
Q

Key features of diplegic cerebral palsy?

A
  1. more likely leg than arm

2. knock-knees

137
Q

Main cause of cerebral palsy

A

cerebral malformation

138
Q

prenatal causes of cerebral palsy

A
  1. cerebral malformation

2. TORCH infection

139
Q

perinatal causes of cerebral palsy

A
  1. hypoxia
  2. trauma
  3. premature
140
Q

postnatal causes of cerebral palsy

A
  1. head trauma
  2. stroke
  3. meningitis
141
Q

What is the 6 in 1 vaccine?

A 
Diptheria 
Tetanus
Pertussis 
Polio
Haemophilus influenza B
Hepatitis B
142
Q

At what ages are the 6-in-1 vaccine given?

A

2, 3, and 4 months

143
Q

At what ages are the MMR vaccines given?

A

1 year and 3y+4m

144
Q

At what ages is the PCV vaccine given? (pneumococcal virus)

A

2, 4 and 12 months

145
Q

At what age is the Rotavirus vaccine given?

A

2 and 3 months

146
Q

At what age is the Men B vaccine given?

A

2, 3 and 12 months

147
Q

What is given as a 4 in 1 vaccine (pre-school booster)?

A
  1. Diptheria
  2. Tetanus
  3. Pertussis
  4. Inactivated Polio
148
Q

What is given as a 3-in-1 booster vaccine at 14 years?

A
  1. Diptheria
  2. Tetanus
  3. Inactiated Polio
149
Q

What vaccine is given pre-uni?

A

Meningitis ACWY

150
Q

What fluids do you give in dehydration?

A

10-20ml/kg bolus of 0.9% saline

151
Q

How do you calculate the rate for maintenance fluids?

A

total daily requirement / 24

152
Q

What fluids do you use for maintenance?

A
  1. Saline 0.9%
  2. Dextrose 5%
  3. KCl 10mmol
153
Q

What are the fluid requirements for first 10kg?

A

100 ml/kg/day

154
Q

What are the fluid requirements for the 2nd 10kg?

A

50ml/kg/day

155
Q

What extra do you give a child if they are >20kg?

A

20ml/kg/day

156
Q

What would you expect to be raised in a blood test for mumps that is ~diagnostic?

A

Amylase

157
Q

What are 5 complications of prematurity?

A
  1. Intraventricular haemorrhage
  2. Retinopathy of prematurity
  3. Respiratory distress syndrome
  4. NEC
  5. Sepsis
158
Q

Key 6 features of Kawasaki’s?

A
  1. Conjunctivitis - bilateral
  2. Rash
  3. Adenopathy (cervical/unilateral)
  4. Strawberry tongue and cracked lips
  5. Hand and foot erythema and desquamation
  6. Fever >5 days
159
Q

Tx for Kawasaki

A

Aspirin

IV Ig

160
Q

What must you not forget to do in follow up of Kawasaki’s?

A

ECHO AND CARDIO REFERRAL!!!

161
Q

What can aspirin cause in kids?

A

Reye’s syndrome - coronary artery aneurysms

162
Q

What would you diagnose if you saw a child who had long term joint swelling and couldn’t walk upstairs (they may also have rash etc.)?

A

JIA!!!

163
Q

What would you diagnose if an 8 year old boy came to you with hip pain, and on X-ray you saw necrosis of the femoral head?

A

Perthe’s disease

164
Q

What would you diagnose if you saw a baby with retinal haemorrhages, who had also had multiple fractures in the past?

A

Nothing - suspect non-accidental injury

165
Q

What would metaphysical corner fractures indicate?

A

NAI

166
Q

What might you see if you were to examine the ear of a child with otitis media?

A

Red, bulging tympanic membrane

167
Q

What are the main causes of otitis media

A

viral - RSV, rhinovirus

back - pneumococcus, h.influeza

168
Q

Complication of otitis media?

A

Otitis media with effusion (glue ear) which can cause hearing loss

169
Q

If a child is abnormally tall, what syndrome might they have?

A

Kleinfelter’s
Marfan’s
GH secreting adenoma

170
Q

What makes up a septic screen?

A
  1. Urine sample
  2. Bloods - FBC, cultures
  3. Lumbar puncture
171
Q

What to do first in a very sick, febrile baby?

A 
Septic screen
IV antibiotics (cefotaxime, ceftriaxone OR ampicillin if <1m)
172
Q

Red flags for sepsis?

A
  1. Fever >38 (if <3m)
  2. Fever >39 (3-6m)
  3. Pale, mottled or cyanosed
  4. Low GCS
  5. Bulging fontanelles
  6. Seizures
  7. Respiratory distress
  8. Bile-stained vomit
173
Q

What is there a lack of in osteogenesis imperfect?

A

Type 1 collagen

174
Q

Symptoms of osteogenesis imperfect?

A 
Blue sclera
Easy fractures
Short
Loose joints
Hearing problems
Aortic dissection
175
Q

What is the hormone/thing issue in CAH?

