Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Main things covered in hx?

A

hild’s age, nature of the problem and observation

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2
Q

HPC for hx?

A

parent/child accounts; ADLs affected and how parents taken action; why referred and parent worries; to check – general health, normal growth, E+D and behaviour change; wet/dirty nappies

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3
Q

PMH for hx?

A

maternal obstetric complications; birthweight; perinatal problems (jaundice, fits, fever, bleeding, feeding); immunisations and past illnesses; medication, alcohol, drugs

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4
Q

SH for hx?

A

family (normal SH that you would take but for family members); child happy at home/school; impact of illness on carers and benefits, same father of kids; siblings; play, eating, sleeping, pets; who looks after child; hopes, fears, expectations of parents for child in hospital

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5
Q

Development covered in paeds overview?

A

parental concerns, developmental milestones, previous child health surveillance checks, enuresis, child behaviour, sleeping problems, progress at school; use ABCD for consciousness if needed; faltering growth = red flag; plot weight, height and head circumference for infants on chart

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6
Q

How to stage puberty?

A

Tanner staging

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7
Q

Define low birthweight?

A

under 2500g, very low = under 1500g and extremely low is under 1000g

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8
Q

What is small for gestational age?

A

low weight under 10th percentile for age

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9
Q

2 types of IUGR?

A

symmetrical = fetus affected from early pregnancy; asymmetrical = foetus affected later e.g. pre-eclampsia; most catch up to height/weight in 2 years but adults slightly shorter; coronary HD and obesity

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10
Q

Behavioural problems in kids?

A

food refusals, overeating (comfort), pica (eating things which aren’t food)

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11
Q

Causes of prematurity?

A

smoking, poverty, malnutrition, PMH, GU infection, chorioamnionitis, pre-eclampsia, DM, polyhydramnios, closely spaced pregnancies, multiple, uterine, malformations, placenta praevia (placenta covers cervix causing bleeding during pregnancy), abruption, premature membrane rupture

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12
Q

S+Ss mastitis?

A

tender, hot reddened area of breast with/out fever; can’t breastfeed

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13
Q

Ages for normal pulses?

A

110-160 <1; 95-150 2-5; 80-120 5-12

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14
Q

Causes of HT in children?

A

renal parenchymal disease or essential mainly; same treatment as adults but only if symptomatic

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15
Q

Problems from HT crisis and treatment in children?

A

cerebral oedema, HF, seizures, pulmonary oedema, renal failure; use nifedipine, labetol or sodium nitroprusside

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16
Q

S+Ss HF in children?

A

poor feeding, sweating, tachypnoea, tachycardia, gallop rhythm, cardio/hepatomegaly

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17
Q

Describing HS in children?

A

describe timing, duration, loudness, radiation and site of max intensity; 3rd HS is normal

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18
Q

Signs for severely ill children (GRUNTING)?

A

Grunting, weak/continuous high-pitched cry, tachypnoea; Rib recession, nasal flaring, sternocleidomastoid retraction, stridor; Unequal/unresponsive pupils, hypotonia, focal CN; Not using limbs/lying still, odd posture, decerebrate (arms and legs extended); Temp >38 (6 months) or 39; I have a bad feeling (judgement); Neck rigidity, non-blanching rash, meningism; Green bile in vomit

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19
Q

4 fields considered during normal child development?

A

gross motor, vision/fine motor, hearing/speech/language and social/emotional/behavioural

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20
Q

Advice for parents with crying babies?

A

peaks at 6-8 wks and subsides by 4 months; support parents so preventing post-natal blues, reduce their stress (take it in turns); teach that this normal and say techniques to deal (rocking, singing, hungry or tired, hugging); colic (paroxysmal crying with legs up – hunger)

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21
Q

What are the median and limit ages for milestones in development?

A
  • Take into account median age (MA) for each milestone

* Limit ages (LA) – when child should have reached milestone

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22
Q

List main child development milestones in the first 5 years?

A

o Unsupported walking – 12 months, 18 months (later more likely to be hypermobile)
o Sat up – 6 months
o Crawling – 8-9 months (bottom shufflers later)
o Motor development follows CNS development
o 3-4 word sentences – 2.5-3
o Interactive play – 2.5-3
o Drink from cup – 12 months
o Vision/fine motor >1
o Hearing/speech/language from 18 months
o Social from 2.5
o Respond to name and familiar words – 12 months
o Orthoptist screening age 5

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23
Q

When is developmental correction intervention needed?

A

• Correction not required til after 2 (cognitive problems appear later than developmental)

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24
Q

Tests for development in child assessment?

A

Denver developmental screening test; Griffiths and Bailey developmental scales; IQ tests; cultural backgrounds (for cognitive); parents’ evaluation of developmental status; ages and stages questionnaire; Brigance screens II, modified checklist for autism in toddlers

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25
Q

How to assess hearing in newborns?

A

optoacoustic emission or auditory brainstem response audiometry

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26
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

cataract interfering with optic pathway development

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27
Q

Define delay with respect to development?

A

slow acquisition of all skills in a field

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28
Q

Define disorder with respect to development?

A

maldevelopment of a skill

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29
Q

Define impairment with respect to development?

A

loss/abnormality of a function

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30
Q

Failure to thrive definition and tests?

A

poor weight gain in infancy; MSU, coeliac serology, U+E, glucose, LFT, calcium, igs, CRP, TSH, FBC, sweat, urinary aas, stools, CXR, US renal/CNS

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31
Q

Failure to thrive short stature definition and causes?

A

height <3rd percentile; hypopituitarism, low GH (arginine stimulation test – use somatotrophin to treat)

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32
Q

Causes of tallness?

A

thyrotoxic, precocious puberty, Marfan’s, homocystinuria

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33
Q

Causes of abnormal heaviness?

A

snacks, low exercise, hypothyroidism, Cushing’s, Prader-Willi, Bardet-Biedl, Cohen syndrome, polycystic ovary syndrome

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34
Q

Abnormal motor signs in children?

A

head control, rolling, sitting, walking balance, gait, involuntary movements

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35
Q

Causes of developmental delay in children?

A

central motor deficit, congenital myopathy, spinal cord lesions, global developmental delay

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36
Q

Define cerebral palsy?

A

oo Permanent disorder of movement, posture or motor function from non-progressive abnormality in brain development under the age of 2

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37
Q

What is affected in cerebral palsy?

A

cognition, communication, vision, perception, sensitisation, behaviour, seizure and secondary MSK problems; abnormal posture, feeding difficulties, gait, asymmetrical head function

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38
Q

What are the causes of cerebral palsy?

A

80% antenatal = CV haemorrhage, structural maldevelopment, TORCH (toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex); intra-partum = hypoxic-ischaemic brain injury; postnatal = meningitis, head trauma, hypoglycaemia, hydrocephalus, hyperbilirubinaemia

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39
Q

Diagnosis for cerebral palsy?

A

clinical exam; posture, tone, hand function and gait; infection screen; CT/MRI head; EEG/NCS; TFTs, FBC, U+Es, bone chemistry, blood gases

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40
Q

Spastic changes in cerebral palsy?

A

UMN damage; unilateral limbs only (facial sparing); 4-12 months = fisting of hand affected, flexed arm, hand function, toe pointing when lifted, extensor posturing, poor head control, low central tone, seizures, microcephaly

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41
Q

Dyskinetic changes in cerebral palsy?

A

involuntary, uncontrolled, stereotyped movements; more evident with movement/stress; chorea, athetosis (slow writhing movements) and dystonia; intellect can be unimpaired; floppiness; signs from basal ganglia damage; hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy (brain damage after hypoxic-ischaemic event, resp depression at birth, low pH

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42
Q

Treatment for dyskinesia in cerebral palsy?

A

resus, avoid hyperthermia, exclude other causes, treat seizures)

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43
Q

Ataxic changes in cerebral palsy?

A

genetic; trunk and limb hypotonia, poor balance and delayed motor development

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44
Q

Treatment for ataxia in cerebral palsy?

A

botox, intrathecal baclofen and DBS (for hypotonia)

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45
Q

Examples of speech and language delay?

A

hearing loss, global developmental delay, anatomical deficit, environmental deprivation and familial pattern; disorders of expression, comprehension, speech intelligibility, pragmatics and social skills; hearing tests and SALT; symbolic toy test and Reynell test

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46
Q

S+Ss of dyspraxia?

A

disorder of motor planning; no findings on neuro exam; features like handwriting, dressing, literacy, copying, drawing, messy eating

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47
Q

Types of hearing impairment in children?

A

sensorineural presents soon after birth and irreversible; microtia (undeveloped external ear) and meatal atresia can be helped with bone conduction hearing aids; conductive hearing loss from middle ear mild-moderate (chronic otitis media); Down’s, cleft palate, atopy prone to middle ear loss

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48
Q

Management of hearing impairment in children?

A

impedence audiometry tests (pressure in middle ear) determine functioning; long term abx or decongestants; grommets sometimes

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49
Q

S+Ss visual impairment?

A

ocular malformations; not smiling responsively by 6 weeks, poor visual response, nystagmus, squint

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50
Q

Causes of visual impairment?

A

retinoblastoma = life threatening; squint = retinal reflexes checked (corneal light reflex test and cover test) and over 3 months refer to ophthalmologists (commonly refractive error but can be retinoblastoma); paralytic = rare, concomitant (common); corneal light reflex test and cover test; hypermetropia = most common refractive error (long-sigthedness); myopia (near-sightedness) in adolescence; astigmatism common; patch good eye to improve bad eye

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51
Q

Sick children treated at home and conservatively?

A

• Usually mild and can be treated at home; hosp admission rate increased = lower threshold, lack of instant test to rule out serious illness, repeated admission for children with complex illnesses; parents can stay overnight with them; consider psychosocial factors if treated at home

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52
Q

Treatment of general pain in children?

A

observation and parent input; distractions used and topical anaesthetics; use NO, mild sedatives or hypnotics, opioids and post-op analgesics; nerve-blocks used; IM drug injections should be avoided; aspirin not given under 16 as Reye syndrome (encephalopathy and liver failure); OD high from longer half-life and low renal excretion

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53
Q

Normal resp rate in kids?

A

30-40 in infants, 25-35 in young children and 20-25 in older children

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54
Q

Normal bp in kids?

A

80-90 in infants, 85-100 in young children and 90-110 in older children

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55
Q

Exam in those with resp/neuro/circ failure?

A

look for history, O/E, trauma, rash, smell, scars and medicalert bracelets; more likely to resp/hypoxia than cardiac failure; disinterested and not alert

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56
Q

Treatment for shockable VF/VT?

A

after 3rd shock give adrenaline and amiodarone

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57
Q

Causes of resp failure?

A

lungs can’t give good gas exchange; causes = alveolar hypoventilation, v/q ventilation, diffusion impairment and intrapulmonary shunting; less than 92% O2 sats give O2

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58
Q

Treatment for resp failure?

A

can give CPAP or biphasic positive airways pressure; intubation for = progressive hypoxaemia, reduced consciousness, progressive neuromuscular weakening, tiring

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59
Q

S+Ss resp failure?

A

tachycardia, resp>50, nasal flaring, accessory muscle use, head retraction cyanosis, unable to feed, tired and sats <92%

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60
Q

Why low fluid in kids and compensated and decompensated shock?

A

higher BMR means need more fluids; lose from = no oral, fever, diarrhoea, burns, capillary leak; dehydration shock = metabolic acidosis, low BP; compensated shock = tachycardia, tachypnoea, low skin turgor, delayed cap refill, pale and mottled skin; decompensated = acidotic breathing, bradycardia, confusion, blue peripheries, no urine output, hypotension

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61
Q

Treatment for compensated/decompensated shock?

A

PICU if IV fluids not helping; can have renal support and inotropic support

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62
Q

Problems and treatment for septic shock?

A

fluid maldistribution with cap leak; may need central venous monitoring and catheterisation; clotting derangements, pulmonary oedema, DIC, myocardial dysfunction, tilt head 20-30 seconds to reduce ICP risk and mannitol, early abx

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63
Q

Risks in babies emergency medicine?

A

gestation <32 weeks, duration >1 minute, repeat event, CPR, concerning history, abnormal O/E, SIDS = 2-4 months (unexpected cot death;

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64
Q

Tests for babies in emergency care?

A

obs, ECG, swab for pertussis, sats

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65
Q

Prevention of SIDS?

A

sleep supine, stop overheating [16-20 degrees in room] and no smoking, use a grow bag so baby can’t move, not too much bedding; baby must have a post-mortem; CONI programme, grief counselling for parents

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66
Q

What is involved in children coma scale?

A

motor = 6carrying out request, 5localised pain response, 4withdraw to pain, 3flexor pain response, 2extensor posturing to pain, 1no response; verbal = 5orientated, 4crying but consolable, 3inconsistently inconsolable, 2inconsolable crying, 1no response; eye opening = 4spontaneous, 3from speech, 2to pain, 1none

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67
Q

Treatment and management of traumatic accidents?

A

always try to maintain brain blood supply if head injury and evacuate haemorrhage (otherwise get brain injury); liver and spleen rupture apparent immediately; pneumothorax and haemopericardium from blunt trauma; ECG for electrical burns and do burn size and depth (fluids if >10% body size)

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68
Q

Causes of poisonings?

A

accidental, iatrogenic, deliberate or intentional

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69
Q

Prevention of poisonings?

A

child resistant containers, low packet number of analgesia

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70
Q

S+Ss poisoning?

A

behavioural changes, hyperactivity, developmental delay, chronic lead nephropathy, abdo pain, headache, lethargy, vomiting, seizures

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71
Q

Poisoning treatment?

A

chelation effective; activated charcoal (not for iron and pesticides); Iv acetylcysteine for paracetamol; Iv desferrioxamine for iron (gives red-orange urine); intubation if low GCS; supportive management; haemodialysis for salicylates; TCAs for sodium bicarb and ventilation; blood glucose and ventilate for alcohol; IV desferoxamine for iron; atropine and pralidoxime for pesticides

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72
Q

Specific antidotes for poisons?

A

beta-blockers = atropine (bradycardia) with glucagon and sometimes adrenaline/dopamine; CO = high flow O2, mannitol for cerebral oedema; digoxin = atropine, digoxin specific antibody; opioids = IV naxolone; methanol/ethylene glycol = fomepizole; sulfonylureas = octreotide

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73
Q

Child abuse categories?

A

physical, emotional, sexual, neglect and fabricated illness (suffocate, give poisons, OD); witnessing intimate partner violence and FGM serious

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74
Q

Define neglect?

A

persistent failure to meet child’s physical and psychological needs

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75
Q

Risks for child neglect?

A

failure to meet parent’s expectations, born after forced sex, mental health problems, substance misuse, step-parents, domestic violence, closely spaced births, social isolation and poverty, disability

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76
Q

Factors to consider in child protection?

A

age, hx from child, plausibility of injury, background, injury reporting delay, inappropriate reaction of caregiver

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77
Q

Examples of neglect?

A

child miss appts, lack of immunisations, dirty, hungry, inadequate clothes, substance misuse, caregiver indifferent to child, child ‘wrong-gender’, partner separation, babies non-demanding, toddlers fearful/violent, school children violent/wetting/antisocial, adolescents self-harm

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78
Q

Sexual abuse examples?

A

porno, pregnant, STI, vaginal bleeding, itching, discharge, rectal bleeding, sexual acting out, self-harm, aggression, poor school performance; need to exclude other causes; can swab for perp or full radio skeleton under 30 months

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79
Q

Management for abuse?

A

does child need immediate protection; safety of other siblings; hosp or foster care; social workers

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80
Q

What is trisomy 18?

A

Edward’s syndrome

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81
Q

Edward’s syndrome S+Ss?

A

(small and bad heart and kidneys); low birth weight, prominent occiput, small mouth and chin, short sternum, flexed overlapping fingers, cardiac/renal malformations

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82
Q

What is trisomy 13?

A

Patau syndrome

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83
Q

Patau syndrome S+Ss?

A

(wrong with head, face, heart and kidneys), structural brain defects, scalp defects, small eyes, cleft palate, polydactyly and cardiac/renal malformations; amniocentesis and chromosomal analysis

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84
Q

S+Ss turner syndrome?

A

45X; early miscarriage, US foetal oedema; (lots of hormone problems and fluid) lymphoedema of hands and feet, koilonychia, short stature, neck webbing, wide nipples, CHD, delayed puberty, ovarian dysgenesis, hypothyroidism, renal abnormalities, pigmented moles, recurrent otitis media, normal intellect

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85
Q

Treatment of turner syndrome?

A

growth hormones therapy and oestrogen replacement

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86
Q

Klinefelter syndrome S+Ss?

A

– (tall and low sexually) infertility, hypogonadism, gynaecomastia, normal puberty, tall stature, normal intelligence; chorionic villus or amniocentesis

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87
Q

AD inheritance diseases?

A

achondroplasia, familial hypercholesterolaemia, Huntington’s, marfan’s, myotonic dystrophy

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88
Q

AR diseases?

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia, CF, Friedreich’s ataxia, glycogen storage disorders, sickle cell (increased by consanguinity – inbreeding)

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89
Q

X-linked diseases?

A

colour blindness; fragile X; haemophilia; DMD/BMD (only males affected)

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90
Q

Prader-Willi S+Ss?

A

hypotonia, faltering growth, obesity, learning difficulties and hypogonadism

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91
Q

Nooan syndrome S+Ss?

A

mild learning difficulties, short webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, congenital heart disease

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92
Q

Williams disease S+Ss?

A

short stature, congenital heart disease, mild-moderate learning difficulties

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93
Q

Glucocorticoids for neonates?

A

better lung maturity and surfactant production (better lungs)

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94
Q

Management for preterm labour?

A

antibiotics, corticosteroids, tocolysis (anti-contractions/labour), magnesium sulfate

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95
Q

Multiple birth problems?

A

preterm, IUGR (intrauterine growth restriction), congenital abnormalities, twin-twin transfusion

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96
Q

Problems with maternal DM?

A

more likely for polyhydramnios (too much amniotic fluid in sac) and pre-eclampsia (basically problems with too much fluid – osmosis); risks = macrosomia (large baby), IUGR, congenital abnormalities

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97
Q

Neonatal common problems?

A

hypos, resp distress, HCM, polycythaemia; foetal thrombocytopenia = risk of intracerebral haemorrhage; epidural can cause maternal pyrexia; oxytocin can cause foetal hypoxia; taxoplasmosis = bad news bears

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98
Q

Mask ventilation overview?

A

no breath, HR<100 and HR<60 = chest compressions

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99
Q

Non-invasive venitlation (CPAP) definition?

A

continuous positive airway pressure = air always into lungs to keep airways and alveoli open (no collapse) but can cause pneumothorax, reflux, feed intolerance and nasal trauma; NIPPV (nasal intermittent positive pressure ventilation); HFNC (high flow nasal cannula)

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100
Q

Invasive ventilation overview?

A

TCPL (time-cycled pressure limited ventilation) continuous heated and humidified gas through endotracheal tube; PTV (patient-triggered ventilation) like TCPL but triggered by a sensor detecting spontaneous breaths; HFV (high frequency ventilation); give sedation before (opiate with muscle relaxant e.g. morphine with suxamethonium); if giving pain relief give up to 50mcg/kg 5

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101
Q

Problems with acidotic infants inhaling meconium?

A

meconium aspiration syndrome – foetal faeces in bowel [meconium] is passed in utero so amniotic fluid is that colour); preterms prone to hypothermia; airway obstruction, surfactant dysfunction, pulmonary vasoconstriction, infection, chemical pneumonitis

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102
Q

What are Barlow’s and Ortolani’s?

A

how to check for developmental dysplasia of hip; risks = grils, positive FH, breech presentation, neuromuscular disorder

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103
Q

Examination of newborn?

A

birthweight, gestational age, head circ, fontanelle (where the skull plates meet), face, eyes (red reflex), palate, breathing, heart, abdo, femoral pulses, genitalia, anus, muscle tone, back, primitive reflexes, hips (everything)

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104
Q

Normal progression in neonates but can be seen as pathological?

A

neonatal urticaria 2/3 yrs; milia (white pimples on face); ubilical hernia resolves 2/3yrs; port-wine stain normal; strawberry naevus in 1st month

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105
Q

What is hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

significant labour event (failure gas exchange, interruption of umbilical blood flow, inadequate maternal placental perfusion; leading to cardioresp depression then hypoxia/hypercarbia/metabolic acidosis)

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106
Q

Management of hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

may need resp support = treatment of seizures, fluid restriction, hypotension treat, monitor hypos

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107
Q

Worrying signs with newborns?

A

not pink and crying (antenatal hist and check gestation); check not expanding; HR <60; use ventilation, resus and sometimes adrenaline; suck out meconium if needed

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108
Q

Some minor problems in newborns?

A

strawberry naevus (increase in size then disappear, bleed and ulcer); milia (pearly white papules from keratin retention in dermis); erythema toxicum (neonatal urticaria); stork mark (capillary dilation over eyelids, head and neck); swollen breasts; sticky eye (blocked tear duct but exclude chlamydia); feeding anxieties (turning blue, adjust feeding technique); red stained nappy (blood from cord/vagina/urinary urates); sneezing to clear amniotic fluid; harlequin colour change (transient, episodic demarcation erythema with contralateral blanching)

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109
Q

Birth injuries?

A

caput succedaneum (bruising and oedema), cephalhaematoma, chignon (bruising and oedema from ventouse), bruising to face, abrasions to skin, forcep marks; breech problems (brachial nerve palsy, humerus and femur fracture)

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110
Q

S+Ss preterm infant?

A

resp depression = alveolar collapse from surfactant deficiency; commoner in <28wks boys; S+Ss = tachypnoea (>60), wall recession, expiratory grunting, cyanosis

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111
Q

Treatment for preterm infants?

A

O2 (SEE PAGE 7 OF PAED NOTES FOR WHAT TYPE OF O2), surfactant therapy, CPAP; apnoea, bradycardia, desaturation treated with caffeine and CPAP

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112
Q

How to close patent ductus arteriosus?

A

prostaglandin synthetase inhibitor (indomethacin/ibuprofen used)

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113
Q

Fluids for preterm?

A

60-80l/kg, 150-180l/kg day 5; <35 wks = nasogastric; ill = PIC line; minerals for bone development

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114
Q

S+Ss necrotising enterocolitis?

A

inflammatory bowel necrosis; signs = feed tolerance, bile stained vomit, abdo distended, blood in stool, shock, tenderness

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115
Q

Risk for necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Cow’s milk

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116
Q

Treatment for necrotising enterocolitis?

A

stop oral feeding and broad spectrum abx, resp/circ support; can get bowel perforation, culture faeces

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117
Q

Causes intraventricular haemorrhage?

A

more in low birthweight and early birth as underdeveloped vessels and stress of birthing

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118
Q

Problems with IVH?

A

impair CSF drainage (hydrocephalus); ventricular tap used; if dilation happens can get cerebral palsy

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119
Q

Treatment for child retinopathy?

A

vascular proliferation of retina and laser therapy used and can be from early oxygen exposure

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120
Q

Treatment and causes of bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

damage from pressure from artificial ventilation/oxygen toxicity/infection; O2 requirement after 36 wks

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121
Q

Pathophysiology of jaundice?

A

half of newborns from release of Hb from RBCs

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122
Q

Kernicterus causes?

A

encephalopathy from deposition unconjugated in basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei

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123
Q

S+Ss kernicterus?

A

athetoid movements (slow, involuntary, writhing), deafness, and low IQ if not treated; lethargy, poor feeding; can develop choreoatheoid cerebral palsy, learning difficulties, sensorineural deafness

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124
Q

Causes of haemolysis?

A

jaundice in 24 hours (abnormal = ABO compatibility – coomb’s test, rhesus haemolytic disease, red cell anomalies); congenital infection can cause, breastfed, dehydration, UTI, hypothyroidism, biliary atresia, neonatal hepatitis syndrome, galactosaemia (prolonged jaundice), hypterbilirubinaemia (higher bilirubin from low RBC lifespan, decreased conjugation from hepatic immaturity, breastfeeding, no gut flora to remove bile pigment); bruising and polycythaemia exacerbate

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125
Q

Treatment of jaundice in children?

A

phototherapy (UV converts bilirubin to excretable products – eye damage, loss of fluids and diarrhoea), exchange transfusion (must be heated)

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126
Q

Causes of resp distress in neonates?

A

transient tachypnoea (most common), infection, mechanical obstruction, chemical pneumonitis (meconium), pneumothorax (vigorous resus/ventilation), diaphragmatic herniation (bowel sounds in one hemithorax), premature, low weight, low surfactant (leads to atelectasis)

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127
Q

Complications of resp distress?

A

hypoxia leading to renal failure, low CO, hypotension and acidosis

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128
Q

Treatment of resp distress?

A

CPAP, high flow nasal cannula, mechanical vent., circ support, caffeine and corticosteroids (beclomethasone) in mother as increases surfactant for preterm baby and inositol promotes surfactant maturation, delay cord clamping to increase blood to baby, sats 85-93% aim; if deterioration check DOPE (Displaced ET tube, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment failure)

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129
Q

Causes and treatment of pneumonia?

A

rupture of membranes, chorioamnionitis, low weight; broad spectrum abx

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130
Q

Causes of persistent pulmonary hypertension?

A

birth asphyxia, meconium aspiration, septicaemia, RDS; cyanosed

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131
Q

What is bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

persistent hypoxia with difficult ventilator weaning; treat same as resp distress

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132
Q

What is retinopathy of prematurity?

A

abnormal fibrovascular proliferation/retinal vessels = retinal detachment/visual loss

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133
Q

Causes of retinopathy of prematurity?

A

premature, low weight, supplement O2

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134
Q

Treatment of retinopathy of prematurity?

A

Diode laser therapy

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135
Q

Causes of sepsis?

A

bacteria from birth canal into amniotic fluid

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136
Q

S+Ss sepsis?

A

pneumonia and secondary bacteraemia; resp distress and temp instability

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137
Q

Investigations and treatment of sepsis?

A

sepsis screen (supportive, bloods, cultures, CXR, LP); treat with benzylpenicillin, amoxicillin and gentamicin; late onset usually staph epidermis and give flucloxacillin and gentamicin; resistance = vancomycin; group B strep, risk are same as pneumonia and give prophylactic abx

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138
Q

Listeria causes and S+Ss?

A

rare but from unpasteurised milk, soft cheese and undercooked poultry; flu-like, bacteraemia, widespread rash, meconium stained liquor

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139
Q

Treatment for conjunctivitis?

A

clean with saline; neomycin to treat redness; discharge can lead to gonococcal infection; stop before vision loss; chlamydia with purulent discharge and eye swelling and use erythromycin

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140
Q

S+Ss herpes simplex?

A

4 wks with local herpetic lesions and encephalitis; acyclovir for systemic

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141
Q

S+Ss hypoglycaemia?

A

irritability, apnoea, lethargy, drowsiness, seizures (like adult);

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142
Q

Prevention and treatment of hypos?

A

early milk and regular feeding prevent; glucose>2.6 IV needed and if not work then glucagon

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143
Q

What is a cleft lip?

A

no fusion frontonasal and maxillary processes

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144
Q

What is a cleft palate?

A

palatine processes and nasal septum

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145
Q

Repair of cleft palate/lip?

A

3 months; feeding tricky, secretory otitis media common

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146
Q

What is Pierre Robin and treatment?

A

micrognathia, posterior displacement of tongue and midline cleft of soft palate; mother to quit smoking and take folic acid

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147
Q

S+Ss small bowel obstruction?

A

persistent vomiting (bile stained); meconium passed; abdo distension if more distal

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148
Q

Causes of small bowel obstruction?

A

from duodenal atresia, congenital malformations, volvulus, meconium ileus

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149
Q

Treatment of small bowel obstruction?

A

Surgery

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150
Q

What happens in Hirschsprung’s?

A

absence of ganglion cells on myenteric and submucosal plexuses in large bowel, narrowed segment; explosive faeces and wind; use rectal suction biopsy of aganglionic bit

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151
Q

Treatment for large bowel obstruction?

A

nasogastric tube passed and aspirated; IV fluids

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152
Q

What is examphalos?

A

abdo contents through umbilical ring

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153
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

bowel through defect in anterior abdo wall

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154
Q

What are the 4 phases of growth?

A

foetal, infantile, childhood and pubertal growth spurt

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155
Q

What is the foetal growth phase?

A

size of mother and placental nutrient supply; severe IUGR = permanent short stature

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156
Q

What is the infantile growth phase?

A

18 months from nutrition, thyroid and good health; 15% of final height

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157
Q

What is the childhood phase of growth?

A

slow and steady; pituitary GH dependent (IGF-1 at epiphyses); can be decreased by chronic unhappiness; testosterone and oestradiol increase; measure = height, weight, head circ, BMI

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158
Q

Overview of puberty for women?

A

breast development (8.5-12.5yrs), pubic hair growth, menarche (2.5 yrs after puberty start)

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159
Q

Overview of male puberty?

A

testicular enlargement, pubic hair growth, rapid height

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160
Q

Overview of join male and female puberty changes?

A

acne, axillary hair, BO, mood changes; measure bone age and pelvic US if early/late

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161
Q

Definition of short stature?

A

height below 2nd centile; should be a year apart (measuring velocity = growth failure indicator)

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162
Q

What is the height centile?

A

mean of mother and father’s height +7 for boys and -7 for girls

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163
Q

What is constitutional delay?

A

variation of normal growth but still end up the same; GH treatment if insufficient growth by 4yrs

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164
Q

Causes of short stature?

A

low nutrition; coeliacs, crohns, CKD, CF and CHD; physical and emotional deprivation; hypothyroidism, GH deficiency, IGF1 deficiency, steroid excess, Cushings; GH low from primary or secondary to pituitary dysfunction (craniopharyngioma, hypothalamic tumour, head injury, meningitis)

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165
Q

How to identify short stature?

A

sitting height, subischial leg length (sitting-normal height), limited radiographic skeletal survey

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166
Q

Definition of micro and macrocephaly?

A

microcephaly = below 2nd centile, macro = above 98th centile

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167
Q

Causes of high ICP?

A

hydrocephalus, meningoencephalitis, head injury, sub/extradural bleeds, hypoxia, ketoacidosis, tumours, thrombosis

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168
Q

Other problems with the head in neonates?

A

), subdural haematoma, tumour; plagiocephaly (parallelogram head) is from babies on back and hypotonia; premature fusion of sutures = head distortion

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169
Q

Definition of premature sexual development?

A

<8yrs for girls and <9 for boys is abnormal

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170
Q

S+Ss premature sexual development?

A

precocious puberty, thelarche (breasts – between 6 months and 2yrs), pubarche, isolated premature menarche; gonadotrophin independent = excess androgens or adrenal tumours; gonadotrophin dependent = pituitary adenoma; GDPP common in girls; teste enlargement = GDPP but if only one bigger then gonadal tumour; prepubertal testes = independent

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171
Q

Causes of premature pubertal development?

A

hypothalamic hamartoma, LH receptor gene mutations, sporadic, familial male gonadotrophin-independent precocious puberty

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172
Q

Hx of premature sexual development?

A

polyuria, polydipsia, obesity, sleep, temp, high ICP, visual disturbance

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173
Q

Treatment of premature sexual development?

A

reduce rate of skeletal maturation, address psych and behavioural concerns and sometimes GnRH analogues to suppress by -ve feedback; can use inhibitors of androgens/oestrogen sometimes for independent (sometimes spironolactone)
o Differentiate adrenal hyperplasia from pubarche by urinary steroid profile, levels of blood androgens and bone age – more likely to have polycystic ovary syndrome

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174
Q

Treatment of delayed puberty in men?

A

oral oxandrolone used or IV testosterone in older boys

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175
Q

When need most nutrition?

A

1st 6 months

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176
Q

Why is breastfeeding good?

A

protective against necrotising enterocolitis and DM2 and breast/ovarian cancer for mum

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177
Q

Recommended intake for water, energy, protein, carbs?

A

• Water = 180mL/kg/day; energy = 130kal/day; protein = 2.5-3.1g/100kcal; 4.7-9g/kg; carbs = 7-14g/100kcal

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178
Q

Dehydration treatment?

A

dioralyte, IV fluids if needed using the calc (moderate to severe), use intraosseous route; pre-existing deficit = %dehydration x kg x 10

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179
Q

Dehydration S+Ss?

A

mild = 5%, moderate 10 and severe >10; weight loss, less skin turgor, tenting, shock, hypotension, high pulse, low cap refill, lethargy; careful of sudden changes in sodium levels

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180
Q

What is intraosseus transfusion for?

A

venous access (cv arrest, severe burns, prolonged status epilepticus, hypovolaemia, septic shock)

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181
Q

When no to use intraosseus transfusion?

A

don’t use for brittle bones (osteogenesis imperfecta, osteoporosis, infection, fracture at sight); goes into BM

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182
Q

Timeline for food in babies?

A

• COLOSTRUM – 1st few days of milk and more Igs; cow’s milk after 12 months and full fat until 5yrs; solid foods from 6 months

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183
Q

Hx for weight of babies?

A

week 1, 8, 12, 16 and 1 year; to ask = history of milk feeding, age of weaning, range of food, mealtime routine, 3-day food diary, weight centiles to assess weight faltering

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184
Q

At risk to malnutrition?

