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3a > Paeds > Flashcards

Paeds Flashcards

1
Q

what will you find in bacterial infected LP?

A

neutrophils, high opening pressure, high protein, low glucose

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2
Q

what will you find in viral infected LP?

A

lymphocytes, high opening pressure, normal glucose

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3
Q

name the most common bacterial commensal

A

N.meningitidis-even more common in smokers

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4
Q

what organisms are most likely to cause meningitis in different age groups?

A

Under 3m (neonates)-group b strep, listeria, e coli
3m-5y-h influenzae
5+-n meningitidis and strep pneumoniae

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5
Q

what would you give to the 14 year old sister of a young boy with meningitis?

A

ciprofloxacin

rifampicin is CI in pregnant and taking COCP

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6
Q

viral causes of meningitis?

A

HSV

enteroviruses

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7
Q

what are the symptoms of septic arthritis in a child?

A

acutely unwell
pseudoparesis
acutely tender erythematous joint
just limp or referred knee pain

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8
Q

management of child with suspected septic arthritis?

A 
septic screen
USS-effusion
XR-any trauma
aspiration and culture
antibiotics
initial short lived immobilisation
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9
Q

what presents in a similar way to septic arthritis?

A

transient synovitis it is more acute however and will resolve spontaneously. Pain is less severe, child is otherwise well

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10
Q

what is irritable hip?

A

acute transient synovitis

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11
Q

what do you see Nikolivsky’s sign with?

A

scalded skin syndrome, where the skin separates on touch

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12
Q

how might a child with hypoglycaemia present?

A 
abdo pain
irritability
dizzy
faint
hunger
seizure
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13
Q

what electrolyte disturbance may complicate hypoglycaemia and what are the signs of this?

A

hypokalaemia-shown by generalised muscle weakness

ST depression, t wave sagging

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14
Q

what are the dangers of infusing too quickly?

A

cerebral oedema-especially if salt and sugar are low

central pontine myelinolysis

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15
Q

what do steroids do to blood sugar levels?

A

increase them

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16
Q

how many compressions in a child?

A

5 breaths then 15 to 2, adrenaline every 3-5 mins

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17
Q

how is puberty triggered?

A

from 8yo-pulses of GnRH are started

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18
Q

what is the sequence of events in female puberty?

A

thelarche
adrenarce (hair growth, growth spurt, acne)
menarche

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19
Q

what is allopurinol used for in ALL?

A

tumour lysis syndrome prevention, high potassium, phosphate and lactic acidosis

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20
Q

acidotic symptoms

A 
N&V
stomach cramps
hyperventilation
chest pain/palpitations
weakness
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21
Q

alkalosis symptoms

A 
confusion
seizures
tetany
abnormal sensations
arrythmia
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22
Q

what are aplastic crises in sickle cell disease caused by?

A

parvovirus b19- treat with hydration and o2

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23
Q

give 2 enzymopathies which will lead to non spherocytic haemolytic anaemia

A

glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

pyruvate kinase deficiency

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24
Q

what is a diagnostic feature of beta thalassaemia on HPLC?

A

high HbA2 (2 alpha, 2 delta)

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25
Q

what should you consider in an anaemic child who is not responding to treatment?

A

alpha thalassaemia trait-no treatment

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26
Q

what is vWF?

A

the carrier protein for VIII and it sticks platelets to damaged endothelial wall

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27
Q

what is the underlying pathology of haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

isoimmune-rhesus disease, need to prevent or give transfusions

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28
Q

how is haemophilia transmitted?

A

x linked

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29
Q

what could cause thrombocytopenia in children?

A

ITP, SLE, HUS (shigella), DIC, scurvy; impaired production from Fanconi, aplastic anaemia

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30
Q

what are kocher’s criteria?

A

fever>38.5
ESR>40 in first hour
WCC>12
unable to weight bear

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31
Q

when is internal rotation painful?

A

in septic arthritis, kept abducted, externally rotated and flexed and in Perthe’s internal rotation will lead to guarding or spasm

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32
Q

what are the risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

female, breech, oligohydramnios, C section, first child, club foot and other deformaties

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33
Q

what are the most common viruses in bronchiolitis?

A

respiratory syncitial virus in most, but also influenza, papa and adneno, rhino

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34
Q

what does smoking in pregnancy increase risk of?

A

asthma, IUGR, prematurity, miscarriage, SIDS, cleft lip

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35
Q

febrile, toxic infant, irritable with nappy changing with restricted joint range-what is the diagnosis and how is the hip likely to be arranged?