A

Low cortisol

Low aldosterone

176
Q

CAH symptoms in a male?

A 
Enlarged penis
Small testes
Deep voice
Early puberty
Arrhythmias
Vomiting
Dehydration
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia
177
Q

CAH symptoms in a female?

A 
Virilised genitalia (ambiguous)
Dehydration
Vomiting
Absent or abnormal periods
Deep voice
Facial hair
Hypoglycaemia 
Hyponatraemia
178
Q

Which department input do you need for CAH?

A

Endocrinology and Urology

179
Q

What is the treatment for CAH?

A

IV fluids and electrolyte
Cortisol and aldosterone replacement (lifelong)
Hormone replacement and genital surgery if female

180
Q

What do you need to be aware of if CAH child becomes unwell/stressed?

A

Extra cortisol needed

181
Q

What is the most common leukaemia in children?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia

182
Q

What is there a lack on in muscular dystrophy?

A

Dystrophin - links actin to cytoskeleton and regulated Ca2+

183
Q

What would a raised creatinine phosphokinase suggest?

A

Muscular dystrophy

184
Q

When might you consider Duschenne’s MD?

A

A boy, around 12-18 months when they start walking

185
Q

How is DMD inherited?

A

X-linked

186
Q

Symptoms of DMD?

A 
Progressive muscle wasting
Poor balance
Scoliosis
Progressive walking inability
Waddling gait
Resp problems
Muscle spasms
187
Q

Medical Tx for DMD?

A

Low dose pred - to maintain muscle tone.

Quinine for myotonia

188
Q

At what point is jaundice in a neonate normal?

A

2-14 days

189
Q

What are the causes of jaundice in <24h

A

Rhesus haemolytic disease
ABO incompatibility disease
G-6-PD deficiency
Spherocytosis

190
Q

What are the causes of jaundice >14 days?

A
  1. Biliary atresia!!!
  2. Breast milk jaundice
  3. Congenital hypothyroid
  4. Pyloric stenosis
  5. TORCH infections
191
Q

What is involved in a jaundice screen?

A
  1. Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin
  2. Coombs test
  3. TFT
  4. FBC
  5. Blood film
  6. Urine
  7. UandE
  8. LFT
192
Q

What complication can you get if you do not treat jaundice?

A

Kernicterus

193
Q

What type of bilirubin causes kernicterus?

A

Unconjugated

194
Q

Symptoms of kernicterus

A
  1. Poor feeding
  2. Hypotonia
  3. Fatigue and lethargy
195
Q

Why does prolonged unconjugated jaundice cause kernicterus?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin can cross the BBB and accumulate in the grey mater

196
Q

Main 2 pathogens causing Scarlet Fever?

A
  1. Strep pyogenes

2. Group A beta-haemolytic Strep

197
Q

What symptoms are you likely to get in early stages of scarlet fever?

A

Vomiting, fever, headache, sore throat, abdo pain

198
Q

What symptoms does scarlet fever progress to?

A

Rash (starting on neck and spreading to limbs and torso)
Strawberry tongue
Enlarged tonsils

199
Q

Tx for scarlet fever?

A

Pencillin 10 days

Isolation, fluids and rest

200
Q

Complications of scarlet fever?

A

Rheumatic fever

Post-strep glomerulonephritis

201
Q

Complications of mumps?

A

Male infertility, meningitis, deafness, pancreatitis

202
Q

Tx for whooping cough?

A

Azithromycin

203
Q

Where does the measles rash begin/spread?

A

Begins behind ears and spreads to forehead and neck, then trunk and limbs

204
Q

What are Koplik spots?

A

White clusters inside buccal mucosa, seen in mumps

205
Q

What does a positive Coombs test indicate?

A

ABO incompatibility haemolytic disease

206
Q

What happens in ABO?

A

Maternal IgG passes through placenta to baby and attaches to fetal RBC, causing haemolysis

207
Q

What blood group causes symptomatic ABO?

A

O

208
Q

Tx for ABO?

A

Phototherapy
IV Ig
Exchange transfusion

209
Q

What status do mum and dad have to be to have Rh+ baby?

A

Mum -

Dad +

210
Q

What happens in Rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

Fetal blood enters maternal circulation. maternal IgG made against RhD antigen. This IgG passes through placenta and destroys fetal

211
Q

How do you prevent Rh disease?

A

IM anti-Rh antibodies

212
Q

What needs to change about delivery if Rh?

A

Early delivery at 36 weeks, and IV transfusion

213
Q

Is a Rh disease more likely to happen in baby 1 or baby 4?

A

Baby 4

214
Q

Why are there no neurological side effects of biliary atresia?

A

Liver can still conjugate bilirubin

215
Q

Tx for biliary atresia?

A

Kasai procedure - salvage liver and restore bile flow

Liver transplant

216
Q

Does progesterone increase or decrease risk of prematurity?

A

Decrease

217
Q

What do breech babies born >=36weeks need to screen for DDH?

A

USS at 6 weeks

Phase 3a Jess (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions