paeds 2 ? Flashcards

1
Q

triad of depression

A

Low mood
Anhedonia, a lack of pleasure in activities
Low energy

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2
Q

depression symptoms in youths

A
Low mood
Anhedonia, a lack of pleasure in activities
Low energy
Anxiety and worry
Clinginess
Irritability
Avoiding social situations (e.g. school)
Hopelessness about the future
Poor sleep, particularly early morning waking
Poor appetite or over eating
Poor concentration
Physical symptoms such as abdominal pain
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3
Q

conservative management of depression

A

watchful waiting and advice about healthy habits, such as healthy diet, exercise and avoiding alcohol and cannabis.

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4
Q

moderate to severe depression treatment first line

A

Psychological therapy as the first line treatment with cognitive behavioural therapy, non-directive supportive therapy, interpersonal therapy and family therapy

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5
Q

first line antidepressant for depression in youths

A

Fluoxetine is the first line antidepressant in children, starting at 10mg and increasing to a maximum of 20mg

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6
Q

second line antidepressants for youth depression

A

Sertraline and citalopram

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7
Q

medical treatment timeline for depression

A

continue 6 months after remission is achieved

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8
Q

severity of anxiety can be assessed through

A

GAD-7 anxiety questionnaire, as well as co-morbidity and environmental triggers

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9
Q

mild anxiety treatment

A

watchful waiting and advice about self-help strategies (e.g. meditation), diet, exercise and avoiding alcohol, caffeine and drugs.

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10
Q

moderate to severe anxiety treatment

A

Counselling
Cognitive behavioural therapy
Medical management. Usually an SSRI such as sertraline is considered.

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11
Q

obsessions are

A

unwanted and uncontrolled thoughts and intrusive images

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12
Q

compulsions are

A

repetitive actions the person feels they must do, generating anxiety if they are not done.

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13
Q

features of autistic social interaction

A
Lack of eye contact
Delay in smiling
Avoids physical contact
Unable to read non-verbal cues
Difficulty establishing friendships
Not displaying a desire to share attention
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14
Q

features of communication in autistics

A

Delay, absence or regression in language development
Lack of appropriate non-verbal communication such as smiling, eye contact, responding to others and sharing interest
Difficulty with imaginative or imitative behaviour
Repetitive use of words or phrases

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15
Q

behavioural features in autistic

A

Greater interest in objects, numbers or patterns than people
Stereotypical repetitive movements. There may be self-stimulating movements that are used to comfort themselves, such as hand-flapping or rocking.
Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid
Repetitive behaviour and fixed routines
Anxiety and distress with experiences outside their normal routine
Extremely restricted food preferences

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16
Q

what key part of ADHD helps differentiate it from an enviromental problem?

A

consistent across all various settings

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17
Q

features of ADHD

A

Very short attention span
Quickly moving from one activity to another
Quickly losing interest in a task and not being able to persist with challenging tasks
Constantly moving or fidgeting
Impulsive behaviour
Disruptive or rule breaking

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18
Q

what is the type of medication used for treatment of ADHD

A

central nervous system stimulants.

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19
Q

examples of medication used in ADHD

A

Methylphenidate (“Ritalin“)
Dexamfetamine
Atomoxetine

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20
Q

pathology of anorexia

A

the person feel they are overweight despite evidence of normal or low body weight. It involves obsessively restricting calorie intake with the intention of losing weight.

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21
Q

features of anorexia nervosa

A
Excessive weight loss
Amenorrhoea
Lanugo hair is fine, soft hair across most of the body
Hypokalaemia
Hypotension
Hypothermia
Changes in mood, anxiety and depression
Solitude
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22
Q

cardiac complications of anorexia include

A

arrhythmia, cardiac atrophy and sudden cardiac death.

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23
Q

the teenage girl with a normal body weight that presents with swelling to the face or under the jaw (salivary glands), calluses on the knuckles and alkalosis on a blood gas. The presenting complaint may be abdominal pain or reflux.. what is the underlying problem?

A

bulimia nervosa

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24
Q

features of bulimia nervosa?

A

alkalosis, due to vomiting hydrochloric acid from the stomach
Hypokalaemia
Erosion of teeth
Swollen salivary glands
Mouth ulcers
Gastro-oesophageal reflux and irritation
Calluses on the knuckles where they have been scraped across the teeth. This is called Russell’s sign.

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25
Q

binge eating disorder may involve

A
A planned binge involving “binge foods”
Eating very quickly
Unrelated to whether they are hungry or not
Becoming uncomfortably full
Eating in a “dazed state”
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26
Q

high risk for refeeding syndrome are those

A

if they have a BMI below 20 and have had little to eat for the past 5 days.

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27
Q

pathology behind refeeding syndrome

A

Metabolism in the cells and organs dramatically slows during prolonged periods of malnutrition. As the starved cells start to process glucose, protein and fats again they use up magnesium, potassium and phosphorus.

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28
Q

refeeding syndrome protocol

A

Slowly reintroducing food with restricted calories
Magnesium, potassium, phosphate and glucose monitoring along with other routine bloods
Fluid balance monitoring
ECG monitoring may be required in severe cases
Supplementation with electrolytes and vitamins, particularly B vitamins and thiamine

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29
Q

anxiety personality disorders

A

avoidant, dependent and obsessive.

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30
Q

Avoidant personality disorder features

A

severe anxiety about rejection or disapproval and avoidance of social situations or relationships.

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31
Q

Dependent personality disorder features

A

heavy reliance on others to make decisions and take responsibility for their lives, taking a very passive approach.

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32
Q

Obsessive compulsive personality disorder features

A

features unrealistic expectations of how things should be done by themselves and others, and catastrophising about what will happen if these expectations are not met.

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33
Q

Paranoid personality disorder features

A

features difficulty in trusting or revealing personal information to others.

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34
Q

Schizoid personality disorder features

A

features a lack of interest or desire to form relationships with others and feelings that this is of no benefit to them.

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35
Q

emotional impulsive personality disorder examples

A

borderline personality disorder, histrionic, narcissistic

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36
Q

Borderline personality disorder features

A

fluctuating strong emotions and difficulties with identity and maintaining healthy relationships.

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37
Q

Histrionic personality disorder features

A

features the need to be at the centre of attention and having to perform for others to maintain that attention.

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38
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder features

A

features feelings that they are special and need others to recognise this or else they get upset. They put themselves first.

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39
Q

examples of suspicious personality disorders

A

paranoid, schizoid and schizotypal.

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40
Q

key management of choice for a personality disorder

A

Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) and psychotherapy

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41
Q

Copropraxia refers too

A

involves making obscene gestures

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42
Q

Coprolalia refers too

A

involves saying obscene words

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43
Q

Echolalia refers too

A

involves repeating other people’s words

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44
Q

troublesome tics may be treated with

A

Habit reversal training
Exposure with response prevention
Medications may be tried in very severe cases, usually with antipsychotic medications

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45
Q

Fetal haemoglobin subunits are

A

two alpha and two gamma subunits.

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46
Q

adult haemoglobin subunits are

A

two alpha and two beta subunits.

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47
Q

foetal or adult haemoglobin has greater affinity?

A

foetal.

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48
Q

at birth the haemoglobin ratio is

A

At birth, around half the haemoglobin produced is HbF and half is HbA

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49
Q

what drug can be used to increase production of foetal haemoglobin in patients with sickle cell anaemia?

A

Hydroxycarbamide

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50
Q

foetal haemoglobin doesnt sickle because

A

is no beta subunit in the structure.

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51
Q

normal haemoglobin at birth?

A

150 – 235 grams/litre

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52
Q

normal haemoglobin at 2 months - 6 years

A

110 – 140 grams/litre

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53
Q

female haemoglobin 12-18

A

120 – 160 grams/litre

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54
Q

normal haemoglobin 12-18 male

A

130 -160 grams/litre

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55
Q

common cause on anaemia in infancy is

A

Physiologic anaemia of infancy

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56
Q

other causes of anaemia in infants is

A

Anaemia of prematurity
Blood loss
Haemolysis
Twin-twin transfusion

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57
Q

haemolytic causes of anaemia

A

Haemolytic disease of the newborn (ABO or rhesus incompatibility)
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency

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58
Q

normal dip in haemoglobin in infants occurs around

A

six to nine weeks

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59
Q

phsyiological anaemia of infancy is due to

A

High oxygen delivery to the tissues caused by the high haemoglobin levels at birth cause negative feedback. Production of erythropoietin by the kidneys is suppressed and subsequently there is reduced production of haemoglobin by the bone marrow.