A

septic arthritis

abducted, externally rotated and flexed

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36
Q

sudden limp in otherwise well child

A

transient synovitis-child feels well but can also have fever, irritablility. they’ll have no pain at rest

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37
Q

fever, erythematous rash, red eyes, irrritability, oral mucositis, erythema of hands and feet

A

Kawasaki disease

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38
Q

loss of ROM, pain, stiffness and restriction

A

not so much swelling so JIA, in systemic will also have fever and serositis

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39
Q

points of a baby check?

A 
heart-listen
eyes-red reflex: retinoblastoma or cataracts
hips-O+B
testicles-descended, check female
(check anus
head circumference and fontanelles
cleft
feel tummy
check back
stretch legs-talipes equinovarus)
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40
Q

what are the symptoms of Steven’s Johnson?

A

cough, fever, conjunctivitis, rash on skin, burning sensation

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41
Q

what drugs can cause Steven’s Johnson?

A

allopurinol, carbemazepine, CMV

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42
Q

what will be raised in Kawasaki disease?

A

ESR, CRP, WCC, neutrophils, plts

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43
Q

what organ infiltration can occur in ALL other than hepatosplenomegaly?

A

CNS>headaches and seizures

testicular enlargement

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44
Q

what kind of lymphoma is more common in children?

A

non Hodgkins

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45
Q

commonest kind of brain tumour in children?

A

astrocytoma

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46
Q

what finding will you get when investigating a child with neuroblastoma

A

increased catecholamines

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47
Q

what happens in Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis?

A

bone lesions>fracture

DI

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48
Q

what is Reye’s syndrome?

A

asso with aspirin and URTI

non inflammatory encephalopathy and fatty degeneration of the liver. Only supportive management

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49
Q

what is Cushing’s triad?

A

bradycardia, systolic hypertension and irregular tachypnoea

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50
Q

what does a child with homocysteinuria need?

A

B6 supplements

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51
Q

in what disease can you not make dopamine or catecholamines

A

phenylketonuria because can’t make tyrosine

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52
Q

what does mineralcorticoid do?

A

retains bicarb and sodium and flushes out potassium

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53
Q

what is the peak height velocity?

A

girls-stage 3 breast development

boys-12-14mL

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54
Q

most likely meningitis bugs in neonates?

A

E coli
L. monocytogenes
GBS

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55
Q

most likely meningitis bugs in 1m-6y?

A

NHS

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56
Q

most likely meningitis bugs 6+

A

N and S

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57
Q

what facial defects do you get with Down’s syndrome?

A

flattened nose
macroglossia
shortened neck
epicanthic folds

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58
Q

what are the 3 types of cerebral palsy?

A

athetoid
spastic
ataxic

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59
Q

what long term problems are associated with Down’s syndrome

A

learning difficulties
congenital heart disease
early Alzheimer’s

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60
Q

what is achondroplasia?

A

AD bone disorder- disproportionately small limbs, frontal bossing, large skull
may also have hydrocephalus

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61
Q

what is Marfan’s?

A 
AD disorder of connective tissue
tall
long thin digits
hyperextensible joints
high arched palate
myopia
asso chest deformity and scoliosis, incompetent aortic root with valvular incompetence, mitral prolapse and regurgitation and aortic aneurysms
echo monitoring is needed
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62
Q

define failure to thrive

A

significant interruption of growth compared to other children of a similar age, sex and height, crossing 2 centiles on a growth chart

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63
Q

what do stridor and wheeze indicate?

A

stridor-upper airway obstruction

wheeze-decreased diameter in the lower airways from secretions

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64
Q

key features of measles

A

maculopapular behind ears and on face then trunk and extremeties
koplick spots

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65
Q

what do koplick spots look like?

A

buccal mucosa, opposite second molar, red spots with white or blue speck in the middle

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66
Q

causes of non blanching rash

A

thrombocytopenia
bacteraemia
enteroviruses and influenza
HSP

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67
Q

what do you need to investigate in someone with HSP?

A

BP
U&Es for dehydration and renal function
urinalysis

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68
Q

how do you manage impetigo?

A

fusidic acid topically, if don’t respond then oral fluclox

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69
Q

what bacteria commonly case impetigo

A

strep pyogenes

staph aureus

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70
Q

what are the common causes of encephalitis in children?