A

o Long-term illness most at risk; anorexia, malabsorption, increased energy requirements

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185
Q

Tests for malnutrition?

A

asked to keep 7 day food diary; nutritional assessment = anthropometry (physical proportions), labs (albumin and V+M), immunodeficiency

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186
Q

When to give enteral feeding?

A

when GI tract works; give continuously overnight

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187
Q

What is parenteral feeding?

A

all basic energy and vitamins given as solution

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188
Q

What to give parenteral feeding for?

A

for short bowel syndrome, enteropathies, motility disorder

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189
Q

Marasmus S+Ss?

A

(lack of calories – more than 3 standard deviations below weight-height ratio) = child wasted, withdrawn and apathetic

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190
Q

Kwashiorkor S+Ss?

A

(recurrent infection – low protein and aas) = generalised oedema and wasting, can develop acute infection like measles/gastroenteritis

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191
Q

General severe protein-calorie malnutrition?

A

flaky skin rash, abdo distension, angular stomatitis, sparse hair, diarrhoea, low plasma, glucose and electrolytes; often from breast milk before 12 months

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192
Q

Treatment of severe malnutrition?

A

stop hypos, hypothermia, dehydration; correct electrolytes; treat infection; micronutrient support and initiate feeds; sensory stimulation and emotional support

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193
Q

Problems with vit D deficiency?

A

rickets, osteomalacia, hypocalcaemia

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194
Q

Rickets and osteomalacia S+Ss?

A

both problems in mineralisation but rickets growing and the other one grown, when triggers hyperparathyroidism to normalise serum calcium but brittle bones; phosphate excreted and low serum so less absorption of calcium into bones

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195
Q

Hypocalcaemia S+Ss?

A

seizures, neuromuscular irritability, apnoea and cardiomyopathy); <2yrs more common and adolescence

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196
Q

Risks to increase vit D deficiency?

A

intestinal malabsorption, northern, dark skin, strict diets and prolonged PN

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197
Q

Diagnosis and S+Ss rickets?

A

in wrists, occipital/parietal bones, ankles, horizontal depression of chest, legs bowed; diagnose = diet hist, bloods, x-ray of wrist

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198
Q

Treatment of rickets?

A

D3 and correct other factors

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199
Q

Problems associated with obesity?

A

changes in bones, hypoventilation syndrome, NAFLD, gallbladder disease, DM2, HT, abnormal blood lipids and psych problems

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200
Q

Causes of obesity?

A

diet, exercise, low sleep = low leptin and high ghrelin, socioeconomic, meds; BMI>91st centile and obese >98th; <3yrs = genetics

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201
Q

Management of obesity?

A

change lifestyle (diet and exercise); change fam perceptions, orlistat (causes steatorrhoea)

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202
Q

Causes of childhood caries?

A

poor diet and oral health; psychosocial factors; streptococcus mutans and sobrinus

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203
Q

Prevention of childhood caries?

A

mouthwash, avoid sharing utensils, oral health edu, drink from own cup, wean from bottle 12-14 months, daily brushing, fluoridated water

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204
Q

What is posseting?

A

small amounts of milk with air brought up (not quite regurgitation and this isn’t quite as strong as vomiting which is forceful ejection of gastric contents); usually benign and sometimes mild GORD

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205
Q

Causes of vomiting?

A

bilous/prolonged/systemically unwell/faltering growth = RTI/UTI, pyloric stenosis, intestinal obstruction

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206
Q

S+Ss GORD?

A

regurg, distress after feeds, apnoea, pneumonia, failure to thrive, anaemia; inappropriate relaxation of LOS (fluid, diet, horizontal posture, short intraabdo length); most resolves in 12 months; common in cerebral palsy, preterm, surgery for oesophageal atresia (polyhydramnios, small stomach, cough, airway obstruction, lots of secretions, blowing bubbles, distended abdo, cyanosis, aspiration, can’t pass catheter to stomach)

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207
Q

Investigations of GORD?

A

24 hour oesophageal pH monitoring, impedance monitoring and endoscopy (biopsies)

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208
Q

Treatment of GORD?

A

thickening agents and smaller, frequent feeds; severe = H2 antagonists and PPIs then surgery; alginates

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209
Q

S+Ss pyloric stenosis?

A

vomiting after feeds (no bile and large volume) and hunger after it, dehydration and weight loss, no diarrhoea; hypo (K+, Na+ and Cl-)

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210
Q

Diagnosis of pyloric stenosis?

A

test feed, pyloric mass RUQ, US

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211
Q

Treatment of pyloric stenosis?

A

IV fluids, pyloromyotomy

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212
Q

Causes of abdo distension?

A

air = faecal impaction, air swallowing, malabsorption; ascites = nephrosis, hypoprotinaemia, cirrhosis; solid masses = wilms tumour, neuroblastoma, adrenal tumour; cysts = polycystic kidneys, hepatic, dermoid, pancreatic

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213
Q

S+Ss colic?

A

paroxysmal; inconsolable crying, drawing up knees, lots of flatus

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214
Q

Causes of colic?

A

if severe could be cow’s milk allergy; acute = appendicitis

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215
Q

Tests for colic?

A

o Check – testes, hernial orifices, hip joints, lower lobe pneumonia, DKA, UTI and pancreas

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216
Q

S+Ss acute appendicitis?

A

anorexia, vomiting, abdo pain, fever, pain from movement, guarding at McBurney’s point; faecoliths in schoolchildren; perforations high in <5yrs

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217
Q

Treatment of acute appendicitis?

A

fluid resus and abx; symptoms progress = surgery

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218
Q

What is intussusception?

A

invagination of proximal bowel into distal; usually ileum into caecum through valve; most common cause of kid GI obstruction; 3 months-2 yrs

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219
Q

Complications of acute appendicitis?

A

stretching and constricting mesentery; venous obstruction, bowel bleeding, perforation, peritonitis, gut necrosis

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220
Q

S+Ss appendicits?

A

paroxysmal colicky pain, pallor, refuse feeds, vomiting, sausage shaped mass, red jelly stool, abdo distension; abdo US and Xray

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221
Q

Treatment of intussusception?

A

IV fluids; rectal air insufflation; surgery for rest

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222
Q

Complications from intussuception?

A

could be volvulus or diverticulitis or Meckels diverticulum; green vomit need to check upper GI for malrotation

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223
Q

Definition of recurrent abdo pain?

A

interrupts ADLs and 3 months+

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224
Q

S+Ss recurrent abdo pain?

A

periumbilical; constipation = most common; others = anxiety, anal fissures, growth, GI/UTI infection (urine microscopy and culture), coeliac/crohns, thyroid, IBS (non-specific bloating, feeling of incomplete defecation, epigastric pain), abdo migraine (abdo and head pain – use triptans), duodenal/peptic ulcers (PPIs/abx for H.Pylori)

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225
Q

What is eosinophilic oesophagitis and treatment?

A

inflammatory from eosinophil activation in mucosa; atopy; use oral corticosteroids

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226
Q

Causes of gastroenteritis?

A

mainly rotavirus, others = noro, astro and adenovirus; also campylobacter jejuni (severe abdo pain), shigella (blood and pus in stool with tenesumus), cholera and e.coli (severe diarrhoea – dehydration), protozoan with giardia or cryptosporidium; normal diet after this can cause watery stool

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227
Q

Risks of dehydration?

A

<6 months with low weight, >6 stools in 24 hours, >3 vomits in 24 hours, malnutrition, can’t tolerate fluids

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228
Q

S+Ss hyponatraemia?

A

seizures

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229
Q

S+Ss hypernatraemia?

A

jittery movements, increased tone, altered consciousness, seizure, small multiple haemorrhages
o Diarrhoea in developing countries could be low zinc
o Prevent with good hygiene and education

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230
Q

Causes of diarrhoea?

A

secretory = low absorption or high secretion (watery); osmotic = watery, acidic and +ve for reducing substances; motility disorders, increased = thyrotoxicosis, decreased = intussusception; inflammatory = bloody stool

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231
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

paraumbilical defect with evisceration (viscera extrudes) of abdo contents; find with US

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232
Q

Treatment of gastroschisis?

A

cover exposed bowel with clingfilm and keep baby warm and hydrated at birth; surgery; may take a while for GI function to resume (few weeks)

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233
Q

What is exampholos/omphalocele?

A

ventral defects of umbilical ring with abdo viscera herniation; small might only have meckel’s diverticulum but larger = stomach, liver, bladder

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234
Q

Treatment of exampholos/omphalocele?

A

protect, keep hydrated, keep warm, gastric decompression, prevent sepsis, keep CV healthy, surgical closure

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235
Q

S+Ss and causes of malabsorption?

A

abnormal stools, poor weight gain, specific nutrient deficiencies; usually 8-24 months; other signs = faltering growth, abdo distension, buttock wasting, abnormal stools, general irritability; could be coeliacs (6 weeks plus serology and endoscope with villous atrophy – enteropathy from gluten), short bowel syndrome

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236
Q

S+Ss persistent loose stools?

A

chronic non-specific diarrhoea, IBD, Crohn’s (looks like anorexia)

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237
Q

Diagnosis persistent loose stools?

A

raised inflammatory, iron deficiency anaemia, low serum albumin, endoscope

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238
Q

Treatment of persistent loose stools?

A

diet, steroids, immunosuppressants (azathioprine, mercaptopurine), anti-TNF, surgery if complications

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239
Q

S+Ss UC?

A

rectal bleeding, diarrhoea, colicky pain, weight loss, growth failure; colonoscopy diagnosis

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240
Q

Treatment UC?

A

mesalazine (mild), steroids, immunomodulation and infliximab/ciclosporin (resistant disease); 10 years colonoscopy after diagnosis

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241
Q

S+Ss constipation?

A

<3 stools per week, large and hard, rabbit droppins, distress/strain/bleeding, abdo pain, masses, overflow soiling, megarectum, anorexia

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242
Q

Causes of constipation?

A

hirschsprung’s (can’t pass meconium in 1st 24 hours, intestinal obstruction, chronic constipation, abdo distension, growth failure), coeliac, hypercalcaemia, anorectal abnormalities, hypothyroidism, diet, poor fluid, fibre intake

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243
Q

Treatment of constipation?

A

stool softeners (polyethene glycol, electrolytes), stimulant laxatives (senna), osmotic laxatives (lactulose), rehydrate with movicol; sometimes enemas

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244
Q

Causes of allergies?

A

• 40% have allergic rhinitis/asthma/eczema, 6% have food allergy; IgE (early phase and late phase response – more severe) or non-IgE mediated (delayed onset and varying clinical course); eczema and food usually in infancy and rest at primary school age

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245
Q

S+Ss allergies?

A

mainly resp) mouth breathing, allergic salute (rubbing itchy nose), pale/swollen inferior nasal turbinates, hyperinflated chest, atopic eczema on limb flexures, allergic conjunctivitis; growth checked

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246
Q

Causes of food allergies?

A

usually IgE; normally react on 1st exposure; milk, peanuts, eggs (can resolve); older = nuts and fish

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247
Q

IgE mediated allergies S+Ss?

A

urticaria, facial swelling, anaphylaxis (classic allergy reaction); skin prick test and IgE levels

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248
Q

Non-IgE mediated allergies S+Ss?

A

diarrhoea, vomiting, abdo pain, faltering growth (more like gastro problem), blood in stools in first weeks of life; intestinal biopsy and endoscopy; double-blind placebo-controlled food challenge

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249
Q

Management of allergies?

A

avoidance, training and education, non-sedating antihistamines, epinephrine for severe

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250
Q

Treatment of anaphylaxis?

A

resus; pt on back with legs raised/in position of comfort; ABCDE (e = exposure of skin); adrenaline; repeat with high flow O2 and crystalloid; salbutamol for bronchoconstriction; may have to give epi pen afterwards and always record

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251
Q

Causes of eczema?

A

atopic or non-atopic; impairment of skin barrier function; 40% in infants have IgE food allergy; skin test

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252
Q

Causes allergic rhinitis?

A

atopic or non-atopic; intermittent, persistent or mild; can be seasonal; post-nasal drip, chronically blocked nose

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253
Q

S+Ss rhinoconjunctivitis?

A

urticaria can lead to angioedema, anaphylaxis

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254
Q

Treatment rhinoconjunctivitis?

A

non-sedating antihistamines or omalizumab; topical corticosteroid nasal/eye preparations, cromoglycate eye drops, leukotriene receptor antagonists, nasal decongestants, allergen immunotherapy

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255
Q

Tests for child with temp >37.5 degrees?

A

4 weeks = axilla thermometer and after this tympanic; septic screen (blood culture, FBC/WBC, CRP and urine [UTI], blood gas, glucose) and broad spectrum abx (unless cause found); CSF = CXR, LP, rapid antigen screen, meningococcal/pneumococcal/virus PCR

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256
Q

Risks to increase chance of febrile child?

A

= ill fam, illness in community, low immunisations, recent travel, animal contact and immunodeficiency, prolonged membrane rupture, maternal carrier of group B strep, preterm labour, fetal distress, breaks in skin/mucosa, chorioamnionitis, central lines and catheters

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257
Q

Red flags for febrile child?

A

fever >38, pale/cyanosed, reduced GCS, neck stiffness, neuro signs, resp distress, bile-stained vomit and severe dehydration

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258
Q

Treatment for febrile child?

A

PN abx (broad spectrum until blood cultures confirm e.g. benzylpenicillin and gentamicin) for seriously unwell (cefotaxime), ampicillin for <1 month for listeria and antipyretics

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259
Q

S+Ss bacterial meningitis?

A

mainly <16; can have neuro impairment from it, irritable, abnormal cry, lethargy, difficulty feeding; cerebral oedema, raised ICP, decreased cerebral blood flow, fibrin deposits lower CSF absorption (hydrocephalus); meningeal signs (after septic = high temp, cold peripheries, limb/join pain, odd behaviour, skin colour change, rash) = Brudzinski and Kernig signs; LP contraindicated if cardioresp instability, raised ICP and focal neuro signs

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260
Q

S+Ss high ICP?

A

listless, irritable, drowsy, headache, diplopia, vomiting, tense fontanelle, low GCA (pupil changes, abnormal posturing), cushing’s triad (imminent coning – slow pulse, high bp, breathing abnormal)

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261
Q

Management of high ICP?

A

ABC, tilt head elevated 25 degrees, treat symptoms (seizures and high temp with O2), intubate, mannitol, dexamethasone, fluid restriction, send to neurosurgery

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262
Q

Types of abx used for serious infections?

A

Cephalosporins

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263
Q

Investigations bacterial meningitis?

A

cloudy CSF with polymorphs, increased protein and decreased glucose (TB same but lymphocytes instead of polymorphs)

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264
Q

Organisms causing bacterial meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitis, H influenzae, strep pneumoniae, E coli, group B haemolytic strep, listeria monocytogenes, TB

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265
Q

Causes of viral meningitis?

A

mumps, echo, herpes, polio

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266
Q

Tests for viral meningitis?

A

clear CSF, lymphocytes and normal protein/glucose

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267
Q

Cerebral complications from meningitis?

A

hearing impairment, local vasculitis, subdural effusion, hydrocephalus, cerebral abscess; prophylaxis for fam = rifampicin/ciprofloxacin

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268
Q

Treatment for meningitis?

A

ceftriaxone

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269
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

direct invasion of brain by neurotoxic virus (HSV – herpes is most treatable - and enteroviruses), delayed brain swelling, slow virus infection, delayed brain swelling after dysregulated neuroimmunological response

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270
Q

S+Ss encephalitis?

A

fever, altered consciousness, seizures

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271
Q

Treatment of encephalitis?

A

HSV give acyclovir; EEG and CT/MRI

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272
Q

Causes of toxic shock syndrome?

A

S.aureus and group A strep

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273
Q

S+Ss toxic shock syndrome?

A

= fever >39, hypotension, diffuse erythematous rash, organ dysfunction and impaired consciousness

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274
Q

Treatment of toxic shock syndrome?

A

intensive care, IV ceftriaxone/clindamycin and IV ig

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275
Q

Treatment for meningococcal infection?

A

usually full recovery, early penicillin and inotropes may be needed, rifampicin prophylaxis for contacts; septicaemia = purpura rash

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276
Q

What can S.pneumoniae cause?

A

pharyngitis, otitis media, conjunctivitis, sinusitis and meningitis (basically all neck/face swellings)

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277
Q

S+Ss impetigo?

A

localised, highly contagious skin infection, staph/strep, common in eczema, lesions on face/hands (honey-crusted)

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278
Q

Treatment of impetigo?

A

topical abx in mild and flucloxacillin in severe

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279
Q

What is a boil?

A

staph aureus infection of hair follicles/sweat glands

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280
Q

Treatment of boils?

A

systemic abx and excision

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281
Q

S+Ss periorbital cellulitis?

A

fever, erythema, tenderness and oedema of eyelid

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282
Q

Abx for periorbital cellulitis?

A

ceftriaxone

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283
Q

S+Ss orbital cellulitis?

A

proptosis, reduced visual acuity, painful ocular movement

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284
Q

What is staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

separation of epidermal skin; fever, malaise, localised infection (eyes, nose, mouth)

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285
Q

Treatment of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome?

A

manage with IV flucloxacillin, analgesia and fluid balance

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286
Q

Types of HSV?

A

type 1 = skin and lip lesions, 2 = genitals

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287
Q

Complications of HSV?

A

blepharitis (eyelid) or conjunctivitis, pneumonia and disseminated infection in immunocompromised; eczema herpeticum (widespread lesions on eczema, can get herpetic whitlows)

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288
Q

Treatment of HSV?

A

acyclovir

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289
Q

S+Ss roseola infantum?

A

gives high temp, maculopapular rash, uvulo-palatoglossal ulcers

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290
Q

S+Ss gingivostomatitis?

A

10m-3y with vesicular lesions on lips and gums, tongue and hard palate; ulceration and bleeding (painful E+D), dehydration

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291
Q

S+Ss varicella zoster?

A

; lesions on head and trunk to peripheries; infect = 4 days before rash then all lesions scabbed, droplet spread; spots blackish/blueish/coalescing then ITU and no ibuprofen

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292
Q

Complications varicella zoster?

A

= staph infection, encephalitis, purpura fulminans

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293
Q

Treatment serious varicella zoster?

A

; IV acyclovir for serious and immunocompromised with antivaricella-zost igs; use calamine lotion to soothe; shingles/herpes zoster uncommon but usually after 1st year

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294
Q

Complications in baby with mother with herpes zoster?

A

microcephaly, severe chicken pox, convulsions, cerebral hypoplasia etc

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295
Q

S+Ss EBV?

A

oral spread; older = fever, malaise, tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, petechiae on soft palate, splenomegaly, maculopapular rash, jaundice

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296
Q

Diagnosis EBV?

A

atypical lymphocytes, positive monospot test or seroconversion

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297
Q

CMV mode of transition?

A

saliva, genital secretions, breastmilk

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298
Q

CMV immunocompromised S+Ss?

A

retinitis, pneumonitis, bone marrow failure, encephalitis, hepatitis, oesophagitis, enterocolitis; high fever and malaise for few days then generalised macular rash

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299
Q

Treatment for CMV?

A

ganciclovir

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300
Q

S+Ss human parvovirus B19?

A

slapped cheek syndrome and in spring; respiratory secretions transmission; asymptomatic or fever, malaise, headache and myalgia; aplastic crisis in chronic haemolytic anaemia; sometimes hydrops fetalis

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301
Q

S+Ss enteroviruses?

A

loose stools, vomiting, rash non-blanching then ceftriaxone unless sepsis excluded; can cause myocarditis/pericarditis

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302
Q

Mode of admission for enteroviruses?

A

faecal-oral or resp droplets

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303
Q

What is herpangina?

A

painful lesions causing tricky swallowing and fever

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304
Q

What is pleurodynia?

A

fever, pleuritic chest pain, muscle tenderness

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305
Q

S+Ss measles?

A

(7-12 days incubation) = fever, runny nose (coryza), cough, conjunctivitis, marked malaise, Koplik spots and maculopapular rash

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306
Q

Complications of measles?

A

otitis media, encephalitis and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (7-13yrs after = behaviour changes, myoclonus, choreoatheotosis, dystonia, dementia, coma)

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307
Q

Treatment of measles?

A

isolation, supportive and ribavirin in immunocompromised

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308
Q

S+Ss mumps?

A

; incubation 15-24 days; fever (stops after 3-4 days), malaise

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309
Q

Parotitis S+Ss?

A

(infective 7 days before and 9 days after), E+D difficult; plasma amylase high and orchitis common

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310
Q

Rubella S+Ss?

A

mild illness, low grade fever, maculopapular rash on face (fades 3-5 days – infective 5 days before and after rash), suboccipital lymphadenopathy; incubation 15-20 days; resp route; diagnosis serology

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311
Q

S+Ss and overview kawasaki?

A

systemic vasculitis (coronary artery aneurysm), Japanese mainly; high inflammatory markers and platelets rise in 2nd week; conjunctivitis, red mucous membranes, cervical lymphadenopathy, red palms, eyes and soles, lips and peeling of skin later, high fever

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312
Q

Treatment kawasaki?

A

IV ig to lower aneurysm risk, aspirin or warfarin; inflammation and fever use corticosteroids, infliximab or ciclosporin

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313
Q

Tests for HIV in babies?

A

> 18 months = ab test but <18 month = DNA PCR as get mother’s IgGs from breast milk so false positives

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314
Q

S+Ss HIV in kids?

A

mild = lymphadenopathy, parotid enlargement; moderate = recurrent bacterial infections, candidiasis, diarrhoea, thrombocytopenia, hepatospleomegaly; lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia

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315
Q

Treatment of HIV?

A

HAART (antiretroviral therapy) but before this use PENTA, HIV viral load, CD4 count, prophylaxis of PCP with cotrimoxazole, vaccines, weight/development/clinical monitoring

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316
Q

Factors reducing maternal transmission of HIV?

A

ART in pregnancy, PEP after birth, no breastfeeding, C-section

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317
Q

S+Ss lyme disease?

A

= erythema migrans and expanding lesion (bullseye), fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, lymphadenopathy; dissemination = rare (2+ colonised sites) but can cause CN palsies, meningitis, arthritis, carditis

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318
Q

Treatment of lyme disease?