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60
Q

common causes of Anaemia in older children is

A

Iron deficiency anaemia secondary to dietary insufficiency. This is the most common cause overall.
Blood loss, most frequently from menstruation in older girls

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61
Q

common cause of global chronic anaemia is

A

Worldwide, a common cause of blood loss causing chronic anaemia and iron deficiency is helminth infection, with roundworms, hookworms or whipworms.

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62
Q

causes of microcytic anaemia

A
T – Thalassaemia
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
I – Iron deficiency anaemia
L – Lead poisoning
S – Sideroblastic anaemia
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63
Q

causes of normocytic anaemia

A
A – Acute blood loss
A – Anaemia of Chronic Disease
A – Aplastic Anaemia
H – Haemolytic Anaemia
H – Hypothyroidism
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64
Q

causes of macrocytic megaloblastic anaemia

A

B12 deficiency

Folate deficiency

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65
Q

causes of normoblastic macrocytic anamia

A
Alcohol
Reticulocytosis (usually from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Drugs such as azathioprine
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66
Q

symptoms of anaemia

A
Tiredness
Shortness of breath
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions
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67
Q

specific symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia

A

pica and hair loss

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68
Q

general signs of anaemia

A

Pale skin
Conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Raised respiratory rate

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69
Q

specific signs of anaemia

A

koilonychia, angular chelitis, atrophic glossitis, brittle hair and nails, jaundice or bone deformities (thalassaemia)

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70
Q

initial investigations for anaemia

A
Full blood count for haemoglobin and MCV
Blood film
Reticulocyte count
Ferritin (low iron deficiency)
B12 and folate
Bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
Direct Coombs test (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia)
Haemoglobin electrophoresis (haemoglobinopathies)
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71
Q

iron is absorbed in the

A

duodenum and jejunum.

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72
Q

what form is iron absorbed in

A

ferrous (Fe2+) due to stomach acid.

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73
Q

ferric ions bind to what carrier?

A

transferrin

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74
Q

total iron binding capacity related to the amount of?

A

transferrin

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75
Q

transferring saturation =

A

Serum Iron / Total Iron Binding Capacity

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76
Q

extra ferritin may be released when there is

A

inflammation.

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77
Q

normal total iron binding capacity

A

54 – 75 μmol/L

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78
Q

what may give the impression of iron overload?

A

acute liver damage

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79
Q

what type of leukemia is most common?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

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80
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia commonly peaks at age

A

2-3

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81
Q

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) peaks age

A

under 2 years

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82
Q

what syndromes increases risk of leukaemia

A

Down’s syndrome
Kleinfelter syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Fanconi’s anaemia

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83
Q

presentation of leukaemia

A
Persistent fatigue
Unexplained fever
Failure to thrive
Weight loss
Night sweats
Pallor (anaemia)
Petechiae and abnormal bruising (thrombocytopenia)
Unexplained bleeding (thrombocytopenia)
Abdominal pain
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Unexplained or persistent bone or joint pain
Hepatosplenomegaly
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84
Q

refer any child to haemotology for oncological assessmen if presenting with

A

unexplained petechiae or hepatomegaly

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85
Q

if leukaemia is suspected what test should be urgently performed?

A

FBc <48 hours

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86
Q

investigations for diagnosis of leukaemia should be

A

Full blood count, which can show anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and high numbers of the abnormal WBCs
Blood film, which can show blast cells
Bone marrow biopsy
Lymph node biopsy

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87
Q

staging investigations for leukaemia include

A

Chest xray
CT scan
Lumbar puncture
Genetic analysis and immunophenotyping of the abnormal cells

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88
Q

therapies for leukaemia are

A

chemotherapy.

Other therapies:

Radiotherapy
Bone marrow transplant
Surgery

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89
Q

key differential haematoligcal for non blanching rash

A

leukaemia or idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

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90
Q

ITP is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?

A

type II hypersensitivity reaction. It is caused by the production of antibodies that target and destroy platelets.

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91
Q

presentation of ITP is

A

Often there is a history of a recent viral illness. The onset of symptoms occurs over 24 – 48 hours:

Bleeding, for example from the gums, epistaxis or menorrhagia
Bruising
Petechial or purpuric rash, caused by bleeding under the skin

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92
Q

petechiae size

A

~1mm

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93
Q

purpura size

A

3-10mm

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94
Q

ecchymoses size

A

> 10mm

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95
Q

ix for ITP

A

urgent full blood count for the platelet count.

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96
Q

for severe bleeds with ITP treatment should be

A

may be required if the patient is actively bleeding or severe thrombocytopenia (platelets below 10):

Prednisolone
IV immunoglobulins
Blood transfusions if required
Platelet transfusions only work temporarily

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97
Q

sickle cell anaemia genetic transmission is via

A

autosomal recessive

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98
Q

what chromosome is effected with sickle cell anaemia

A

chromosome 11

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99
Q

complications of sickle cell anaemia

A
Anaemia
Increased risk of infection
Stroke
Avascular necrosis in large joints such as the hip
Pulmonary hypertension
Painful and persistent penile erection (priapism)
Chronic kidney disease
Sickle cell crises
Acute chest syndrome
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100
Q

general management of sickle cells anaemia?

A

Avoid dehydration and other triggers of crises
Ensure vaccines are up to date
Antibiotic prophylaxis to protect against infection, usually with penicillin V (phenoxymethypenicillin)
hydroxycarbamide

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101
Q

curative option for sickle cell anaemia?

A

bone marrow transplant

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102
Q

supportive management for a sickle cell crisis

A

Have a low threshold for admission to hospital
Treat any infection
Keep warm
Keep well hydrated (IV fluids may be required)
Simple analgesia such as paracetamol and ibuprofen

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103
Q

vaso-occlusive crisis may cause what in men?

A

priapism in men by trapping blood in the penis, causing a painful and persistent erection.

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104
Q

splenic sequestration crisis refers too

A

red blood cells blocking blood flow within the spleen. This causes an acutely enlarged and painful spleen.

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105
Q

complication of splenic sequestration crisis is

A

circulatory collapse.

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106
Q

sickle cell aplastic crisis may be causes by

A

parvovirus B19

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107
Q

aplastic crisis refers too

A

temporary loss of the creation of new blood cells.

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108
Q

diagnosis of sickle cell acute chest syndrome requires.

A

Fever or respiratory symptoms, with:

New infiltrates seen on a chest xray

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109
Q

Tx for sickle cell acute chest syndrome is

A

Antibiotics or antivirals for infections
Blood transfusions for anaemia
Incentive spirometry using a machine that encourages effective and deep breathing
Artificial ventilation with NIV or intubation may be required

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110
Q

both thalassaemia’s genetic inheritance are

A

autosomal recessive

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111
Q

signs and symptoms of thalassaemia

A
Microcytic anaemia (low mean corpuscular volume)
Fatigue
Pallor
Jaundice
Gallstones
Splenomegaly
Poor growth and development
Pronounced forehead and malar eminences
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112
Q

diagnosis of thalassaemia is through

A

Full blood count shows a microcytic anaemia.
Haemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose globin abnormalities.
DNA testing

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113
Q

risk of treatment with thalassaemia?

A

iron overload requiring iron chelation therapy

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114
Q

alpha thalassaemia is caused by defects on chromosome

A

16

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115
Q

beta Thalassaemia Minor means

A

they have microcytic anaemia with one normal beta and one abnormal beta gene

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116
Q

beta Thalassaemia Intermedia means

A

This can be either two defective genes or one defective gene and one deletion gene.

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117
Q

beta thalassaemia major means

A

homozygous for the deletion genes.

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118
Q

hereditary spherocytosis genetic transmission

A

autosomal dominant

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119
Q

presentation of hereditary spherocytosis

A

Jaundice
Anaemia
Gallstones
Splenomegaly

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120
Q

crises that may arise from hereditary spherocytosis

A

haemolytic, or aplastic

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121
Q

diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is through

A

family history and clinical features, along with spherocytes on the blood film. The mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is raised on a full blood count. Reticulocytes will be raised

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122
Q

management of hereditary spherocytosis is

A

Treatment is with folate supplementation and splenectomy. Removal of the gallbladder (cholecystectomy) may be required if gallstones are a problem. Transfusions may be required during acute crises.

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123
Q

a patient that becomes jaundice and anaemic after eating broad beans, developing an infection or being treated with antimalarial medications. The underlying diagnosis might be

A

G6PD deficiency

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124
Q

G6PD genetic transmission is

A

x-linked recessive

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125
Q

role of G6PD enzyme is

A

protect cells from damage by reactive oxygen species that may cause haemolysis during period of acute stress.