A

delayed swelling following response to an antigen eg respiratory viruses and enteroviruses
direct invasion of the brain by a neurotoxic virus like HSV-usually treated with IV aciclovir because of this

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71
Q

what are the 3 features of toxic shock syndrome caused by S. aureus?

A

fever>39
hypotension
diffuse erythematous macular rash

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72
Q

where might periorbital infection spread from and to?

A

from otitis media or dental abscess

to orbit and then on to meningies

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73
Q

what kind of rash do you get with rheumatic fever

A

erythema marginatum

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74
Q

how long does chickenpox last for?

A

7 days

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75
Q

what can enteroviruses cause in children?

A

encephalitis
hand foot and mouth
meningitis
myocarditis

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76
Q

why does a barking cough occur in croup?

A

immobilisation of the vocal cords

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77
Q

what is included in airway remodelling

A

more goblet cells

more muscle mass in wall of airways

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78
Q

onset of abscence seizures

A

4-12

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79
Q

what is the most common cause of respiratory distress in term infants?

A

transient tachypnoea of newborn- more common if CS, usually settles after a day and infection needs to be ruled out

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80
Q

what kind of cells produce surfactant?

A

type II pneumocytes

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81
Q

what is given as the prophylxis of pertussis?

A

macrolides

erythromycin for preggers

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82
Q

when is viral episodic wheeze most common

A

4-6 yo

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83
Q

what is osgood schlatter’s

A

osteochondritis of the patellar tendon

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84
Q

how do you improve meal refusal?

A 
don't force feed
more regular meals
more suitable meals
smaller portions
less distractions
less snacking
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85
Q

what are the features of anorexia nervosa?

A 
self induced weight loss to 85% of original weight or becoming under 17.5
distorted body image
fear of gaining weight
endocrine disorder
delay in puberty
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86
Q

what are the features of bulimia

A

persistent preoccupation with eating and irresistible craving for food
counteracting with purging or starving
dread of gaining weight

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87
Q

physical features of anorexia

A 
cold peripheries
bradycardia
amenorrhoea
lanugo hair
ankle oedema
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88
Q

how is Bell’s palsy treated

A

10 d pred

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89
Q

what is the most common kind of strasbismus?

A

non paralytic-concomitant-imabalance in extraocular muscles

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90
Q

what is strasbismus asso with

A

LDS, Down’s, CP, Edward’s

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91
Q

complication of strasibsmus

A

amblyopia

92
Q

what is marfans a defect in?

A

fibrillin 1

93
Q

connective tissue disorder syndrome presentations

A

aortic aneurysm
pneumothroax
lens dislocation/strasbismus
hypermobility/arthalgia

94
Q

autosomal recessive disoders?

A 
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
CF
Freidriech's ataxia
galactosemia
phenylketonuria
sickle cell
tay sachs disease
thalassaemia
95
Q

X linked disorders?

A

duchenne and beckers
fragile x
glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
haemophilia A and B

96
Q

what are the symptoms of Fanconi anaemia/

A 
failure to thrive
polydipsia
polyuria
anaemia
metabolic acidosis
rickets
97
Q

what are the symptoms of rickets

A 
bow legged
failure to thrive
pain in bones
dental deformities
muscle cramps
fractures
98
Q

IBD features in children

A

failure to thrive
delayed puberty
arthalgia
adult sx: abdo pain, weight loss, fever, lethargy

99
Q

how often should a child be defecating?

A

4 per day as infant, falls to 2 per day by 1 year, after falls to about 1 a day

100
Q

features of toddler diarrhoea

A 
don't trouble the child
bits in
no malabsorption
usually resolve by past 5
must increase fibre and reduce fruit juice
101
Q

what is the treatment for nephrotic syndrome?

A

60mg/m2 for 4 weeks then 40mg/m2 for 4 weeks on alternate days.

102
Q

how is HSP treated?

A

it is self limiting so supportive, may need NSAIDs for joint pain and immunosuppression for kidney involvement-the nephritis is usually steroid resistant

103
Q

what are the diabetic parameters?

A 
fasting-over 7
post prandial (OGTT)-over 11
104
Q

how do you manage DKA in children?

A

10ml/kg boluses
insulin
monitor electrolytes, neuro obs, glucose, K+, ketones

105
Q

what is the level of hypoglycaemia in children?

A

under 2.5mmol/L though may get symptoms below 4mmol

106
Q

causes of vomiting in children?

A 
overfeeding
GORD
pyloric stenosis
gastroenteritis
URTI
intestinal obstruction
107
Q

what are the signs of pyloric stenosis?