A

> 12 use doxycycline and amoxicillin

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319
Q

S+Ss URTI?

A

difficulty feeding, febrile seizures, acute asthma exacerbations, nasal discharge and blockage

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320
Q

Common URTIs?

A

rhinovirus, coronavirus, resp syncytical virus, group A beta-haemolytic, enterovirus, adenovirus

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321
Q

Treatment URTIs?

A

paracetamol/ibuprofen

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322
Q

What is pharyngitis?

A

pharynx and soft palate with lymphadenopathy

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323
Q

What is tonsillitis?

A

pharyngitis with exudate and intense inflammation

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324
Q

S+Ss tonsillitis?

A

headache, abdo pain, white exudate, cervical lymphadenopathy (bacterial)

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325
Q

Treatment tonsillitis?

A

10 day course abx

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326
Q

S+Ss scarlet fever?

A

group a strep, 5-12 yrs, fever before tonsillitis, headache, sandpaper maculopapular rash

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327
Q

Causes of acute otitis media?

A

RSV, rhinovirus, pneumococcus, H.influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis

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328
Q

S+Ss acute otitis media?

A

bright red and bulging on otoscope; decreased hearing, eardum dull and retracted, fluid; conductive hearing loss

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329
Q

Treatment otitis media?

A

anaesthesia with P+I

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330
Q

Causes of stridor?

A

most common from laryngeal and tracheal infection (mainly viral croup and sometimes parainfluenza), foreign body, bacterial tracheitis, epiglottitis

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331
Q

Severity of stridor assessed?

A

stridor character and degree of chest retraction also cyanosis and ABCD

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332
Q

S+Ss complete resp obstruction?

A

central cyanosis, drooling, reduced consciousness

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333
Q

Causes of acute stridor with no infection?

A

anaphylaxis/foreign body; if nothing works then think bacterial tracheitis (mucosal sloughing that can’t be cleared and exudate)

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334
Q

S+Ss croup?

A

6 months-6 yrs; autumn; coryza (catarrh) and fever then hoarseness, barking cough, harsh stridor, worse at night, subglottic oedema, inflammation ad exudate

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335
Q

Treatment of croup?

A

oral dexamethasone/prednisolone and severe = nebulised adrenaline and O2

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336
Q

S+Ss epiglottitis?

A

intense swelling with septicaemia; emergency; from Hib; 1-6yrs; high fever, ill, painful throat, soft inspiratory stridor, resp difficulty, sitting immobile

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337
Q

Treatment epiglottitis?

A

don’t lie down/spatula in throat; intubate, blood culture, IV abx (cefuroxime) 3-5 days, rifampicin for fam, may need tracheostomy if occluded too much

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338
Q

S+Ss diphtheria?

A

usually starts with tonsillitis and sometimes membrane over fauces (back of mouth leading to pharynx); can get polyneuritis mainly with CNs, shock from myocarditis, toxaemia or cardiac conduction system involvement; other signs = dysphagia, muffled voice, bronchopneumonia, brassy cough then airway obstruction

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339
Q

Diagnosis diphtheria?

A

swab culture of below pseudomembrane

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340
Q

Treatment diphtheria?

A

diphtheria antitoxin and erythromycin for 7 days

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341
Q

Causes of wheeze?

A

mucosal inflammation, swelling and mechanical obstruction

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342
Q

S+Ss bronchiolitis?

A

1-9months – LRTI, coryza, cough, fever, tachypnoea, wheeze, inspiratory crackles, apnoea sometimes cyanosis

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343
Q

What is RSV?

A

respiratory syncytial virus

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344
Q

Wheeze S+Ss?

A

coryzal, dry wheezy cough, SOB, feeding tricky, recurrent apnoea (serious in young), tachypnoea/cardia, chest hyperinflation, sub/intercostal recession, fine end inspiratory crackles, high-pitched wheezes

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345
Q

Treatments wheeze?

A

O2 sats and CXR; give steroids and nebulised adrenaline and only ribavirin for immunocompromised

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346
Q

When to refer to a specialist with wheeze?

A

apnoea, <90% sats, low fluid intake, severe resp distress; give humidified O2, NG/IV fluids, CPAP and MV sometimes, reduce infectivity; most recover in 2 wks, RSV v infective, permanent damage sometimes in adenovirus

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347
Q

S+Ss viral wheezing?

A

episodic wheezing, multiple trigger wheeze and asthma

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348
Q

S+Ss asthma?

A

– polyphonic and diurnal variation; not usually hyperinflation unless attack

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349
Q

Treatment for asthma?

A

LABAs effective for 12 hours; prednisolone/beclametasone; salbutamol = spacers in kids; ipratropium bromide (anticholinergic bronchodilator) after other bronchodilators don’t work; motelukast/theophylline = leukotriene receptor antagonists; anti-IgE with omalizumab in severe

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350
Q

When to hospitalise in asthma?

A

hospitalise if no improvement after high bronchodilator dose, exhausted, silent chest, cyanosis, hypotension, PEFR <33%, <50% peak flow, <92% sats = bronchodilators, steroids, O2, IV mg sulfate/salbutamol/aminophylline; if emergency use all the above treatments and consider CPAP

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351
Q

RFs TB?

A

Overseas contacts and HIV?

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352
Q

S+Ss TB?

A

anorexia, low fever, failure to thrive, malaise, cough common

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353
Q

Diagnosis TB?

A

tuberculin tests, blood, ziehl-neelson stain of sputum; miliary spread rare but dangerous

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354
Q

Treatment of TB with RIPE?

A

rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol; co-trimoxazole prophylaxis if with HIV for pneumocystitis

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355
Q

Indications of a dry cough with prolonged expiratory phase?

A

narrowing of small-moderate sized airways

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356
Q

Indications from a barking cough?

A

tracheal inflammation

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357
Q

Indications from a moist cough?

A

LRTI

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358
Q

Define a whooping cough, cough?

A

paroxysmal/spasmodic cough (worse at night and can be vomit) followed by inspiratory whoop

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359
Q

S+Ss whooping cough?

A

paroxysm = goes red and blue and mucous out mouth, sometimes epistaxis and conjunctival haemorrhages (3 months); cough only last 25 days and if after might be lobar collapse; pneumonia, seizures and bronchiectasis can happen but rare

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360
Q

Diagnosis whoopin cough?

A

perinasal swab, PCR, marked lymphocytosis

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361
Q

Prevention of whooping cough?

A

close contacts get macrolide prophylaxis (also for treat), vaccination, no parental smoking

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362
Q

Causes of pneumonia?

A

newborns = group B strep and gram -ve enterococci; infants = RSV, strep pneumoniae, H.influenzae; 5+ = mycoplasma pneumoniae

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363
Q

S+Ss pneumonia?

A

fever, cough, tachypnoea, lethargy, poor feeding, unwell; pleural irritation (bacterial), crackles; sometimes empyema

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364
Q

Diagnosis pneumonia?

A

CXR, nasopharyngeal aspirate, cultures if bad

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365
Q

Treatment of pneumonia?

A

O2 if <92%, analgesia, new-borns = broad spectrum abx, older = amoxicillin, chronic = high dose co-amoxiclav with physio

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366
Q

Pathophysiology CF?

A

defective CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR gene – chromosome 7); bad ion transport across epithelium, impaired cilia function, retention of mucopurulent secretions; pancreatic ducts blocked, low defence against infections and dysregulated inflammatory response; pancreatic enzyme blocked so malabsorption (steatorrhea)

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367
Q

S+Ss CF?

A

nasal polyps and sinusitis, failure to thrive and slow growth, meconium ileus (can’t pass stool in 1st 2 days of life; older = DM, cirrhosis, pneumothorax and sterility in males, chest infections

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368
Q

Screening infants for CF?

A

immunoreactive trypsinogen, low faecal elastase (pancreatic insufficiency), sweat test for chloride (can have false +ve if really young, some diseases or false -ve if oedema), spirometry, 95% die of resp failure; older = spirometry

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369
Q

Treatment CF?

A

reg = no symptoms; physio twice/day, exercise, continuous prophylactic abx, nebulised DNase or hypertonic solution (reduces sputum viscosity), azithromycin, lung transplant sometimes, high calorie diet and enzymes (pancrex) and omeprazole increases absorption, gastrotomy overnight, if infection gentamicin with ticarcillin

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370
Q

What is primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

abnormal cilia function/structure; low mucociliary clearance, lots of URTI/LRTI

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371
Q

S+Ss primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

recurrent productive cough, purulent nasal discharge, chronic ear infections, ½ have dextrocardia, obstructive sleep apnoea

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372
Q

Assessment of primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

O2 sats, electrophysical assessment

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373
Q

Normal HSs in paeds?

A

asymptomatic, soft blowing murmur systolic and left sternal edge, Still’s murmur; no symptoms of cardiac abnormalities

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374
Q

HF S+Ss?

A

SOB, sweating, poor feeding, recurrent chest infections, poor weight gain, tachypnoea/cardia, murmur, cardiomegaly, hepatomegaly, cold peripheries, acidosis

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375
Q

Investigations HF?

A

FBC, CXR, paO2, ECG, ECHO, cardiac catheter

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376
Q

Management of HF?

A

sit-up; o2; ng feed; diuretics (furosemide with/out spironolactone); alprostadil for duct dependent cyanosis

377
Q

Causes of HF/CHD?

A

neonates = hypoplastic left heart syndrome, aortic stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, interruption of aortic arch; infants = VSD, ASD and ductus arteriosus; older = cardiomyopathy, Eisenmenger and RHD; usually starts off as left-right shunt (pulmonary oedema and SOB) then to Eisenmenger’s syndrome (irreversible and raised pulmonary vascular resistance, cyanosis); congenital HD = chest radiograph and ECG; shock happens in severe left heart obstruction

378
Q

ASD types (atrial septal defects)?

A

secundum (defect involving foramen ovale) and partial (defect of AV septum – bottom of atrial septum, AV valves); usually asymptomatic

379
Q

ASD S+Ss?

A

ejection systolic murmur, fixed/wide 2nd HS, pansystolic murmur, cardiomegaly, enlarged pulmonary arteries, increased vascular markings

380
Q

VSD S+Ss?

A

small = symptomatic; large = loud pansystolic murmur at left sternal edge with quiet P2, tachypnoea/cardia, hepatomegaly, active precordium, soft pansystolic, apical mid-diastolic murmur, loud P2, cardiomegaly, enlarged pulmonary arteries, increased vascular markings, pulmonary oedema, ventricular hypertrophy

381
Q

Treatment of VSD?

A

diuretics (captopril), more calories, pulmonary HT 3-6 months

382
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)?

A

haven’t closed by 1 month then constrictor mechanism defect

383
Q

PDA S+Ss and treatment?

A

continuous murmur below left clavicle, collapsing pulse, HF and pulmonary HT, thrill, collapsing pulse, pneumonia, loud S2; closure to abolish risk of bacterial endocarditis

384
Q

Types of right-left heart shunts?

A

tetralogy of Fallot, translocation of the great arteries

385
Q

Right-left heart shunts S+Ss?

A

cyanosis in 1st week; nitrogen washout test in cyanosed, 100% O2 for 10 mins and right radial artery PaO2 low then HD

386
Q

Management of cyanosis?