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126
Q

G6PD presentation

A

neonatal jaundice.

Other features of the condition are:

Anaemia
Intermittent jaundice, particularly in response to triggers
Gallstones
Splenomegaly

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127
Q

G6PD on blood film may show

A

Heinz bodies may be seen on a on blood film. Heinz bodies are blobs of denatured haemoglobin (“inclusions”) seen within the red blood cells.

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128
Q

diagnosis of G6PD may be through

A

enzyme assay

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129
Q

the skin sensitisation theory dictates allergy arises from

A
  1. exposure through breaks in the skin

2. lack of GI exposure to the allergen.

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130
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity involves

A

IgE antibodies to a specific allergen trigger mast cells and basophils to release histamines and other cytokines. This causes an immediate reaction.

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131
Q

type 1 hypersensitivity reaction involves

A

range from itching, facial swelling and urticaria to anaphylaxis.

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132
Q

type 2 hypersensitivity reaction pathology

A

IgG and IgM antibodies react to an allergen and activate the complement system, leading to direct damage to the local cells.

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133
Q

examples of type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are

A

haemolytic disease of the newborn and transfusion reactions.

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134
Q

type 3 hypersensitivity reaction involves

A

Immune complexes accumulate and cause damage to local tissues.

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135
Q

type 3 hypersensitivity reaction examples

A

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), rheumatoid arthritis and Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

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136
Q

type 4 hypersensitivity reaction pathology

A

Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions caused by T lymphocytes. T-cells are inappropriately activated, causing inflammation and damage to local tissues.

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137
Q

examples of type 4 hypersensitivity reactions include

A

organ transplant rejection and contact dermatitis.

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138
Q

three main ways to test for an allergy are

A

Skin prick testing
RAST testing, which involves blood tests for total and specific immunoglobulin E (IgE)
Food challenge testing

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139
Q

RAST testing involves

A

measures the total and allergen specific IgE quantities in the patient’s blood sample

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140
Q

following exposure to an allergen treatment is

A

Antihistamines (e.g. cetirizine)
Steroids (e.g. oral prednisolone, topical hydrocortisone or IV hydrocortisone)
Intramuscular adrenalin in anaphylaxis

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141
Q

symptoms of anaphylaxis are

A

Urticaria
Itching
Angio-oedema, with swelling around lips and eyes
Abdominal pain

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142
Q

anaphylaxis can be confirmed by

A

measuring the serum mast cell tryptase within 6 hours of the event

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143
Q

why most children be observed post anaphylactic episode?

A

as biphasic reactions can occur, meaning they can have a second anaphylactic reaction after successful treatment of the first.

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144
Q

tryptase is released upon

A

cell degranulation

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145
Q

examples of non sedating antihistamines are

A

cetirizine, loratadine and fexofenadine

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146
Q

examples of sedating histamines are

A

chlorphenamine (Piriton) and promethazine

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147
Q

rapid reaction to cows milk indicates what ab mediated cows milk allergy

A

IgE mediated.

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148
Q

is cows milk intolerance an allergic process?

A

no

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149
Q

GI symptoms of cows milk allergy?

A

Bloating and wind
Abdominal pain
Diarrhoea
Vomiting

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150
Q

general allergic symptoms to cows milk protein

A
Urticarial rash (hives)
Angio-oedema (facial swelling)
Cough or wheeze
Sneezing
Watery eyes
Eczema
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151
Q

management of cow’s milk allergy is with

A

Breast feeding mothers should avoid dairy products
Replace formula with special hydrolysed formulas designed for cow’s milk allergy. every 6 months tried on the milk ladder.

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152
Q

what are signs of recurrent infection that should prompt referral?

A

Chronic diarrhoea since infancy
Failure to thrive
Appearing unusually well with quite a severe infection, for example afebrile with a large pneumonia
Significantly more infections than expected, particularly bacterial lower respiratory tract infections
Unusual or persistent infections such as cytomegalovirus, candida and pneumocystis jiroveci

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153
Q

tests for recurrent infections should include

A

FCB, immunoglobulins, complement proteins, antibody responses, HIV, CXR, sweat test and CT (bronchiectasis)

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154
Q

SCID presentation is

A

Persistent severe diarrhoea
Failure to thrive
Opportunistic infections that are more frequent or severe than in healthy children, for example severe and later fatal chickenpox, Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia and cytomegalovirus
Unwell after live vaccinations such as the BCG, MMR and nasal flu vaccine
Omenn syndrom

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155
Q

more than 50% of SCID cases are due to

A

mutations in the common gamma chain on the X chromosome that codes for interleukin receptors on T and B cells

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156
Q

omen syndrome is the result of a mutation on

A

t is the result of a mutation in the recombination-activating gene (RAG 1 or RAG 2) that codes for important proteins in T and B cells.

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157
Q

omen syndrome genetic transmission is through

A

autosomal recessive

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158
Q

features of omen syndrome are

A
A red, scaly, dry rash (erythroderma)
Hair loss (alopecia)
Diarrhoea
Failure to thrive
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
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159
Q

Tx of SCID involves

A

Ig therapy, sterile enviroment, avoiding live vaccines, and haematopoietic stem cell transplantation

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160
Q

what infections are particularly common with B cell and immunoglobulin disorders

A

LRTI

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161
Q

the most common immunoglobulin deficiency is

A

IgA

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162
Q

IgA protects

A

mucous membranes, such as saliva, respiratory tract secretions, GI tract secretions, tears and sweat.

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163
Q

Common Variable Immunodeficiency results in deficiencies in

A

IgG and IgA, with or without a deficiency in IgM.

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164
Q

DiGeorge Syndrome is also known as

A

22q11.2 deletion syndrome,

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165
Q

22q11.2 deletion syndrome leads to what embryological birth defect?

A

developmental defect in the third pharyngeal pouch and third branchial cleft.

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166
Q

with 22q11.2 deletion syndrome and the developmental defect in the third pharyngeal pouch and third branchial cleft what is the clinical relevance of this?

A

One of the consequences of this is incomplete development of the thymus gland. An underdeveloped thymus gland results in an inability to create functional T cells.

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167
Q

features of digeorge syndrome are

A

C – Congenital heart disease
A – Abnormal facies (characteristic facial appearance)
T – Thymus gland incompletely developed
C – Cleft palate
H – Hypoparathyroidism and resulting Hypocalcaemia
22nd chromosome affected

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168
Q

Purine Nucleoside Phosphorylase Deficiency genetic transmission

A

autosomal recessive

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169
Q

Purine Nucleoside Phosphorylase Deficiency pathology

A

NPase is an enzyme that helps breakdown purines. Without this enzyme, a metabolite called dGTP builds up. This metabolite is exclusively toxic to T cells

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170
Q

result of Purine Nucleoside Phosphorylase Deficiency is

A

Clinically, patients immunity to infection gradually gets worse. They become increasingly susceptible to infections, particularly viruses and live vaccines.

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171
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome genetic transmission is

A

X-linked

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172
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome results in

A

abnormal functioning T cells

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173
Q

Ataxic Telangiectasia genetic transmission

A

autosomal recessive

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174
Q

Ataxic Telangiectasia effects the gene coding for

A

ATM serine/threonine kinase protein - important for DNA coding

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175
Q

Ataxic Telangiectasia gene defect is on chromosome

A

11

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176
Q

Ataxic Telangiectasia features

A

Low numbers of T-cells and immunoglobulins, causing immunodeficiency and recurrent infections.
Ataxia: problems with coordination due to cerebellar impairment
Telangiectasia, particularly in the sclera and damaged areas of skin
Predisposition to cancers, particularly haematological cancers
Slow growth and delayed puberty
Accelerated ageing
Liver failure

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177
Q

complement proteins are important for what organisms

A

Haemophilus influenza B
Streptococcus pneumonia
Neisseria meningitidis

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178
Q

complement deficiency and SLE pathology

A

as an incomplete complement cascade leads to immune complexes building up and being deposited in tissues, leading to chronic inflammation.

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179
Q

what complement deficiency is the most common?

A

C2

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180
Q

bradykinin role in inflammatory response

A

promoting blood vessel dilatation and increased vascular permeability, leading to angioedema

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181
Q

C1 esterase role is to

A

inhibit bradykinin

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182
Q

absence of C1 esterase leads too

A

intermittent angioedema in response to minor triggers, such as viral infections or stress, or without any clear trigger at all.

