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Module 4 > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

2 most common types of atrial septal defect

A
  1. Ostrium secondum (septum secondum does not close)

2. Patent foramen ovale

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2
Q

Most common complication of atrial defect septal

A

Increased risk of stroke if patient has VTE (clots pass from right atrium into left atrium towards the brain)

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3
Q

A mid-systolic murmur alongside a split S2 heart sound may be a sign of

A

Atrial septal defect

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4
Q

Pulmonary hypertension secondary to septal defects is termed

A

Eisenmenger’s Syndrome

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5
Q

3 RF of atrial septal defect

A
  1. Down’s Syndrome
  2. Epstein’s abnormality
  3. Foetal alcohol syndrome
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6
Q

2 RF for ventricular septal defect

A
  1. Down’s Syndrome

2. Turner’s Syndrome

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7
Q

Mitral regurgitation and tricuspid regurgitation in someone with Down’s Syndrome may be a sign of

A

Ventricular septal defect

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8
Q

Coarctation of the aorta involves narrowing of the aortic arch at which point

A

Ductus arteriosus

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9
Q

Blood pressure differences in all limbs, alongside a left ventricular heave may be a sign of

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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10
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is most commonly associated with

A

Turner’s Syndrome

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11
Q

The ductus arteriosus should close at

A

2-3 weeks after birth

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12
Q

What shunt is seen in a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Left-to-right

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13
Q

Widened pulse pressure and dyspnoea in a premature baby 1 month after birth may be a sign of

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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14
Q

4 pathologies in Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  1. Ventricular septal defect
  2. Overriding aorta
  3. Pulmonary stenosis
  4. Right ventricular hypertrophy
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15
Q

Pathophysiology behind an overriding aorta

A

The aortic valve is shifted to the right causing it to receive deoxygenated blood

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16
Q

Tet spells can be defined as

A

Intermittent, life-threatening cyanotic episodes

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17
Q

CXR finding for Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Boot-shaped heart

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18
Q

Type of shunt in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Right-to-left shunt

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19
Q

What maternal infection can cause congenital heart abnormalities such as Tetralogy of Fallot and patent ductus arteriosus

A

Rubella

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20
Q

What murmur is atrial septal defect associated with?

A

Mid systolic, fixed P2, crescendo-decrescendo

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21
Q

What 3 conditions is an ejection systolic murmur without a fixed P2, that radiates to the axilla/back on inspiration a sign of?

A
  1. PS
  2. Tetralogy of Fallot
  3. Coarctation of the aorta
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22
Q

A subclavian holosystolic murmur could be a sign of

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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23
Q

A pan systolic murmur is

A

VSD

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24
Q

An ejection systolic murmur at the 4th ICS LSB could be a sign of

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiopathy

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25
Q

4 referral criteria for a child with a heart murmur

A
  1. Louder on standing
  2. Diastolic
  3. Louder than 2/6
  4. Associated symptoms
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26
Q

4 cyanotic heart disease conditions

A

ASD, VSD, PDA, transposition of the great arteries

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27
Q

Explain Eisenmenger’s syndrome

A

Right-to-left shunt defect arising when pulmonary pressure > systemic pressure, causing cyanosis.

Seen in worsened VSD, ASD, PDA.

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28
Q

What is the only cyanotic heart disease condition that causes cyanosis (if stable)?

A

Transposition of the great arteries

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29
Q

SVT is caused by

A

Additional electrical circuits between the atria-ventricles creating a short circuit, increasing heart rate

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30
Q

Palpitations and light-headedness in a child may be a sign of

A

SVT

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31
Q

WPW syndrome is marked by what ECG finding and where is the re-entry point?

A

Slurred Q wave, Bundle of Kent

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32
Q

3 management points for a child with SVT

A

Valsava manœuvre, carotid sinus massage, catheter ablation

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33
Q

Emergency management of persistent SVT

A

Cardioversion, IV-antiarrythmics (adenosine)

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34
Q

Most common respiratory tract infection in a 1 year old

A

Bronchiolitis

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35
Q

Most common respiratory tract infection in a 3 year old

A

Epiglottitis

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36
Q

Laryngomalacia is also described as

A

Noisy breathing

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37
Q

Assume an apnoea episode if what two things have occurred?

A

Floppiness or cyanosis

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38
Q

Referral criteria for respiratory tract infections (5 points)

A
  1. Child is seriously unwell
  2. Severe respiratory distress
  3. Central cyanosis
  4. Persistent oxygen saturations < 92%
  5. Observed/reported sleep apnoea
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39
Q

Considerations for referral in respiratory tract infections

A
  1. RR > 60 breaths/min
  2. Poor feeding/inadequate oral intake (50-75%)
  3. Clinical dehydration
  4. Risk factors such as < 3 months, immunodeficiency, comorbidities
  5. Carer’s ability to care affected/long distance to hospital
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40
Q

Croup is a URTI caused by

A

Virus - parainfluenza, influenza, RSV, diphtheria (can also cause epiglottitis)

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41
Q

Croup CXR finding

A

Steeple sign

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42
Q

RSV is what type of virus

A

Pneumoviridae

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43
Q

Whooping cough is a gram -ve URTI caused by what bacteria?

A

Bordetella pertussis

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44
Q

What is the catarrhal phase in whooping cough?

A

7-10 days incubation period where URTI symptoms begin to develop. Patient is contagious.

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45
Q

How long is a patient contagious for with whooping cough?

A

Onset of symptoms - 48 hours after 1st dose of Abx. If Abx does not work, 21 days.

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46
Q

What is the paroxysmal phase of whooping cough?

A

Severe coughing fits (paroxysms) with inspiratory whooping 1 week after URTI symptoms develop

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47
Q

Apnoea, cyanosis, post-jussive vomiting and a cough could indicate

A

Whooping cough

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48
Q

What Abx for whooping cough?

A

Macrolide

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49
Q

Most common cause of bronchiolitis and what time of year does it arise?

A

RSV - Sept-April (winter)

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50
Q

When should a parent/carer seek medical help for a child with a RTI? (6 points)

A
  1. Increased RR and effort
  2. Apnoea
  3. Cyanosis
  4. Reduced fluid intake (50-75%), signs of dehydration (dry mouth, reduced urine)
  5. Persistent worsening of fever
  6. Less responsive child (unable to wake, cannot stay awake)
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51
Q

3 ways to differentiate viral-induced wheeze from asthma?

A
  1. Appears only when child has a viral illness
  2. Family history of viral-induced wheeze
  3. No history of atopy
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52
Q

Condition that causes chronic stridor on inhalation, that sounds like whistling?

A

Laryngomalacia

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53
Q

Laryngomalacia is a partial airway obstruction caused by what folds?

A

Aryepiglottic folds becoming shortened - forces epiglottis into an omega shape - causing the supraglottic larynx to flop

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54
Q

What wheeze should be investigated further?

A

Focal wheeze

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55
Q

5 signs/symptoms of pneumonia in a child

A
  1. High fever > 39 degrees
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Raised RR > 60 pm < 5 months, > 50 pm 6-12 months, > 40 pm 12 months +
  4. Focal wheeze
  5. Oxygen sats < 95%
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56
Q

Results suggestive of asthma (4 points)

A
  1. Spirometry ratio < 70%
  2. +ve > 12% BDR
  3. Peak flow > 20% variability
  4. FeNO > 35 ppb in children
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57
Q

Asthma management in < 5 years

A
  1. SABA inhaler
  2. ICS or LTRA
  3. Offer the other option
  4. Referral
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58
Q

Asthma management in a child aged 5-12 years

A
  1. SABA
  2. ICS
  3. LABA (salmeterol) if there is a good response
  4. Increase ICS dose +/- LTRA or oral theophylline
  5. Increase ICS to high dose
  6. Referral
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59
Q

What age do undescended testicles tend to drop?