A

ABC, prostaglandin infusion

387
Q

S+Ss tetralogy of fallot?

A

large VSD, overriding aorta, subpulmonary stenosis, RVH; older = loud ejection systolic at left sternal edge, clubbing; ECG normal, CXR = small heart, untilted apex, decreased vascular markings

388
Q

Treatment fallot?

A

surgery at 6 months; hypercyanotic spells = sedation, pain relief, IV propranolol, IV volume administration, bicarbonate, artificial ventilation; TOGA = aorta connected to RV and PA to LV and do atrial switch surgery and balloon atrial septostomy

389
Q

Common mixing defects in the heart?

A

AVSD (in Down’s) and complex congenital HD

390
Q

AVSD and complex congenital HD S+Ss?

A

cyanosis/HF at 2wks, no murmur, ECG superior axis

391
Q

AVSD and complex congenital HD treatment?

A

surgical repair at 3-6 months (blalock-Taussig shunt insertion if cyanosed)

392
Q

Outflow obstruction types?

A

– aortic stenosis (ass. with mitral stenosis), pulmonary stenosis, coarctation of aorta

393
Q

AS S+Ss?

A

reduced exercise tolerance, chest pain, syncope, slow rising pulse, carotid thrill, ejection systolic murmur, delayed soft S2; exercise symptoms

394
Q

Treatment aortic stenosis?

A

balloon valvotomy or replacement

395
Q

PS S+Ss?

A

asymptomatic, some cyanosis, ejection systolic, RV heave

396
Q

PS treatment?

A

transcatheter balloon dilation

397
Q

CoA S+Ss and treatment?

A

worsens over time, ejection systolic, radio-femoral delay; stent may be inserted; arterial duct tissue constricts aorta, blocks LVO; acute circulatory collapse 2 days; S+Ss = sick baby, HF, no femoral pulse, severe metabolic acidosis, cardiomegaly; surgical management

398
Q

Outflow obstruction complications?

A

HF and shock; ABC, prostaglandin and cardiac centre referral

399
Q

Interruption of arch S+Ss?

A

no connection between proximal aorta and distal to arterial duct so R-L shunt gives CO; S+Ss = VSD, shock in neonate

400
Q

Interruption of arch treatment?

A

treat with VSD closure and surgical repair of arch

401
Q

What is hypoplastic left heart syndrome and S+Ss?

A

left side underdeveloped, CoA, no flow through left side and CV collapse, peripheral pulse weakness

402
Q

Treatment hypoplastic left heart syndrome?

A

Norwood procedure

403
Q

SVT complications?

A

most common childhood arrhythmia; HR 250-300, poor CO, pulmonary oedema, HF, hydrops foetalis (oedema/fluid in at least 2 foetal compartments) and intrauterine death; narrow complex tachycadia

404
Q

Treatment SVT?

A

circ/resp support, vagal manoeuvres, IV adenosine, electrical cardioversion (last line), flecainide/sotalol maintenance; relapse = ablation; complete heart block = pacemaker

405
Q

Cardiac syncope S+Ss?

A

symptoms in exercise, FH of sudden death, palpitations; acute rheumatic fever = short-lived, multisystem and after group A beta-haemolytic strep, 2-6 weeks = polyarthritis, carditis, erythema marginatum, subcut nodules, sydenham’s chorea, malaise and fever, mitral stenosis (Jone’s diagnostic criteria)

406
Q

Treatment cardiac syncope?

A

use aspirin and corticosteroids and treat HF with diuretics and ACEi; pericardial effusions = pericardiocentesis, monthly benzathine penicillin prophylaxis

407
Q

Infective endocarditis S+Ss?

A

sustained fever, malaise, raised ESR, unexplained anaemia, haematuria, clubbing, splinter haemorrhages, oslers nodes, Janeway lesions

408
Q

Diagnosis infective endocarditis?

A

blood cultures, ECHO, usually strep viridans

409
Q

Treatment of infective endocarditis?

A

bacterial treatment = high dose penicillin with aminoglycoside (benzylpenicillin with gentamicin) for 6 weeks; prophylaxis = good oral hygiene

410
Q

What is PANDAS?

A

(paediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with strep infections) – tics and OCD sometimes anorexia

411
Q

Treatment PANDAS?

A

abx and risperidone tried

412
Q

Diagnosis dilated CM?

A

HF and cardiomegaly; diagnose = ECHO

413
Q

Treatment dilated CM?

A

diuretics, ACEi and carvediol

414
Q

Cardiac S+Ss kawasaki disease?

A

ECHO = pericardial effusion, myocardial disease, endocardial disease, coronary disease, aneurysm

415
Q

Pulmonary HT S+Ss?

A

large post tricuspid shunt, high pulmonary flow, low resistance

416
Q

Treatment pulmonary HT?

A

bosentan, heparin, aspirin or warfarin given so transplant delayed

417
Q

Abnormal findings in antenatal US kidneys?

A

absence of kidneys, multicystic dysplastic kidney (no functioning tissue and not connected to bladder), Potter syndrome (intrauterine compression from oligohydramnios from low foetal urine – facial deformity, pulmonary hypoplasia, postural deformities)

418
Q

ADPKD childhood S+Ss?

A

HT; ass with cerebral aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse; cystic dilations of collecting ducts with biliary dysgenesis and periorbital fibrosis

419
Q

What is bladder exstrophy?

A

bladder through defect in abdo wall

420
Q

What is abnormal caudal migration of kidneys?

A

horseshoe kidney (silent/obstructive uropathy with/out renal infections), infection, obstruction; can get 2 ureters if premature division of ureteric bud

421
Q

Types of obstruction of urine flow?

A

pelvi-ureteric, vesicoureteric junction, bladder neck or posterior urethra

422
Q

S+Ss obstruction of urine flow?

A

can cause dysplastic kidney; posterior urethral valves = progressive bilateral hydronephrosis, poor renal growth, low liquor volume, pulmonary hypoplasia

423
Q

S+Ss UTI?

A

cystitis = no fever; ½ pts = abnormality, pyelonephritis, scarring leading to CKD; S+Ss = fever, vomiting, lethargy, poor feeding, jaundice, febrile seizure, septicaemia (all in infants, if in children similar to adults)

424
Q

Diagnosis UTI?

A

urine culture in <3yrs, temp >38; KEEPS organisms; pseudomonas more common in abnormalities/catheters, urine dipstick with nitrites/+ve WCCs

425
Q

Causes of incomplete emptying?

A

– infrequent voiding, vulvitis, incomplete micturition, obstruction from loaded rectum, neuropathic bladder, vesicoureteric reflux (VUR)

426
Q

What is VUR?

A

anomaly from laterally displaced ureter enter bladder directly; familial; mild-severe, increased risk of scarring, resolves with age

427
Q

S+Ss atypical VUR?

A

seriously ill, poor urine flow, abnormal bladder mass, high creatinine, no abx in 48hours, atypical organisms

428
Q

Treatment of urinary obstruction outflow?

A

MCUG used; infants <3 = IV abx 5-7 days, infants/children with pyelonephritis = oral abx 7 days; cystitis = nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim/co-amoxiclav for 3 days; abx used = amoxicillin and gentamicin or cephalosporin with ampicillin

429
Q

Prevention of urine obstruction outflow?

A

high fluid intake, complete bladder emptying, treat constipation, good perineal hygiene, probiotic, abx prophylaxis; recurrent/scarring/reflux = urine dipstick, low dose abx prophylaxis, circumcision, anti-VUR, bp check, urinalysis (proteinuria), assess renal function/growth

430
Q

Causes of enuresis?

A

lack of attention to bladder sensation, detrusor instability, bladder neck weakness, neuropathic bladder (S2-4), UTI, constipation, ectopic ureter (girls dry at night and wet getting up), emotional upset, UTI, polyuria

431
Q

Investigations enuresis?

A

urine microscopy, US, urodynamic studies, XR and MRI

432
Q

Treatment of enuresis?

A

star charts, bladder training, pelvic floor exercises, anticholinergics (oxybutynin)

433
Q

What is encopresis?

A

repeated passage of soiling into wrong area >4yrs (faecal incontinence = soiling due to physical lesion, overflow incontinence from chronic constipation and lose sensation of defecation); voluntary or involuntary

434
Q

Treatment encopresis?

A

; rule out sexual abuse; enemas, dietary fibre, stool softeners, daily toilet sittings after eating, behaviour therapy (can be psych problems – depression)

435
Q

Causes proteinuria?

A

orthostatic proteinuria, nephrotic syndrome (corticosteroids; oedema, proteinuria, albumin low, hypercholesteremia sometimes; usually minimal change and sometimes steroid resistant

436
Q

S+Ss proteinuria?

A

oedema periorbital then general, frothy albumin urine, oliguria), Henoch-Schonlein purpura; S+Ss = periorbital oedema, scrotal/vulval/leg/ankle oedema, SOB (pleural effusion), infection; common in Asians, boys, atopy; renal biopsy if don’t respond to steroids in 4-6wks

437
Q

Risks for proteinuria?

A

hypovolaemia (IV fluids), thrombosis, infection, hypercholesteremia

438
Q

Treatment of proteinuria?

A

steroid-sparing therapies (immunomodulators and alkylating agents – cyclophosphamide if don’t work with steroids, cyclosporin = nephrotoxic), diuretics, salt restriction, ACEi, NSAIDs, sometimes unilateral nephrectomy or dialysis

439
Q

S+Ss glomerular haematuria?

A

glomerular = brown urine, deformed red cells, casts; UTI most common form

440
Q

Glomerular causes of haematuria?

A

acute GN, IgA nephropathy, familial nephritis

441
Q

Non-glomerular causes haematuria?

A

infection, trauma, UT/kidneys stones, tumours, SCD, bleeding disorders, hypercalciuria, renal vein thrombosis

442
Q

Investigations of haematuria?

A

microscopy, calcium/protein excretion, renal US, U+Es, FBC, coagulation screen; biopsy if persistent proteinuria, macroscopic haematuria, abnormal renal function

443
Q

Causes of acute nephritis?

A

post-infection, vasculitis, IgA nephropathy, antiglomerular basement disease

444
Q

Treatment of acute nephritis?

A

fluid/electrolyte balance, diuretics, immunosuppression sometimes

445
Q

What is Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

A

skin rash (buttocks and extensors), arthralgia (knees and ankles), periarticular oedema, colicky abdo pain, glomerular nephritis, have previous resp infection; 3-10yrs boys

446
Q

RFs for CKD in paeds?

A

heavy proteinuria, oedema, HT, deteriorating renal function, Alport syndrome (X-linked recessive – nerve deafness and ocular defects), polyarteritis nodosa, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, SLE; ANCA

447
Q

CKD treatment?

A

corticosteroids, plasma exchange and IV cyclophosphamide

448
Q

Causes of HT generally?

A

renal, cardiac and endo causes

449
Q

S+Ss HT?

A

vomiting, facial palsies, headaches, hypertensive retinopathy, convulsions, proteinuria, faltering growth, HF; abdo mass US

450
Q

Causes of kidney stones?

A

phosphate with proteus infection (most common), calcium (high calcium/oxalate)

451
Q

Fanconi syndrome S+Ss?