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183
Q

test for hereditary angioedema (C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency) is to check

A

he levels of C4 (compliment 4). C4 levels will be low in the condition

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184
Q

mannose-binding lectin leads to inhibition of the

A

alternative pathway of the complement system.

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185
Q

examples of inactivated vaccines

A

Polio
Flu vaccine
Hepatitis A
Rabies

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186
Q

examples of subunit and conjugate vaccines

A
Pneumococcus
Meningococcus
Hepatitis B
Pertussis (whooping cough)
Haemophilus influenza type B
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Shingles (herpes-zoster virus)
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187
Q

examples of live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles, mumps and rubella vaccine: contains all three weakened viruses
BCG: contains a weakened version of tuberculosis
Chickenpox: contains a weakened varicella-zoster virus
Nasal influenza vaccine (not the injection)
Rotavirus vaccine

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188
Q

8 weeks vaccine schedule

A

6 in 1 vaccin
meningococcal type B
Rotavirus (oral vaccine)

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189
Q

6 in 1 vaccine covers

A

6 in 1 vaccine (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) and hepatitis B)

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190
Q

12 weeks vaccine schedule

A

6 in 1 vaccine (again)
Pneumococcal (13 different serotypes)
Rotavirus (again

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191
Q

16 weeks vaccine schedule

A

6 in 1 vaccine (again)

Meningococcal type B (again)

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192
Q

1 year vaccine schedule

A
2 in 1 (haemophilus influenza type B and meningococcal type C)
Pneumococcal (again)
MMR vaccine (measles, mumps and rubella)
Meningococcal type B (again)
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193
Q

3 years vaccine schedule

A
4 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio)
MMR vaccine (again)
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194
Q

12-13 years vaccine schedule

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine (2 doses given 6 to 24 months apart)

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195
Q

14 years vaccine schedule

A

3 in 1 (tetanus, diphtheria and polio)

Meningococcal groups A, C, W and Y

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196
Q

sepsis pathology leading from recognition to immune activation

A

by macrophages, lymphocytes and mast cells. These cells release vast amounts of cytokines, to alert the immune system to the invader. These cytokines activate other parts of the immune system. This immune activation leads to further release of chemicals such as nitrous oxide The immune response causes inflammation throughout the body.

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197
Q

examples of cytokines

A

such as interleukins and tumor necrosis factor

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198
Q

nitrous oxide causes

A

that causes vasodilation.

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199
Q

role of cytokines in sepsis

A

cause the endothelial lining of blood vessels to become more permeable. This causes fluid to leak out of the blood into the extracellular space, leading to oedema and a reduction in intravascular volume.

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200
Q

consequences of oedema in sepsis

A

The oedema around blood vessels creates a space between the blood and the tissues, reducing the amount of oxygen that reaches the tissues.

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201
Q

activation of coagulation system in sepsis pathophysiology

A

coagulation system leads to deposition of fibrin throughout the circulation, further compromising organ and tissue perfusion. It also leads to consumption of platelets and clotting factors, as they are being used up to form the blood clots.

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202
Q

the consumption of platelets and clotting factors in sepsis leads too and is overall called

A

his leads to thrombocytopenia, haemorrhages and an inability to form clots and stop bleeding. This is called disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

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203
Q

the waste product of anaerobic respiration is

A

lactate

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204
Q

septic shock should be aggressively treated with

A

IV fluids

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205
Q

in ITU what drug is considered to aid in tissue perfusion during sepsis

A

inotropes (such as noradrenalin)

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206
Q

signs of sepsis

A
Deranged physical observations
Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)
Fever or hypothermia
Deranged behaviour
Poor feeding
Inconsolable or high pitched crying
High pitched or weak cry
Reduced consciousness
Reduced body tone (floppy)
Skin colour changes (cyanosis, mottled pale or ashen)
207
Q

any child under 3 months with a fever >38 need to be treated for

A

sepsis

208
Q

immediate management for sepsis should involve

A

Give oxygen if the patient has evidence of shock or oxygen saturations are below 94%
Obtain IV access (cannulation)
Blood tests, including a FBC, U&E, CRP, clotting screen (INR), blood gas for lactate and acidosis
Blood cultures, ideally before giving antibiotics
Urine dipstick and laboratory testing for culture and sensitivities
Antibiotics according to local guidelines. They should be given within 1 hour of presentation.

209
Q

IV fluid bolus ratio for sepsis is

A

20ml/kg

210
Q

when should an IV fluid bolus be delivered in sepsis

A

lactate >2mmol/L

211
Q

Neisseria meningitidis is what sort of bacteria?

A

gram negative diploccous

212
Q

Meningococcal septicaemia is the cause of the classic

A

non-blanching rash

213
Q

non-blanching rash may be a sign of

A

disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) and subcutaneous haemorrhages

214
Q

in neonates common cause of bacterial meningitis is

A

group B Streptococcus

215
Q

neonate presentation of sepsis

A

hypotonia, poor feeding, lethargy, hypothermia and a bulging fontanelle.

216
Q

lumbar puncture according to Nice should be a part of the investigations for

A

Under 1 months presenting with fever
1 to 3 months with fever and are unwell
Under 1 years with unexplained fever and other features of serious illness

217
Q

two special tests for meningeal irritation are

A

Kernig’s test

Brudzinski’s test

218
Q

kernig’s test involves

A

involves lying the patient on their back, flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees and then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed at 90 degrees. This creates a slight stretch in the meninges.

219
Q

positive kernig’s test will be when

A

there is meningitis it will produce spinal pain or resistance to movement.

220
Q

bruzinski’s test involves

A

involves lying the patient flat on their back and gently using your hands to lift their head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest.

221
Q

positive brudzinski’s test involves

A

In a positive test this causes the patient to involuntarily flex their hips and knees.

222
Q

in community bacteria meningitis should involve

A

urgent stat injection (IM or IV) of benzylpenicillin prior to transfer to hospital as time is so important.

223
Q

under 3 months antibiotics for meningitis should be

A

cefotaxime plus amoxicillin

224
Q

older then 3 months antibiotics for meningitis should be

A

ceftriaxone

225
Q

other considerations for meningitis treatment are

A

steroids dexamethasone for hearing loss and notify public health

226
Q

post exposure prophylaxis to meningitis antibiotic is

A

single dose ciprofloxacin

227
Q

bacteria in CSF

A

will release proteins and use up the glucose and stimulate neutrophils

228
Q

viruses in CSF

A

don’t use glucose, release a small amount of protein and stimulate lymphocytes.

229
Q

complications of meningitis

A

Hearing loss is a key complication
Seizures and epilepsy
Cognitive impairment and learning disability
Memory loss
Cerebral palsy, with focal neurological deficits such as limb weakness or spasticity

230
Q

commonest cause of infective paediatric encephalitis is

A

herpes simplex virus

231
Q

presentation of encephalitis

A
Altered consciousness
Altered cognition
Unusual behaviour
Acute onset of focal neurological symptoms
Acute onset of focal seizures
Fever
232
Q

diagnosis of encephalitis is with

A

lumbar puncture, viral PCR, CT, MRI, EEG, swabs and HIV

233
Q

CI to lumbar punctures include

A

GCS below 9, haemodynamically unstable, active seizures or post-ictal.

234
Q

herpes simplex virus (HSV) and varicella zoster virus (VZV) TX

A

aciclovir

235
Q

CMV Tx

A

Ganciclovir

236
Q

infective mononucleosis is caused by

A

epstein barr virus

237
Q

infective mononucelosis is also known as

A

glandular fever

238
Q

adolescent with a sore throat, who develops an itchy rash after taking amoxicillin what is the underlyign cause?

A

infective mononucleosis

239
Q

features of infective mononucelosis

A
Fever
Sore throat
Fatigue
Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes)
Tonsillar enlargement
Splenomegaly and in rare cases splenic rupture
240
Q

in infectious mononucleosis the body produces

A

heterophile antibodies

241
Q

heterophile antibodies can be tested for via

A

Monospot test: this introduces the patient’s blood to red blood cells from horses or Paul-Bunnell test: this is similar to the monospot test but uses red blood cells from sheep.

242
Q

acute infection by EBV would be demonstrated through

A

IgM

243
Q

immunity to EBV would be demonstrated by

A

IgG

244
Q

EBV is associated with

A

buritt’s lymphoma

245
Q

mumps is a what infection and spread by?