A

3-6 months

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60
Q

What type of hydrocele is congenital?

A

Communicating - drains peritoneal fluid into the tunica vaginalis membrane.

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61
Q

Complication of hydroceles

A

Inguinal hernia

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62
Q

Neonates with a bell clapper deformity are at risk of

A

Testicular torsion

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63
Q

The meatus forms in what weeks of pregnancy

A

9-12 weeks

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64
Q

Chordee refers to

A

Penile head that curves downwards

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65
Q

Biggest RF for hypospadias

A

FH

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66
Q

Hypospadias may be a sign of

A

Intersex

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67
Q

Proteus mirabilis is seen in boys with

A

Uncomplicated cystitis

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68
Q

How many children with UTI have a urological abnormality?

A

50%

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69
Q

Who is most at risk of UTI in first year of life?

A

Uncircumcised boys

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70
Q

A child with an unexplained fever > 38 degrees and loin pain should have a

A

Urine sample sent off for microscopy and culture

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71
Q

A 2 year old child with a LUTI should have a

A

Dipstick and urine sample sent off

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72
Q

When should you treat for UTI?

A

+ nitrites +/- + leukocytes

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73
Q

3 referral criteria in paediatric UTI cases

A
  1. Seriously unwell
  2. Baby < 3 months (send urine sample off)
  3. Pyelonephritis
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74
Q

2 first-line Abx for UUTI

A

Cefalexin or co-amoxiclav

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75
Q

2 first-line Abx for LUTI

A

Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin (if eGFR > 45 ml/min)

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76
Q

3 ultrasound criteria for children with UTI

A
  1. < 6 months and first UTI
  2. < 6 months and recurrent UTI
  3. > 6 months and recurrent UTI (6 weeks)
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77
Q

VUR causes

A

Retrograde flow of urine to kidney

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78
Q

Posterior urethral valve causes

A

Retrograde flow to bladder in newborn boys

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79
Q

HUS triad

A
  1. AKI
  2. Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
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80
Q

HUS tends to be caused by

A

Bloody gastroenteritis - STEC E. Coli 0.157

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81
Q

Nappy rash tends to be caused by what dermatitis?

A

Irritant contact dermatitis

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82
Q

What can worsen nappy rash? (3 things)

A

Bottle feeding, cloth nappies, antibiotics

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83
Q

What should be avoided in nappy rash?

A

Poor quality/cloth nappies, powders, perfumed soaps

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84
Q

Examples of 2 barrier creams for nappy rash

A

Zinc and castor oil ointment or white soft paraffin ointment (sudocrem)

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85
Q

Cradle cap is also known as

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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86
Q

Cradle cap is often colonised by what?

A

Malassezia yeast

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87
Q

Management of cradle cap

A
  1. Brush scalp with a light covering of vegetable or olive oil
  2. This will loosen scales
  3. Gently wash it off with shampoo
  4. Soak thick scales with white petroleum jelly
  5. Topical anti-fungals
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88
Q

Urticaria can be treated with what

A

Antihistamines - fexofenadine

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89
Q

Bull’s-eye target lesions that are symmetrical in nature may be a sign of

A

Erythema multiform

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90
Q

5 causes of erythema multiform

A
  1. Infection: HSV, mycoplasma pneumonia, hepatitis B, EBV
  2. Aminopenicillins
  3. Anticonvulsants
  4. Lidocaine
  5. Vaccines
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91
Q

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome affects how much of the body area and what is it characterised by?

A

10%

  • Acute onset of rash
  • Erosions and ulcerations of mucosa
  • Nikolsky’s sign - epidermal layer sloughs off
92
Q

5 causes of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

A
  1. Trimethoprim
  2. Sulfamethoxaole
  3. Penicillins
  4. NSAIDs
  5. Infection
93
Q

Cellulitis is caused by

A

S. pyogenes and S. aureus

94
Q

1st line antibiotics for Class I cellulitis

A

Flucloxacillin or clarithromycin

95
Q

Bullous impetigo is caused by

96
Q

Non-bullous impetigo is caused by

A

S. aureus +/- S. pyogenes

97
Q

Strep impetigo can cause

A

Glomerulonephritis

98
Q

Honey-coloured red sores may be a sign of

A

Non-bullous impetigo

99
Q

How long is a child contagious for with impetigo?

A

48 hours after initial treatment

100
Q

1st and 2nd line treatment for non-bullous impetigo

A

1st: Hydrogen peroxide 1%
2nd: Topical flucloxacillin and fusidic acid 2%

101
Q

Management of bullies impetigo

A

Oral flucloxacillin

102
Q

3 referral criteria for impetigo

A
  1. Recurrent
  2. Bullous - in babies particularly
  3. Immunocompromised/very unwell
103
Q

Lice is caused by the

A

Pediculus humans capititis

104
Q

The white spots in hair are

105
Q

When should a parent treat their child for lice?

A

Wet comb on days 1, 5, 9, 13 and 17 using medicated lotions and sprays

106
Q

Scabies is caused by

A

Parasitic itch mite sarcoptes scabiei

107
Q

Itching that worsens at night, with a red papule rash could be

108
Q

Management of scabies

A
  1. Treat all household members and close friends/family
  2. Wash all bedding, clothes and towels at 60 degrees or quarantine for 72 hours
  3. Topical insecticide (permethrin)
  4. Treat itch with topical hydrocortisone and antihistamines
109
Q

Coeliac’s Disease attacks where in the GI tract and what 2 histopathological findings does it cause?

A

Jejunum

Villous atrophy and crypt hypertrophy

110
Q

Newly-diagnosed T1DM should be tested for what condition due to what common gene

A

Coeliac Disease - HLA-DQ2 gene

111
Q

Itchy blisters on the abdomen of a child, coupled with mouth ulcers and failure to thrive are signs of

A

Coeliac Disease

112
Q

Rare gastrointestinal cause of cerebellar ataxia in children

A

Coeliac Disease

113
Q

What should be excluded for when testing for Coeliac Disease?

A

IgA Deficiency

114
Q

3 autoantibodies often seen in Coeliac Disease?

A

Anti-TTG
Anit-EMA
Anti-DGP

115
Q

Meconium ileus is a sign of

116
Q

Hirschsprung’s Disease causes no peristalsis in the distal bowel/rectum - obstruction due to absence of what

A

Myenteric plexus parasympathetic ganglion nerve cells

117
Q

Congenital diverticular disease that commonly causes intussusception

A

Meckel’s

118
Q

5 conditions that predispose someone to intussusception

A
  1. Concurrent viral illness
  2. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
  3. CF
  4. Meckel’s
  5. Polyps
119
Q

5 RF of abdominal pain in children

A
  1. Persistent/bilious vomiting
  2. Severe/chronic diarrhoea
  3. Unexplained fever
  4. Rectal bleeding
  5. Weight loss/failure to thrive
120
Q

5 causes of medical abdominal pain in children

A
  1. Constipation
  2. UTI
  3. Coeliac Disease
  4. IBD
  5. Mesenteric Adenitis
121
Q

Define mesenteric adenitis

A

Abdominal lymphadenopathy following URTI/tonsillitis or during gastroenteritis.

122
Q

Abdominal migraines often lead to headache migraines. What signs/symptoms are seen?

A
  1. Central abdo pain > 1 hour

2. Associated N&V, headache, aura

123
Q

Management of non-organic, functional abdominal pain

A
  1. Maintain a healthy lifestyle
  2. Minimise stress
  3. Do not focus/ask about pain
  4. Avoid NSAIDs
  5. School counsellor/child psychologist
124
Q

A RUQ sausage-shaped mass might indicate

A

Intussusception

125
Q

Projective vomiting and an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen could indicate

A

Pyloric stenosis

126
Q

What becomes narrowed in pyloric stenosis?

A

The pyloric sphincter

127
Q

Investigation for pyloric stenosis

128
Q

Ramstedt’s operation is performed to correct

A

Pyloric stenosis

129
Q

Gastroenteritis is most commonly caused by

130
Q

E. coli 0157 causes

A

HUS - avoid antibiotics.

131
Q

Bloody diarrhoea may be caused by what 2 bacteria

A

E. coli 0157 and Yersinia enterocolitica

132
Q

Right-sided abdominal pain and a fever could be what 2 conditions

A
  1. Appendicitis

2. Mesenteric adenitis - secondary to gastroenteritis (yersinia enterocolitica)

133
Q

Antibiotics are used to treat gastroenteritis when

A

There is a high risk of complications

134
Q

5 signs/symptoms of constipation

A
  1. < 3 stools/week
  2. Hard stools
  3. Rabbit dropping stools
  4. Overflow soiling
  5. Retentive posturing
135
Q

RF in childhood constipation

A
  1. Abnormal anus
  2. Ribbon shaped stools (stenosis)
  3. Neurological signs
  4. No meconium in first 48 hours
  5. Vomiting
136
Q

Laxative of choice for idiopathic paediatric constipation

A

Movicol - Macrogol (osmotic laxative)

137
Q

High doses of laxatives are given to children who are

A

Faecally impacted

138
Q

Encopresis is

A

Faecal incontinence.

139
Q

3 complications of gastroenteritis in a child

A
  1. E.coli 0157 - HUS
  2. Lactose intolerance
  3. GBS

Another is reactive arthritis

140
Q

What immunoglobulin mediates cow’s milk allergy?

141
Q

GI symptoms after consuming cow’s milk is a sign of

A

Cow’s milk protein intolerance (allergy is also allergic symptoms)

142
Q

Mothers breastfeeding babies with a cow milk protein allergy should

A

Avoid dairy and slowly introduce milk

143
Q

Lactose intolerance can arise following

A

Gastroenteritis

144
Q

Oesophagitis in children is most commonly caused by

A

Allergies/atopy - eosinophilic oesophagus

145
Q

Haematemesis and melena in a child with a tummy bug may be a sign of

A

Mallory-weiss tear secondary to severe vomiting

146
Q

The most common cause of childhood jaundice

A

Viral hepatitis A/B

147
Q

Jaundice that presents in a baby late in the first week of life and peaks in week 2-3

A

Breast milk jaundice (unconjugated bilirubin)

148
Q

5 causes of neonatal jaundice

A
  1. Prematurity
  2. Rh incompatibility (RBC haemolysis)
  3. Biliary atresia
  4. Breast milk
  5. Congenital hypothyroidism
149
Q

Complication of hyperbilirubinaemia in a neonate

A

Kernicterus - bilirubin induced encephalopathy

150
Q

What can be used to measure bilirubin levels in a premature baby?

A

Transcutaneous bilirubinometer

151
Q

4 reasons to suspect kernicterus

A
  1. Clinical features of kernicterus
  2. Serum bilirubin > 340 mm/l
  3. Rising bilirubin > 8.5 mm/l/hour
  4. Prematurity or illness
152
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis and what immunoglobulin stimulates the mast cells to release histamine?

A

Type I

IgE

153
Q

3 drugs given in anaphylaxis

A
  1. IM adrenaline
  2. Antihistamines (chlorphenamine or cetirizine)
  3. Steroids - IV hydrocortisone
154
Q

Most common virus and most common bacteria that causes tonsillitis

A

Rhinovirus

Group A beta HS - Strep. pyogenes

155
Q

Centor criteria and score for bacterial tonsillitis

A

> 3 = 40-60% chance of bacterial tonsillitis

  1. Fever > 38 degrees
  2. Exudate
  3. No cough
  4. Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
156
Q

Abdominal pain, vomiting and a headache in a child may be a sign of

A

Tonsilitis

157
Q

Pharyngitis that presents in the winter/spring tends to be

A

Bacterial (GABHS)

158
Q

Bacterial pharyngitis may cause

A

Scarlet fever

159
Q

Enterovirus pharyngitis may cause

A

Hand, foot and mouth

160
Q

Rhinorrhoea, nasal congestion and cough are present in what type of pharyngitis?

161
Q

Complication of tonsillitis and management

A

Quinsy

Urgent ENT referral - incision and IV antibiotics

162
Q

Abx advice for a mother worried about their infant with otitis media ( points)

A
  1. Most cases resolve without antibiotics
  2. Back-up Abx: If symptoms do not improve in 3 days or worsen/or child becomes systemically unwell
  3. Antibiotics tend to only benefit those who are very unwell, high risk of complications, children < 2 with bilateral infection
163
Q

A 2 month old baby presents with a fever > 38 degrees and is pulling at their ear. What is your management?

A

Admit to hospital

164
Q

1st line Abx for AOM

A

Amoxicillin or clarithromycin

165
Q

3 antibiotic options for a child with AOM

A
  1. No Abx
  2. Delayed Abx
  3. Immediate Abx
166
Q

Diagnosis and management for a child with recurrent AOM and hearing loss

A

Chronic OM with effusion/glue ear.

Audiology referral, most cases resolve in 3 months

167
Q

Lifestyle change for a child with COM/recurrent AOM

A

Parents stop smoking

168
Q

What type of sinusitis has symptoms that peak and resolve within 10 days?

169
Q

Purulent nasal discharge, facial pain and headache are signs of what type of sinusitis?

170
Q

Chronic sinusitis is associated with

A

Allergic rhinitis
Asthma
CF

171
Q

ABG finding of pyloric stenosis

A

Metabolic alkalosis: Low K, low Na

172
Q

Most common leukaemia in children

173
Q

2nd most common leukaemia in children

174
Q

Cause of ALL in children

A

t(21;21) chromosomal translocation

175
Q

What type of leukaemia peaks in under 2s?

176
Q

What type of leukaemia peaks in 2-3 year olds?

177
Q

What does an abdominal x-ray in pregnancy predispose an unborn child to?

178
Q

What childhood leukaemia has a better survival rate?

179
Q

NICE recommends immediate admission for children with what 2 signs that could suggest leukaemia

A

Unexplained petechiae and hepatomegaly

180
Q

If a child presents with non-specific signs suggestive of leukaemia, what should be performed within 48 hours?

A

FBC + blood film

181
Q

Describe physiologic anaemia of infancy

A

Reduction in Hb around 6-9 weeks of life due to high oxygen exposure in birth suppressing EPO production and thus RBC production

182
Q

5 causes of anaemia in infants

A
  1. Physiological anaemia
  2. Prematurity
  3. Twin-twin transfusion
  4. Blood loss (i.e. lots of blood tests)
  5. Haemolysis: ABO, RH, G6PD
183
Q

Helminth infection in the developing world is associated with

A

Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

184
Q

SCA is caused by a defect in the beta-globin gene of what chromosome

185
Q

Vaso-occlusive crises are hallmarked by what

A

Severe bone pain

186
Q

Acute chest syndrome in SCA is due to

A

Lung capillary blockage

187
Q

RBCs blocking splenic blood flow in SCA is known as

A

Sequestration crisis

188
Q

Parvovirus B19 infection is associated with

A

Aplastic crisis

189
Q

A 7 year old child presents to A&E with a non-blanching rash and recurrent nosebleeds. They have no meningeal features, but the mother reports that the child had a viral infection 2 weeks prior. What is the diagnosis?

190
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis is what type of condition and seen in what ethnic background?

A

Autosomal dominant

Northern Europeans

191
Q

3 paediatric presentations/signs/symptoms in children with undiagnosed T1DM

A
  1. DKA (most common)
  2. Secondary enuresis
  3. Recurrent infections (UTI, skin, fungal)
192
Q

DKA in children can cause

A

Cerebral oedema

193
Q

Triad of signs of DKA

A
  1. Ketoacidosis - marked by raised blood ketones and raised bicarbonate
  2. Dehydration - marked by polydipsia and polyuria
  3. Potassium imbalance - hypokalaemia symptoms but hyperkalaemia in blood serum
194
Q

Management of DKA

A

Slow IV fluid resus with potassium and fixed rate insulin infusion

195
Q

Management of DKA cerebral oedema

A

Slow IV fluids, IV mannitol and IV hypertonic saline

196
Q

Congenital hypothyroidism is picked up in the

A

Newborn blood spot screening test

197
Q

Prolonged jaundice, poor feeding and constipation in a neonate could indicate

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

198
Q

Autoimmune hypothyroidism is also known as

A

Hashimoto’s

199
Q

What 2 conditions is autoimmune hypothyroidism associated with

A

Coeliac and T1DM

200
Q

Hashimoto’s disease is marked by what 3 blood findings

A

Raised TSH + low T4
Anti-TPO antibodies
Anti-thyroglobulin antibodies

201
Q

Nausea and vomiting commonly causes what electrolyte imbalance

A

Hyponatraemia

202
Q

Gastroenteritis in children causes what electrolyte imbalance

A

Hypernatraemia

203
Q

Lethargy, thirst and confusion are signs of

A

Hypernatraemia

204
Q

Chronic diarrhoea causes what type of electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hypokalaemia

205
Q

ABG finding in someone with vomiting

A

Metabolic alkalosis - hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia

206
Q

ABG finding in someone with diarrhoea

A

Metabolic acidosis - hyperkalaemia

207
Q

Small volumes of dark urine and hyponatramia indicates

208
Q

Meningitis can cause reduced vasopressin/ADH. What can this cause?

A

DI - inability to concentrate urine due to reduced vasopressin or reduced sensitivity to vasopressin

209
Q

Meningitis can cause continuous ADH release in spite of serum osmolarity.

A

SIADH - small volumes of dark urine and hyponatraemia.

210
Q

SIADH treatment

211
Q

Pain management for children (2 points)

A
  1. Paracetamol or ibuprofen

2. Morphine

212
Q

Valgus feet are commonly seen in

213
Q

Knock knees is associated with

A

Genetics, vitamin C/D/calcium deficiency

214
Q

Bow legs is associated with

A

Achondroplasia, Rickets, Blount’s disease and reduced space in the womb

215
Q

Osgood-Sclatter disease is caused by

A

Small avulsion/tear fractures at the proximal tibial epiphyseal plate/tibial tuberosity

216
Q

Gradual pain and swelling below the knee that is relieved at rest in an active adolescent is a sign of

A

Osgood-Sclatter Disease

217
Q

Complication of Osgood-Sclatter Disease

A

Avulsion tear

218
Q

2 tests for developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Ortolani and Barlow

219
Q

Nursemaids elbow refers to

A

Partial elbow dislocation (pulled elbow), common in toddlers

220
Q

Talipes is also known as

221
Q

Slipped upper femoral can be defined as

A

Instability of the proximal femoral growth plate

222
Q

Open bone fractures are associated with

A

Osteomyelitis

223
Q

Recent viral URTI and a limp in a afebrile child under 10 could suggest

A

Transient synovitis/irritable hip

224
Q

Fever and limp in a child may be

A

Septic joint

225
Q

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head in a 8 year old boy may be

A

Perthes Disease

Module 4 (2 decks)

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