A

projectile vomiting, visible peristalsis, visible mass on test feed

108
Q

how do you diagnose pyloric stenosis?

A

USS

109
Q

what are the long term complications of coeliac disease

A 
osteopenia
overall cancers
GI cancers
lymphoma
subfertility
autoimmune and thyroid disease
110
Q

how might IBD present in children?

A 
fever
weight loss
apthous ulcers
diarrhoea
erythema nodosum
arthalgia
failed growth or delayed puberty
111
Q

in what age is bronchiolitis most common in?

A

2-6 month olds

112
Q

how to diagnose bronchiolitis

A

PCR of nasopharangeal aspirate

113
Q

how can you prevent bronchiolitis?

A

IM pavilizumab monthly

114
Q

what could non compliance with pancreatic enzymes lead to?

A

distal obstructive intestinal syndrome, big mucus poo in distal colon, presents with gradual obstructive symptoms, treat with enemata, therapeutic colonoscopy or surgically

115
Q

how is infant respiratory distress syndrome going to present?

A

resp distress soon after birth: cyanosis, tachypnoea, recessions, grunting, flaring

116
Q

which disease in young babies will give the ground glass appearance on XR?

A

infant respiratory distress syndrome

117
Q

what congenital heart disease could cause cyanosis and breathlessness?

A

AVSD-it is associated with Down’s syndrome

118
Q

ASD murmur

A

ej systolic LUSE and split second heart sound

119
Q

VSD murmur

A

pansystolic LLSE, transmitted to upper sternal edge

120
Q

PDA murmur

A

machinery murmur in pulmonary area, LLSE

121
Q

how are small VSDs managed?

A

good dental hygeine to prevent IE

122
Q

how do you manage TOF spells?

A

settle
put legs on chest
propranolol
BT shunt

123
Q

TOF murmur

A

ej systolic upper left sternal edge

124
Q

what disorders is Down’s associated with?

A

AVSD, VSD, PDA, TOF

125
Q

what is the most common site of intussusception?

A

ileocaecal

126
Q

what are the symptoms of intussusception

A 
abdo distension
vomiting, may be bile stained
redcurrant jelly stools
mass-RIF
refusing feeds
127
Q

how is intussusception

A

rectal air insufflation but if peritonitis signs then needs surgical reduction

128
Q

how is hirschprungs diagnosed?

A

suction rectal biopsy

129
Q

what is meckels diverticulum?

A

remanant of vitello intestinal duct

130
Q

vomiting in children-what could mimic gastroenteritis?

A

GI: pyloric stenosis, intussusception, acute appendicitis, Hirschsprung’s
systemic infection: meningitis or septicaemia
local infection: resp, UTI, hep A, otitis media
renal: HUS
metabolic: DKA

131
Q

how do you confirm post infection lactase deficiency

A

clinitest result is positive, shows sugars in the stool

132
Q

what are the symptoms of gastroenteritis?

A

sudden change to loose watery diarrhoea

133
Q

what children are at particular risk of dehydration in gastroenteritis?

A 
under 6m
premature
over 6 stools in past 24 hours
vomited 3+ times in last 24 hours
already have malnutrition
134
Q

what might happen if rehydration solutions are not given to a dehydrated child-just water?

A

fluid will move into intracellular compartments, will lead to convulsions (increased brain volume) and lower extracellular volume will lead to more extreme shock

135
Q

define prematurity

A

up to 36+6

136
Q

at what age do you start developing alveoli?

A

after 24 weeks

137
Q

what do maternal steroids do?

A

activate type 2 pneumocytes

138
Q

how could toxoplasmosis manifest in a neonate?

A 
jaundice
miscarriage
fetal abnormalites
hydrocephalus
microcephaly
chorioretinitis
epilepsy
anaemia
139
Q

what infections can cause opthalmia neonatorum?

A

gonorrhoea
chlamydia
strep pneumoniae
staph aureus

140
Q

when are infections screened for?

A

before 16 weeks

141
Q

what infections are screened for in a mother?

A

HIV
syphilis
hep B
UTIs

142
Q

management of pregnant woman with hep B?

A

IVIg of hep B

vaccinate infant at birth

143
Q

how is GBS in a pregnant woman treated?

A

intrapartum IV benzylpenicillin or ampicillin

144
Q

how should MRSA sepsis be treated in an infant?

A

IV vancomycin and gentamicin

145
Q

what are the neonatal features of Rubella?