A

viral infection spread by respiratory droplets

246
Q

presentation of mumps is

A

initial period of flu-like symptoms known as the prodrome. These occur a few days before the parotid swelling:

Fever
Muscle aches
Lethargy
Reduced appetite
Headache
Dry mouth
247
Q

complications of mumps presentation

A

Abdominal pain (pancreatitis)
Testicular pain and swelling (orchitis)
Confusion, neck stiffness and headache (meningitis or encephalitis)

248
Q

mumps Dx

A

PCR testing on a sliva swab

249
Q

who must you notify with a mumps infection?

A

public health

250
Q

how may HIV spread to a child?

A

pregnancy, birth or breastfeeding. This is referred to as vertical transmission.

251
Q

prophylaxis for HIV during birth if >10000 copies/ml

A

IV zidovudine

252
Q

hepatitis B is what sort of virus?

A

DNA

253
Q

spread of hepatitis B is

A

vertical, or blood, or sex.

254
Q

infection history for hep B

A

Most children fully recover from the infection within 2 months, however a portion go on to become chronic hepatitis B carriers.

255
Q

Surface antigen (HBsAg) indicates

A

active infection

256
Q

E antigen (HBeAg) indicates

A

marker of viral replication and implies high infectivity

257
Q

Core antibodies (HBcAb) indicates

A

implies past or current infection

258
Q

Surface antibody (HBsAb) indicates

A

implies vaccination or past or current infection

259
Q

Hepatitis B virus DNA (HBV DNA) is used for

A

this is a direct count of the viral load

260
Q

initial viral markers for hep B should be

A

HBcAb (for previous infection) and HBsAg (for active infection)

261
Q

levels of HBeAG reflect

A

infectivity

262
Q

Hep B + mothers within 24 hours of birth should be given

A

Hepatitis B vaccine

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin infusion

263
Q

is it safe for hep B breastfeeding?

A

yes if received vaccine and immunoglobulin infusion.

264
Q

hep C type of virus

A

RNA virus

265
Q

disease course of Hep C in adults

A

1 in 4 fight off the virus and make a full recovery

3 in 4 develop chronic hepatitis C

266
Q

complications of Hep c in adults

A

Liver cirrhosis and associated complications of cirrhosis

Hepatocellular carcinoma

267
Q

testing for Hep C involves

A

Hepatitis C antibody is the screening test

Hepatitis C RNA testing

268
Q

Hepatitis C RNA testing is used to

A

confirm the diagnosis of hepatitis C, calculate viral load and identify the genotype

269
Q

does Hep C spread via breastfeeding?

A

no

270
Q

in children over 3 years old treatment for hep C inovles

A

pegylated interferon and ribavirin, but treatment is usually delayed until adulthood

271
Q

commonest cause of bacterial tonsillitis is

A

group A streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)

272
Q

most common cause of otitis media, rhino sinusitis and second most common bacterial cause of tonsillitis is

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae.

273
Q

waldeyer’s tonsillar ring refers too

A

adenoid, tubal tonsils, palatine tonsils and the lingual tonsil.

274
Q

centor criteria is for

A

probability of tonsillitis being due to bacteria infection

275
Q

centor criteria are

A

Fever over 38ºC
Tonsillar exudates
Absence of cough
Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)

276
Q

alternative to the centor critera is the

A

FeverPAIN score

277
Q

feverpain criteria

A
Fever during previous 24 hours
P – Purulence (pus on tonsils)
A – Attended within 3 days of the onset of symptoms
I – Inflamed tonsils (severely inflamed)
N – No cough or coryza
278
Q

first line for antibiotics in tonsillitis

A

penicillin.

279
Q

quinsy refers too and is a complication of

A

peritonsillar abscess, tonsillitis

280
Q

presentation of quinsy

A
Sore throat
Painful swallowing
Fever
Neck pain
Referred ear pain
Swollen tender lymph nodes
Trismus (unable to open mouth)
changes in voice.
281
Q

Tx for quinsy is

A

incision and drainage under GA

282
Q

No of episodes required for tonsillectomy

A

7 or more in 1 year
5 per year for 2 years
3 per year for 3 year

283
Q

complication of tonsillectomy is

A

bleeding

284
Q

options for post tonsillectomy bleeding are

A

IV access, group and save/crossmatch, hydrogen peroxide gargles or adrenalin topically applied.

285
Q

Otitis media is the name given to the

A

infection of the middle ear

286
Q

presentation of otitis media is

A

ear pain, reduced hearing, fever, cough, coryzal symptoms, sore throat and general unwellness

287
Q

normal tympanic membrane should look like

A

“pearly-grey”, translucent and slightly shiny. with cone of light reflex.

288
Q

otitis media ear presentation

A

bulging, red, inflamed looking membrane.

289
Q

for severe otitis media or immunocompromised antibiotics should be

A

amoxicillin for 5 days

290
Q

glue ear is known as

A

otitis media with effusion.

291
Q

otoscopy of glue ear should reveal

A

dull tympanic membrane with air bubbles of visible fluid level.

292
Q

if necessary glue ear may be treated with

A

grommets.

293
Q

audiometry sensorineural hearing loss results

A

both air and bone conduction readings will be more than 20 dB, plotted below the 20 dB line on the chart. on affected sides

294
Q

conductive hearing loss, audiometry results

A

bone conduction readings will be normal (between 0 and 20 dB), however air conduction readings will be greater than 20 dB,

295
Q

mixed hearing loss audiometry results

A

both air and bone conduction readings will be more than 20 dB, however there will be a difference of more than 15 dB between the two (bone conduction > air conduction).

296
Q

nosebleeds commonly arise from

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus, which is also known as Little’s area

297
Q

unstable severe nosebleed may require

A

Nasal packing using nasal tampons or inflatable packs

Nasal cautery using a silver nitrate stick

298
Q

cystic hygroma is a malformation of the

A

lymphatic system

299
Q

cystic hygroma can often me found on the

A

posterior triangle of the neck left side

300
Q

features of cystic hygromas are

A

Can be very large
Are soft
Are non-tender
Transilluminate

301
Q

mx of cystic hygroma is

A

aspiration

302
Q

thyroglossal cyst is the result of what persisting?

A

thyroglossal duct

303
Q

differential for thyroglossal cyst is

A

ectopic thyroid tissue

304
Q

features of thyroglossal cysts is

A

Mobile
Non-tender
Soft
Fluctuant

305
Q

diagnosis of thyroglossal cyst is

A

US or CT

306
Q

branchial cyst is the result of

A

second branchial cleft fails to properly form and instead the space fills with fluid

307
Q

branchial cyst usually presents

A

round, soft, cystic swelling between the angle of the jaw and the sternocleidomastoid muscle in the anterior triangle of the neck. This swelling will transilluminate with light,

308
Q

growth plates are made from

A

hyaline cartilage

309
Q

growth plate sits between the

A

epiphysis and metaphysis

310
Q

children have more what type of bone compared to adults

A

cancellous, flexible but less strong compared to cortical in adults.

311
Q

most likely fracture for children

A

greenstick, one side of the bone breaks.

312
Q

growth plate fractures classification are called

A

Salter Harris classification

313
Q

Salter harris classification of fractures

A
Type 1: Straight across
Type 2: Above
Type 3: BeLow
Type 4: Through
Type 5: CRush
314
Q

first principle of managing a fracture

A

mechanical alignment
Closed reduction via manipulation of the joint
Open reduction via surgery

315
Q

second principle of managing a fracture

A

achieving relative stability via

External casts
K wires
Intramedullary wires
Intramedullary nails
Screws
Plate and screws
316
Q

pain management in children step 1 and step 2

A

Step 1: Paracetamol or ibuprofen

Step 2: Morphine

317
Q

why is aspirin CI in children

A

spirin is contraindicated in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome

318
Q

0-4 years differentials for hip pain

A

Septic arthritis
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)
Transient sinovitis

319
Q

5-10 years differentials for hip pain

A

Septic arthritis
Transient sinovitis
Perthes disease

320
Q

10-16 years differentials for hip pain

A

Septic arthritis
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

321
Q

red flags for hip pain are

A
Child under 3 years
Fever
Waking at night with pain
Weight loss
Anorexia
Night sweats
Fatigue
Persistent pain
Stiffness in the morning
Swollen or red joint
322
Q

presentation of septic arthritis

A

Hot, red, swollen and painful joint
Refusing to weight bear
Stiffness and reduced range of motion
Systemic symptoms such as fever, lethargy and sepsis

323
Q

commonest cause of septic arthritis

A

staph. aureus

324
Q

other bacteria involved in septic arthritis

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea (gonococcus) in sexually active teenagers
Group A streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes)
Haemophilus influenza
Escherichia coli (E. coli)

325
Q

Ix of septic arthritis includes

A

aspiration with gram staining, crystal microscopy, culture and antibiotics sensitivities

326
Q

does transient synovitis occur alongside a fever?

A

no

327
Q

transient synovitis often occurs a few weeks post

A

viral URTI

328
Q

pathology of Perthe’s disease is

A

Perthes disease involves disruption of blood flow to the femoral head, causing avascular necrosis of the bone

329
Q

main complication of Perther’s disease is

A

neovascularisation leading to a soft and deformed femoral head causing early osteoarthritis

330
Q

Perthe’s presentation

A

Perthes disease present with a slow onset of:

Pain in the hip or groin
Limp
Restricted hip movements
There may be referred pain to the knee

NO HISTORY OF TRAUMA

331
Q

Ix for Perthe’s disease

A

X-rat first lne, blood tests, technetium bone scan and MRI

332
Q

Mx of perthe’s involves

A
regular x-rays,
 Bed rest
Traction
Crutches
Analgesia
PT and sometimes surgery.
333
Q

SUFE refers too

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

334
Q

presenting symptoms of SUFE

A

Hip, groin, thigh or knee pain
Restricted range of hip movement
Painful limp
Restricted movement in the hip

335
Q

examination signs of SUFE

A

hip will be externally rotated and restricted internal rotation

336
Q

common bacteria for osteomyelitis is

A

Staph. aureus

337
Q

presentation of osteomyelitis

A
Refusing to use the limb or weight bear
Pain
Swelling
Tenderness
low grade fever
338
Q

IX for osteomyelitis

A

x-rays, MRI, bone scan, blood tests (WBC, ESR, CRP), blood culture, bone marrow aspirate or bone biopsy,

339
Q

mx for osteomyelitis

A

antibiotics therapy, drainage and debridement.

340
Q

common site for osteosarcoma is the

A

femur

341
Q

main presenting features for osteosarcoma are

A

persistent bone pain, bone swelling, a palpable mass and restricted joint movements.

342
Q

Dx for osteosarcoma is

A

urgent X-ray, raised ALK P,

343
Q

staging for osteosarcoma involves

A
CT scan
MRI scan
Bone scan
PET scan
Bone biopsy
344
Q

X-ray of osteosarcoma will reveal

A

periosteal reaction (irritation of the lining of the bone) that is classically described as a “sun-burst” appearance

345
Q

Mx of osteosarcoma is

A

MDT, surgical resection, limp amputation and adjuvant chemotherapy.

346
Q

talipes equinovarus refers too

A

plantar flexion and supination.

347
Q

Talipes calcaneovalgus refers too

A

dorsiflexion and pronation.

348
Q

non-surgical method for treating talipes is

A

Ponseti method - cast is applied to hold it in position. This is repeated over and over until the foot is in the correct position.

349
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) refers too

A

abnormal development leading to instability in the hips and a tendency or potential for subluxation or dislocation.

350
Q

Risk factors for DDH

A

First degree family history
Breech presentation from 36 weeks onwards
Breech presentation at birth if 28 weeks onwards
Multiple pregnancy

351
Q

examination signs that indicate DDH are

A

Different leg lengths
Restricted hip abduction on one side
Significant bilateral restriction in abduction
Difference in the knee level when the hips are flexed
Clunking of the hips on special tests

352
Q

two tests for DDH are

A

ortolani test and barlow test

353
Q

ortolani test involves

A

with the baby on their back with the hips and knees flexed, abduct the hips and apply pressure to anteriorly dislocate hips.

354
Q

barlow test invovles

A

baby on their back with the hips adducted and flexed at 90 degrees and knees bent at 90 degrees to see if femoral head will dislocate posteriorly

355
Q

suspicion of DDH warrants

A

US

356
Q

Mx of DDH is through

A

palvik harness to keep the hips flexed and abducted. surgical requires a hip spica cast to immobilise the hip.

357
Q

ricket’s is caused by

A

deficiency in vitamin D or calcium

358
Q

vit D is essential for

A

essential in calcium and phosphate absorption from the intestines and kidneys as well as regulating bone turnover and reabsorption.

359
Q

low calcium causes

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism as the parathyroid gland tries to raise the calcium level by secreting parathyroid hormone.

360
Q

rickets/osteomalacia presents with

A
Lethargy
Bone pain
Swollen wrists
Bone deformity
Poor growth
Dental problems
Muscle weakness
Pathological or abnormal fractures
361
Q

ricket bone deformities include

A

bowing of the legs, knock knees, craniotabes (soft skull), delayed teeth development, rachitic rosary where the ends of the rips expand.

362
Q

initial Ix for rickets are

A

Serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D and X-ray

363
Q

other Ix for rickett’s

A

Serum calcium may be low
Serum phosphate may be low
Serum alkaline phosphatase may be high
Parathyroid hormone may be high

364
Q

Tx of ricket’s

A

Vit D replacement and calcium supplementation.

365
Q

achondroplasia is the common cause of

A

disproportionate short stature

366
Q

achondroplasia gene is the

A

fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), is on chromosome 4.

367
Q

genetic transmission of achondroplasia is

A

autosomal dominant

368
Q

Osgood-Schlatters Disease is caused by

A

inflammation at the tibial tuberosity where the patella ligament inserts.

369
Q

typical demographic for presentation of osgood schlatters disease

A

It typically occurs in patients aged 10 – 15 years, and is more common in males. Osgood-Schlatter disease is usually unilateral, but it can be bilateral.

370
Q

presentation of osgood schlatter’s disease

A

Visible or palpable hard and tender lump at the tibial tuberosity
Pain in the anterior aspect of the knee
The pain is exacerbated by physical activity, kneeling and on extension of the knee

371
Q

Mx of osgood schlatter’s disease

A

Reduction in physical activity
Ice
NSAIDS (ibuprofen) for symptomatic relief
stretching and PT post

372
Q

rare complication of osgood schlatter’s disease is

A

avulsion fracture

373
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta is also known as

A

brittle boen disease

374
Q

pathology of osteogenesis imperfecta is

A

collegen malformation

375
Q

presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Hypermobility
Blue / grey sclera (the “whites” of the eyes)
Triangular face
Short stature
Deafness from early adulthood
Dental problems, particularly with formation of teeth
Bone deformities, such as bowed legs and scoliosis
Joint and bone pain

376
Q

medical treatments for osteogensis imperfecta are

A

Bisphosphates to increase bone density

Vitamin D supplementation to prevent deficiency

377
Q

acute rheumatic fever is triggered by

A

autoimmune condition triggered by streptococcus bacteria.

378
Q

pathophysiology of rheumatic fever

A

group A beta-haemolytic streptococcal stimulate ab response but the antigens matches that of the myocardium of the heart.

379
Q

rheumatic fever is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction.

A

type 2

380
Q

presentation of rheumatic fever

A
2-4 weeks following tonsillitis with: 
Fever
Joint pain
Rash
Shortness of breath
Chorea
Nodules

and migratory arthritis

381
Q

heart involvement of rheumatic fever

A

Tachycardia or bradycardia
Murmurs from valvular heart disease, typically mitral valve disease
Pericardial rub on auscultation
Heart failur

382
Q

skin involvement of rheumatic fever includes

A

Firm painless nodules occur over extensor surfaces of joints, such as the elbows. The erythema marginatum rash involves pink rings of varying sizes affecting the torso and proximal limbs.

383
Q

CNS involvement of rheumatic fever includes

A

this involves irregular, uncontrolled and rapid movements of the limbs. known as chorea or St vitus’ dance

384
Q

assessment for rheumatic fever includes

A

Throat swab for bacterial culture
ASO antibody titres
Echocardiogram, ECG and chest xray

385
Q

criteria for diagnosis of rheumatic feveris

A

Jones criteria

386
Q

major Jones crtieria for rheumatic fever

A
two of 
J – Joint arthritis
O – Organ inflammation, such as carditis
N – Nodules
E – Erythema marginatum rash
S – Sydenham chorea
387
Q

minor criteria for rheumatic fever are

A

Fever
ECG Changes (prolonged PR interval) without carditis
Arthralgia without arthritis
Raised inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)

388
Q

management of rheumatic fever should invovle

A

NSAIDs (e.g. ibuprofen) are helpful for treating joint pain
Aspirin and steroids are used to treat carditis
Prophylactic antibiotics (oral or intramuscular penicillin) are used to prevent further streptococcal infections and recurrence of the rheumatic fever. These are continued into adulthood.
Monitoring and management of complications

389
Q

kawasaki disease is an example of

A

medium vessel vasculitis

390
Q

features of kawasaki disease are

A

ersistent high fever (above 39ºC) for more than 5 days. Children will be unhappy and unwell. The key skin findings are a widespread erythematous maculopapular rash and desquamation

plus: 
Strawberry tongue (red tongue with large papillae)
Cracked lips
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Bilateral conjunctivitis
391
Q

ix for Kawasaki disease include

A

Full blood count can show anaemia, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
Liver function tests can show hypoalbuminemia and elevated liver enzymes
Inflammatory markers (particularly ESR) are raised
Urinalysis can show raised white blood cells without infection
Echocardiogram can demonstrate coronary artery pathology

392
Q

Tx for kawaski disease includes

A

High dose aspirin to reduce the risk of thrombosis

IV immunoglobulins to reduce the risk of coronary artery aneurysms

393
Q

Henoch-Scholein purpura is an example of

A

IgA vasculitis with a purpuric rash.