A

part of TORCH so:
prematurity, IUGR, haemolytic anaemia, jaundice, deafness, learning difficulty, microcephaly, congenital heart disease, failure to thrive, anaemia, thrombocytopenia

146
Q

how do you test a mother for rubella?

A

IgM in saliva

147
Q

what is the most commonly vertically transmitted infection?

A

CMV

148
Q

how is CMV treated in infants?

A

IV ganciclovir

149
Q

how can neonatal jaundice be treated?

A

either phototherapy or if more extreme then exchange transfusion

150
Q

how do you calculate corrected age of a preterm infant?

A

their age+how many weeks they’re premature by

151
Q

when is maternal IgG transferred?

A

in the last 3 months of pregnancy

152
Q

how is otitis media treated?

A

conservatively, antibiotics sometimes given but eustachian tube autoinflation can be used
complication includes glue ear then mastoiditis

153
Q

what will cause the low grade fever of appendicitis to increase?

A

peritonitis, sepsis, gangrene

154
Q

what should be used with recurrent venous access and so a risk of thrombophlebitis?

A

central line

155
Q

what defines acute diarrhoea?

A

under 14 days

156
Q

causes of acute diarrhoea in children?

A

viral: rotavirus, adenovirus
bacterial: salmonella, e coli
parasites: giardia, entaoemoeba histiolytics

157
Q

what are the 6 features of colitis

A 
crampy abdo pain
diarrhoea
urgency
tenesmus
nocturnal soiling
blood/mucus in stool
158
Q

causes of chronic diarrhoea

A

intolerances: coeliac, CMPA, lactose
CMV or adenovirus and parasites
graft versus host disease

159
Q

diarrhoea investigations

A

stool ova, cysts and parasites, mc and s
coeliac screen
calprotectin for ibd

160
Q

what are the crohns lesions of the mouth?

A

orofacial granulomatosis

161
Q

when does perforation occur in UC

A

only with toxic megacolon (also by C diff and CMV)

162
Q

2 aims of treatment of IBD

A

induce (steroids) and maintain remission (5 aminosalicylates then biologics)

163
Q

what is sulfasalazine

A

a 5 aminosalicylate-SEs include headache, SJS, hepatitis

164
Q

what is gliadin taken up by in coeliac disease?

A

dendritic cells the presented on HLA DQ2

165
Q

what are the histological findings on a biopsy of coeliac disease?

A

crypt hypertrophy
villous atrophy
intraepithelial lymphocytosis
infiltration of lamina propria

166
Q

what are the risk factors for DDH

A

female
first child
other abnormalities
breech

167
Q

what is the treatment of talipes equinovarus?

A

ponseti casting
TA release
boots bar

168
Q

what gene defect is present in achondroplasia?

A

FGFR3

169
Q

where are type 2 salter harris fractures?

A

through metaphysis and grwoth plate

170
Q

how many microorganisms are needed for a diagnosis of UTI?

A

10X5 organisms per mL

171
Q

when can dimercatosuccinic acid scinitgraphy show?

A

scarring in the kidneys, but only 3 months after infection

172
Q

when is otitis media most common?

A

6-12 months

173
Q

what are the features of turners?

A 
lymphodema of hands and feet
spoon shaped nails
short stature
coarctation of aorta
delayed pbery
infertility
hypothyroidism
recurrent otitis media
174
Q

what are the organic causes of nocturnal enuresis?

A

UTI
fecal retention
polyuria (DM and CKD)

175
Q

how should DDH be managed?

A

USS then refer to orthopaedics

176
Q

what is deficient in CAH?

A

21 hydroxylase

177
Q

what are the symptoms of a salt losing crisis?

A

vomiting
weight loss
floppy and unwell

178
Q

when should testes have descended by?

A

2 years

179
Q

how do you calculate expected height?

A

ave height
+7 for boys
-7 for girls

180
Q

how many coughs and colds does a normal child have per year?

A

8

181
Q

how do choleducal cysts usually present?

A

in children under 10 with jaundice, upper abdo mass and abdo pain may also give asc cholangitis and pancreatitis

182
Q

give the name of a gene involved in coeliac disease

A

HLA DQ2.5 or 8

183
Q

what is the triad of problems involved in West syndrome?

A 
infantile spasms (1/2s that cause distress)
developmental delay
hypsarrythmia
184
Q

what kind of infection causes perhilar patchiness?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

185
Q

when should testes have descended?

A

9m

186
Q

what is the change seen in minimal change nephropathy?

A

fused podocytes

187
Q

how is bronch dx?