394
Q

presentation of HSP

A
Purpura (100%), 
Joint pain (75%), 
Abdominal pain (50%) 
Renal involvement (50%)
395
Q

risk of HSP complications with abdominal pain

A

gastrointestinal haemorrhage, intussusception and bowel infarction.

396
Q

HSP effect on the kidneys are

A

IgA nephritis with risk of nephrotic syndrome.

397
Q

Mx of HSP is with

A

supportive with urine dipstick monitoring and blood pressure monitoring.

398
Q

ehler’s danlos syndrome is an example of

A

enetic conditions that cause defects in collagen, resulting in hypermobility of the patient’s joints and abnormalities in connective tissue

399
Q

presentation of ehlers danlos syndrome is

A
Hypermobility in joints
Joint pain after exercise or inactivity
Joint dislocations, for example the shoulders or hips
Soft stretchy skin
Easy bruising
Poor healing of wounds
Bleeding
Headaches
Autonomic dysfunction causing dizziness and syncope
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Abdominal pain
Irritable bowel syndrome
Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea
Premature rupture of membranes in pregnancy
Urinary incontinence
Pelvic organ prolapse
Temporomandibular joint dysfunction
Myopia and othe
400
Q

what is the score system for hypermobility

A

Beighton

401
Q

beighton score for hypermobility

A

Palms flat on floor with straight legs (score 1)
Elbows hyperextend
Knees hyperextend
Thumb can bend to touch the forearm
Little finger hyperextends past 90 degrees

402
Q

what syndrome can occur alongside ehler danlos syndrome

A

Postural orthostatic tachycardia, result of autonomic dysfunction resulting in presyncope, syncope

403
Q

systemic JIA is also known as

A

Still’s disease

404
Q

systemic JIA (still’s disease) presents with

A
Subtle salmon-pink rash
High swinging fevers
Enlarged lymph nodes
Weight loss
Joint inflammation and pain
Splenomegaly
Muscle pain
Pleuritis and pericarditis
405
Q

biochemical markers of systemic JIA are

A

Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factors are typically negative. There will be raised inflammatory markers, with raised CRP, ESR, platelets and serum ferritin.

406
Q

key complication of JIA is

A

macrophage activation syndrome (MAS),

407
Q

macrophage activation syndrome (MAS) involves

A

It presents with an acutely unwell child with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleeding and a non-blanching rash. It is life threatening. A key investigation finding is a low ESR.

408
Q

In children that have fevers for more than 5 days, the key non-infective differentials to remember

A

are Kawasaki disease, Still’s disease, rheumatic fever and leukaemia.

409
Q

Polyarticular JIA is the equivalent of

A

rheumatoid arthritis: most kids are seronegative for rheumatoid factor.

410
Q

polyarticular JIA presents with

A

mild fever, anaemia and reduced growth.

411
Q

Oligoarticular JIA classic associated feature is

A

A classic associated feature with oligoarticular JIA is anterior uveitis. Patients should be referred to an ophthalmologist for management and follow up of uveitis.

412
Q

Oligoarticular JIA commonly effects the

A

larger joints such as the knee or ankle.

413
Q

Oligoarticular JIA biochem

A

Antinuclear antibodies are often positive, however rheumatoid factor is usually negative.

414
Q

The majority of patients with enthesitis-related arthritis have the what gene?

A

HLA B27 gene.

415
Q

entheses refers too

A

tendon of a muscle inserts into a bone.

416
Q

When assessing patients for enthesitis-related arthritis, consider signs and symptoms of

A

psoriasis (psoriatic plaques and nail pitting) and inflammatory bowel disease (intermitted diarrhoea and rectal bleeding).

417
Q

enthesitis-related arthritis are prone too

A

prone to anterior uveitis, and should see an ophthalmologist for screening, even if they are asymptomatic.

418
Q

psoriatic arthritis is a

A

seronegative inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis, with either polyarthritis affecting small joints or asymmetrical arthritis affecting large joints of the lower limb

419
Q

medical Mx of JIA

A

NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen
Steroids
Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
Biologic therapy, such as the tumour necrosis factor inhibitors

420
Q

Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) examples

A

such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine and leflunomide

421
Q

TNF inhibitor examples

A

etanercept, infliximab and adalimumab

422
Q

eczema presents usually with

A

in infancy with dry, red, itchy and sore patches of skin over the flexor surfaces (the inside of elbows and knees) and on the face and neck.

423
Q

pathophysiology of eczema

A

eczema is caused by defects in the barrier that the skin provides. Tiny gaps in the skin barrier provide an entrance for irritants, microbes and allergens that create an immune response,

424
Q

the key to maintenance of eczema is

A

create an artificial barrier over the skin to compensate for the defective skin barrier. this is via thick greasy emollients.

425
Q

specialist treatments for eczema include

A

severe eczema include zinc impregnated bandages, topical tacrolimus, phototherapy and systemic immunosuppressants, such as oral corticosteroids, methotrexate and azathioprine.

426
Q

steroid ladder mild

A

Mild: Hydrocortisone 0.5%, 1% and 2.5%

427
Q

very potent steroid ladder

A

Dermovate (clobetasol propionate 0.05%)

428
Q

complications of topical steroid application for eczema

A

thinning of the skin, stretch marks, bruising and telangiectasia.

429
Q

commonest opportunistic infection in eczema is

A

staphylococcus aureus

430
Q

eczema herperticum is a viral skin infection caused by

A

commonly herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV)

431
Q

presentation of eczema herpeticum is

A

widespread, painful, vesicular rash with systemic symptoms such as fever, lethargy, irritability and reduced oral intake. There will usually be lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes).

432
Q

management of eczema herpeticum is with

A

aciclovir.

433
Q

presentattion of psoriasis

A

dry, flaky, scaly, faintly erythematous skin lesions that appear in raised and rough plaques, commonly over the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees and on the scalp

434
Q

guttate psoriasis presents as

A

commonly occurs in children. It presents with many small raised papules across the trunk and limbs. The papules are mildly erythematous and can be slightly scaly.

435
Q

guttate psoriasis can be triggered by

A

streptococcal throat infection

436
Q

what are the two types of psoriasis that are considered emergencies?

A

Pustular psoriasis and Erythrodermic psoriasis

437
Q

three signs of psoriasis

A

auspitz sign, koebner phenomenon, residual pigmentation.

438
Q

auspitz sign refers too

A

small points of bleeding when plaques are scraped off

439
Q

koebner phenomenon refers too

A

development of psoriatic lesions to areas of skin affected by trauma

440
Q

management of psoriasis is through

A

Topical steroids
Topical vitamin D analogues (calcipotriol)
Topical dithranol
Topical calcineurin inhibitors (tacrolimus) are usually only used in adults
Phototherapy with narrow band ultraviolet B light is particularly useful in extensive guttate psoriasis

441
Q

specialist treatment of psoriasis includes

A

this might include methotrexate, cyclosporine, retinoids or biologic medications.

442
Q

psoriasis nail signs include

A

nail pitting, thickening, discolouration, ridging and onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed).

443
Q

psoriasis is associated with

A

obesity, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension and type 2 diabetes.

444
Q

what bacteria plays a key role in acne?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

445
Q

pathology of acne.

A

increased sebum trapping kerating and blocking the pilosebaceous unit. this leads to swelling and inflammation as the follicle becomes infected.

446
Q

Macules are

A

flat marks on the skin

447
Q

papules are

A

small lumps on the skin

448
Q

management to reduce inflammation in acne is

A

Topical benzoyl peroxide reduces inflammation, helps unblock the skin and is toxic to the P. acnes bacteria

449
Q

what treatments reduce production of sebum in acne

A

topical retinoids (chemicals related to vitamin A) slow the production of sebum or Oral contraceptive pill can help female patients stabilise their hormones and slow the production of sebum

450
Q

antibiotic options for acne are

A

Topical antibiotics such as clindamycin (prescribed with benzoyl peroxide to reduce bacterial resistance)
Oral antibiotics such as lymecycline

451
Q

last line option for acne includes

A

Oral retinoids for severe acne (i.e. isotretinoin)

452
Q

complications of isotretinoin.

A

Dry skin and lips
Photosensitivity of the skin to sunlight
Depression, anxiety, aggression and suicidal ideation. Patients should be screened for mental health issues prior to starting treatment.
Rarely Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis
teratogenic.

453
Q

measles rash appears as

A

Koplik spots are greyish white spots on the buccal mucosa. They appear 2 days after the fever. They are pathognomonic

454
Q

natural history for measles rash is

A

The rash starts on the face, classically behind the ears, 3 – 5 days after the fever. It then spreads to the rest of the body. The rash is an erythematous, macular rash with flat lesions.

455
Q

scarlet fever rash usually appears as

A

red-pink, blotchy, macular rash with rough “sandpaper” skin that starts on the trunk and spreads outwards. Patients can have red, flushed cheeks.

456
Q

Tx for scarlet fever is

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin (penicillin V) for 10 days

457
Q

features of scarlet fever are

A
Fever
Lethargy
Flushed face
Sore throat
Strawberry tongue
Cervical lymphadenopathy
458
Q

cause of scarlet fever is

A

streptococcus pyogenes (group A strep) bacteria.

459
Q

is scarlet fever a notifiable disease?

A

yes notify public health.

460
Q

rubella rash is

A

milder erythematous macular rash compared with measles. The rash starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body.

461
Q

rubella lash usually lasts

A

The rash classically lasts 3 days.

462
Q

Parvovirus causes what kind of rash?

A

fifth disease, slapped cheek syndrome and erythema infectiosum.

463
Q

parvovirus infection starts with

A

mild fever, coryza and non-specific viral symptoms such as muscle aches and lethargy. After 2 – 5 days the rash appears quite rapidly as a diffuse bright red rash on both cheeks, as though they have “slapped cheeks”. A few days later a reticular mildly erythematous rash affecting the trunk and limbs appears that can be raised and itchy. Reticular means net-like

464
Q

Roseola Infantum is caused by

A

human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)

465
Q

presentation of roseola infantum

A

It presents 1 – 2 weeks after infection with a high fever (up to 40ºC) that comes on suddenly, lasts for 3 – 5 days and then disappears suddenly. There may be coryzal symptoms, sore throat and swollen lymph nodes during the illness. When the fever settles, the rash appears for 1 – 2 days. The rash consists of a mild erythematous macular rash across the arms, legs, trunk and face and is not itchy.

466
Q

key complication of roseola infantum

A

febrile convulsion.

467
Q

erythema multiform presents with

A

produces characteristic “target lesions”. Target lesions are red rings within larger red rings, with the darkest red at the centre, similar to a bulls-eye target. It does not usually affect the mucous membranes but can cause a sore mouth (stomatitis). as well as flu like symptoms.

468
Q

erythema multiform is a rash caused by

A

hypersensitivity reaction.

469
Q

erythema multiform with no underlying cause should prompt suspicion of

A

mycoplasma pneumonia.

470
Q

urticaria caused by the release of

A

histamine

471
Q

urticaria Mx is

A

Fexofenadine is usually the antihistamine of choice for chronic urticaria. Oral steroids may be considered as a short course for severe flares.

472
Q

specialist options for urticaria

A

Anti-leukotrienes such as montelukast
Omalizumab, which targets IgE
Cyclosporin

473
Q

chickenpox rash is

A

widespread, erythematous, raised, vesicular (fluid filled), blistering lesions. The rash usually starts on the trunk or face and spreads outwards affecting the whole body over 2 – 5 days. Eventually the lesions scab over, at which point they stop being contagious.

474
Q

chickenpox is caused by and spread through

A

Varicella zoster virus and spread spread through direct contact with the lesions or through infected droplets from a cough or sneeze.

475
Q

VZV lays dormant in the

A

sensory dorsal root ganglion cells and cranial nerves reactivate later in life as shingles or Ramsay Hunt syndrome.

476
Q

chickenpox itching can be eased with

A

calamine lotion and chlorphenamine (antihistamine).

477
Q

hand, foot and mouth disease may be managed by

A

coxsackie A virus

478
Q

hand, foot and mouth disease presentation

A

ypical viral upper respiratory tract symptoms such as tiredness, sore throat, dry cough and raised temperature. After 1 – 2 days small mouth ulcers appear, followed by blistering red spots across the body.

479
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum is caused by

A

pox virus

480
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum presentation

A

small, flesh coloured papules (raised individual bumps on the skin) that characteristically have a central dimple.

481
Q

Pityriasis Rosea prodrome

A

These include headache, tiredness, loss of appetite and flu-like symptoms.

482
Q

Pityriasis Rosea initial rash

A

herald patch. This is a faint red or pink, scaly, oval shaped lesion that is 2cm or more in diameter, usually occurring somewhere on the torso.

483
Q

Pityriasis Rosea later rash general presentation

A

The rash consists of widespread faint red or pink, slightly scaly, oval shaped lesions, usually less than 2 cm in diameter. On the torso they can be arranged in a characteristic “christmas tree” fashion,

484
Q

Seborrhoeic Dermatitis effects the

A

scalp, nasolabial folds and eyebrows.

485
Q

Seborrhoeic Dermatitis cause

A

malassezia yeast

486
Q

first line treatment for infantile seborrheoic dermatitis

A

First line treatment is by applying baby oil, vegetable oil or olive oil, gently brushing the scalp then washing off. When this is not effective, white petroleum jelly can be used overnight to soften the crusted areas before washing off in the morning.

487
Q

second line for infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

clotrimazole or miconazole

488
Q

first line for paediatric seborrhoeic dermatitis of the scalp

A

ketoconazole shampoo

489
Q

tinea capitis refers too

A

refers to ringworm affecting the scalp

490
Q

Tinea pedis refers to

A

ringworm affecting the feet, also known as athletes foot

491
Q

tinea cruris refers too

A

ringworm of the groin

492
Q

tinea corporis refers too

A

ringworm of the body

493
Q

onychomycosis refers too

A

fungal nail infection

494
Q

most common type of fungus to cause ringworm is called

A

trichophyton

495
Q

ring worm presents as

A

itchy rash that is erythematous, scaly and well demarcated. There is often one or several rings or circular shaped areas that spread outwards, with a well demarcated edge. The edge is more prominent and red and the area in the centre is more faint in colour.

496
Q

Mx of ringworm is with

A

icroscopy, culture and anti-fungals

497
Q

antifungal creams include

A

clotrimazole and miconazole

498
Q

oral antifungals include

A

fluconazole, griseofulvin and itraconazole

499
Q

tinea incognito may be caused by

A

treating ringworm with steroids.

500
Q

scabies are caused by

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

501
Q

scabies presents with

A

incredibly itchy small red spots, possibly with track marks where the mites have burrowed. The classic location of the rash is between the finger webs,

502
Q

scabies are treated with

A

permethrin cream over whole body, or Oral ivermectin as a single dose

503
Q

scabies in the immunocomprimised may cause

A

crusted scabies.

504
Q

erythema nodosum pathology

A

hypersensitivity reaction causing inflammation of subcutaneous fat on the shins.

505
Q

erythema nodosum often indicates

A

IBD or sarcoidosis

506
Q

impetigo usually presents as

A

golden crust

507
Q

impetigo often caused by

A

staphylococcus skin infection

508
Q

Tx for non bullous impetigo includes

A

Topical fusidic acid , antiseptic cream or in severe cases oral flucloxacillin.

509
Q

widespread bullous impetigo is called

A

staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome.

510
Q

staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome pathology

A

Staph. aureus produced epidermolytic toxins that are protease enzymes

511
Q

what sign is positive in SSSS syndrome

A

nikolsky sign

512
Q

nikolsky sign refers too

A

ery gentle rubbing of the skin causes it to peel away.

513
Q

Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) refer too

A

epidermal necrosis, resulting in blistering and shedding of the top layer of skin.

514
Q

Tx for SJS and toxic epidermal necrolysis are

A

steroids, immunoglobulins and immunosuppressant medications