A

nasopharangeal aspirate

188
Q

CF chest infections

A

S aureus
P aeruginosae
H influenzae

189
Q

what does Guthrie’s test measure for CF?

A

immunoreactive trypsinogen

190
Q

features of Potter’s

A

limb deformities-severe talipes
epicanthic folds
beaked nose
pulmonary hypoplasia leading to resp distress

191
Q

when does SIDS most commonly occur?

A

2-4months

192
Q

RFs for SIDS

A 
boys
preterm
low birthweight
multiple birth
poor parents
single mum
mum high parity
maternal smoking
193
Q

what’s the difference down the microscope between N meningitidis and S pneumoniae?

A

N meningitidis=gram NEGATIVE diplococci

S pneumoniae=gram POSITIVE diplococci

194
Q

causes of neonatal jaundice?

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

biliary atresia

195
Q

common causes of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

minimal change nephropathy
focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
post strep nephritis

196
Q

what is the triad of nephrotic syndrome?

A

hypoalbuminaemia
proteinuria
oedema

197
Q

what kidney condition do you need to check lipids in?

A

nephrotic syndrome

198
Q

how do you manage steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome?

A

diuretics, salt restriction, ACEi, NSAIDs, ciclos[orin

199
Q

what infection is the prodrome to HSP?

A

strep pyogenes

200
Q

at what ages do febrile convulsions occur?

A

6m-3yr

201
Q

what is measured in the quadruple test?

A

AFP, oestrodiol, hCG, inhibin A

202
Q

congenital anomaly screen at 20 weeks, what do you look for

A

neural tube defects
major heart defects
renal agenesis
skeletal abnormalities

203
Q

when does the newborn exam need to be done?

A

within 72 hours then 6-8 week baby check

204
Q

what is done in school screening?

A

vision, growth, obesity at 4 and 11

205
Q

parts of baby check you missed!

A

femoral pulses
height, weight, head circumference
anus

206
Q

how do you treat phenylketonuria?

A

avoid seafood and eggs

low protein

207
Q

how do you treat medium chain acyl coA dehydrogenase deficiency

A

avoid fasting

give glucose and carb supplements

208
Q

what are the different things found in CVS and amniocentesis?

A

CVS: chromosome disorders and inherited disorders

amniocentesis-chromosome disorders and ssex

209
Q

general management priciples of Downs

A

echo at birth
regular hearing, visual and dental appointments
thyroid and coeliac screening
educational

210
Q

what is the pavolik harness used for?

A

DDH, also use surgical reduction-ponseti is talipes

211
Q

specific pathophysiology behind athetoid CP?

A

BG lesion due to bilirubin encephalopathy or HIE gives ESPEs and fluctuation between hypo and hypertonia

212
Q

what are the risk factors for CP

A

traumatic birth
twins
perterm
maternal infection

213
Q

number of compressions in children

A

5breaths

15 compresssions then 15:2

214
Q

what are the benefits and drawbacks to breastfeeding?

A

benefits: better bonding
mother: reduced breast cancer risk
baby: optimal nutrition, reduced NEC, GI infection DM, obesity

215
Q

what causes diptheria?

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

216
Q

what causes erythema multiforme (target lesions)

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae
HSV
amoxicillin
mostly viral infection though

217
Q

what investigations should be done if you suspect a neruoblastoma?

A

24hr VMA and HVA

218
Q

which leukaemias can imaninib be used in?

A

ALL and CML

219
Q

what infections are associated with ALL?

A

Pneumocystic jirovecii pneumonia
diseminated fungal
coag -ve staph of central venous catheter

220
Q

what are the side effects of chemotherapy

A 
infection
anorexia
alopecia
gut mucosal damage
N&V
221
Q

what are the 5 stages of chemotherapy?

A

induction, consolidation, interim maintainence, delayed intensification, maintainence

222
Q

most common UTI of childhood?

A

E coli

klebsiella pneumoniae

223
Q

what determines if a child with pneumonia gets IV?

A

in resp distress or pleural effusion or under 3

224
Q

what infections are common in CF?

A

psudomonas and staph aureus

225
Q

how is children’s hearing tested?

A

evoked otoacoustic emission at birth then move on to automated auditory brainstem response if they have poor result

226
Q

what kind of brain tumours occur in children?

A

astrocytoma and glioblastoma

227
Q

complications of nephrotic syndrome

A

hypercholesterolaemia
hypovolaemia
thrombosis
infection

3a (11 decks)

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