A

excessive loss of aas, glucose, phosphate, bicarb, sodium, calcium, potassium, mg, from heavy metals, vit D deficiency or drugs

452
Q

Emergency treatment of HT?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

453
Q

Acute renal failure causes?

A

haemolytic uraemic syndrome and acute tubular necrosis (from crush, burn, dehydration, shock, sepsis, malaria)

454
Q

Management acute renal failure?

A

circ and fluid balance monitored (may need diuretics); US; may need nephrostomy or bladder catheter; good prognosis

455
Q

S+Ss acute renal failure?

A

 Rapid rise in creatinine or development of oliguria/anuria; potassium, creatinine, urea high and calcium, sodium, chloride low

456
Q

RIFLE criteria?

A

grading = risk, injury, failure, loss of renal function and end-stage renal failure

457
Q

Reasons for dialysis?

A

conservative management fails, hyperkalaemia, sever hyponatraemia, pulmonary oedema, HT, severe metabolic acidosis, multisystem failure

458
Q

Treatment acute renal failure?

A

causes; use salbutamol or polystyrene sulfonate resins and calcium gluconate for hyperkalaemia

459
Q

S+Ss haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)?

A

acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia, typical with diarrhoea; rare; usually secondary to GI infection with E.coli or shigella; brain, pancreas and heart involved

460
Q

Treatment of HUS?

A

Eculizumab

461
Q

S+Ss glomerulonephritis?

A

acute = haematuria and oliguria from autoimmune, also periorbital oedema, fever, GI disturbance and loin pain

462
Q

Complications of glomerulonephritis?

A

hypertensive encephalopathy, uraemia and cardiac failure/abnormal rhythms

463
Q

Investigations glomerulonephritis?

A

= FBC, U+E, complement, ANA, ANCA, syphilis, culture, virology (blood and MSU check blood cells); can get poststreptococcal type

464
Q

Treatment for glomerulonephritis?

A

penicillin but if encephalopathy give nitroprusside

465
Q

Causes of CKD?

A

congenital dysplastic kidneys, pyelonephritis, recurrent infection, reflux nephropathy, glomerulonephritis

466
Q

S+Ss CKD?

A

stage 4-5 = anorexia, lethargy, polydipsia, polyuria, faltering growth, bony deformities, HT, proteinuria, unexplained normochromic normocytic anaemia, vomiting

467
Q

Treatment of CKD?

A

prevent metabolic abnormalities, allow normal growth and maintain current renal function

468
Q

Risks from CKD?

A

phosphate retention and hypocalcaemia means secondary hyperparathyroidism

469
Q

Treatment for secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

improve nutrition, phosphate restriction, bicarb supplements, EPO, GH, dialysis, transplant; prevent renal osteodystrophy (poor mineralisation from renal failure – like rickets/osteomalacia) and anaemia from low EPO

470
Q

Hx for genital disorders?

A

testosterone, progesterone, phenytoin, aminoglutethimide; past neonatal deaths; penis size, urethra; fused labia; gonads descended (34wks should have)

471
Q

S+Ss inguinal hernias?

A

– 5% of boys; lump in groin to scrotum (lateral to pubic tubercle), visible on straining, tender and may vomit, can be reduced by taxis (gentle compression in canal) with good analgesia; can sometimes have intestinal obstruction

472
Q

Treatment inguinal hernias?

A

ligation and division of processus vaginalis; hydrocele = asymptomatic and transilluminate, usually resolve

473
Q

S+Ss varicocele?

A

15% boys in puberty; more common left side and asymptomatic, dull ache, can be blueish and bag of worms

474
Q

Treatment varicocele?

A

occlusion of gonadal veins by surgical ligation

475
Q

What are posterior urethral valves?

A

bladder mucosa folds in male block outflow causing outflow obstruction

476
Q

S+Ss hydrocele?

A

processus vaginalis; fluid from peritoneal cavity; should stop by age 2; if next to spermatic cord (encysted hydrocele) or wide so hernia then action needed

477
Q

S+Ss undescended testes?

A

can be palpable but usually incidental finding (external inguinal ring out of scrotum); may be retractile but can be manipulated into scrotum

478
Q

Treatment undescended testes?

A

orchidopexy = placement of testis in scrotum (cosmetics, lower torsion risk, fertile, reduce malignancy)

479
Q

Torsion causes?

A

commonly post-pubertal (testicular appendage/Mullerian remnant)

480
Q

S+Ss torsion?

A

pain groin/lower abdo, redness, oedema of scrotal skin; distinguished from incarcerated hernia

481
Q

Treatment of testicular torsion?

A

treated soon so no testicular loss (fixation of contralateral testis), analgesia; if in perinatal then loss inevitable

482
Q

S+Ss epididymo-orchitis?

A

infants and urological/anorectal malformations; doppler US, urine sample; S+Ss = redness, swelling beyond scrotum to thigh, perineum, suprapubic area

483
Q

Treatment of epididymo-orchitis?

A

analgesia, trauma uncommon but explore and debride/repair if so; think of sexual abuse

484
Q

S+Ss balanoposthitis and treatment?

A

redness more extensive and purulent discharge, infection bacterial, topical corticosteroids

485
Q

What is phimosis?

A

balanitis xerotica obliterans gives scarring to glans and urethra; older boys and adults

486
Q

Treatment phimosis?

A

circumcise, topical corticosteroids and sometimes just wait as normal in most young kids to not be able to retract foreskin

487
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

postpuberty and retracted foreskin so glans swells and low blood supply

488
Q

Treatment of paraphimosis?

A

circumcision and GA

489
Q

S+Ss hypospadias?

A

failure of development of ventral tissues of penis; features = ventral urethral meatus, ventral curvature of shaft and hooded appearance of foreskin

490
Q

Treatment of hypospadias?

A

surgery

491
Q

Causes of vulvovaginitis?

A

vulvovaginitis = from nappy rash and infective from candida

492
Q

S+S vulvovaginitis?

A

vaginal discharge, fusion of labia minora (irritating)

493
Q

Treatment vulvovaginitis?

A

Topical corticosteroids if symptomatic

494
Q

S+Ss biliary atresia?

A

fibrosis and obliteration of biliary tree

495
Q

S+Ss chronic liver failure?

A

death within 2 years; mild jaundice and pale stools, raised conjugated bilirubin, abnormal LFTs

496
Q

Diagnosis and treatment chronic liver failure?

A

ERCP and biopsy; palliative surgery (kasai hepatoportoenterostomy) and liver transplant

497
Q

S+Ss choledochal cysts?

A

cystic dilations of extrahepatic biliary system; jaundice, abdo pain, mass, cholangitis

498
Q

Diagnosis and treatment choledochal cysts?

A

diagnose = US, MRCP; surgical excision

499
Q

S+Ss neonatal hepatitis syndrome?

A

low birthweight, faltering growth

500
Q

S+Ss alagille syndrome?

A

rare AD inheritance; pruritus, faltering growth, triangular facies, skeletal abnormality, HD

501
Q

S+Ss and treatment progressive familial intrahepatic cholestasis?

A

jaundice, intense pruritus, faltering growth, rickets; transplant needed

502
Q

S+Ss alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

AR inheritance; protein accumulation in hepatocytes; emphysema in adults; neonatal bleeding/jaundice from vit K low; hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, cirrhosis, portal HT

503
Q

S+Ss galactosaemia?

A

rare, poor feeding, vomiting, jaundice, hepatomegaly (all when fed milk); liver failure, cataracts, developmental delay if untreated; galactose in urine

504
Q

S+Ss viral hepatitis?

A

= N+V, abdo pain, lethargy, jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly

505
Q

Treatment viral hepatitis?

A

treat with ribavirin and pegylated interferon

506
Q

S+Ss acute liver failure?

A

massive necrosis with liver loss; uncommon but high mortality; infection/metabolic; S+Ss = jaundice, coagulopathy, encephalopathy, hypos, electrolyte disturbance, cerebral oedema, haemorrhages, sepsis

507
Q

Investigations acute liver failure?

A

LFTs, ALP and ammonia raised, acid-base balance, bg and coagulation monitored

508
Q

Treatment of acute liver failure?

A

treat the S+Ss; IV dextrose, broad spectrum abx, IV vit K, H2 blocking drugs, fluid restriction

509
Q

Common liver diseases in older children?

A

common = HBV, HCV, AI hepatitis but exclude Wilson’s and sclerosing cholangitis

510
Q

S+Ss AI and sclerosing cholangitis?

A

7-10yrs, girls; skin rash, arthritis, haemolytic anaemia/nephritis

511
Q

Diagnosis AI and sclerosing cholangitis?

A

hypergammaglobulinaemia, positive autoantibodies, low serum C4, histology

512
Q

Treatment AI and sclerosing cholangitis?

A

prednisolone, azathioprine, SC = ursodeoxycholic acid, optimise nutritional support, liver transplant sometimes

513
Q

Wilson’s S+Ss?

A

– AR inheritance; hepatic dysfunction in childhood, neuropsych with extrapyramidal SEs, renal tubular dysfunction (vit D resistant rickets), Kayser-Fleischer rings (>7), low serum caeruloplasmin and copper

514
Q

Diagnosis Wilson’s?

A

elevated copper in liver

515
Q

Treatment Wilson’s?

A

penicillamine, zinc, pyridoxine (peripheral neuropathy), liver transplant

516
Q

S+Ss congenital hepatic fibrosis and treatment?

A

> 2yrs, hepatomegaly, abdo distension, portal HT, cystic renal disease, NAFLD; liver transplant and weight loss targeted

517
Q

Complications of chronic liver disease?

A

o Lacking = protein (medium chain triglyceride with milk needed if cholestatic)
o Encephalopathy – protein restricted; causes = GI haemorrhage, sepsis, sedatives, renal failure, electrolyte imbalance, irritable, sleepy, mood change, intellect lower, ammonia high
o Pruritus – loose cotton clothing, moisturising skin, phenobarbital and cholestyramine
o Cirrhosis – secondary to hepatocellular disease/chronic bile obstruction; signs = jaundice, palmar erythema, telangiectasia, spider naevi, malnutrition and hypotonia

518
Q

Investigations for chronic liver disease?

A

screening for chronic liver disease, upper GI endoscopy, abdo US, liver biopsy

519
Q

Treatment of acute bleeds?

A

transfusions, H2 blockers; persists = octreotide infusion, vasopressin analogues, endoscopic ligation, scleropathy

520
Q

Causes of ascites?

A

hypoalbuminaemia, sodium retention, renal impairment, fluid redistribution

521
Q

S+Ss spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

abdo pain, fever, tenderness, unexplained decrease in renal/liver

522
Q

Reason for liver transplant?

A

severe malnutrition, complications with management, failure of growth, poor quality of life

523
Q

Diagnoses for malignant diseases?

A

VMA and HVA useful tumour markers in neuroblastoma, high alpha fetoprotein in germ cell tumours, bone marrow histology for leukaemia or biopsy for solid

524
Q

Treatment for malignant diseases?

A

chemo = primary curative in ALL, primary/mets before surgery and micromets; allogenic transplant in high-risk/relapsed leukaemia; autologous stem cell support in solid tumours with poor prognosis; with fever and neutropenia = broad spectrum abx; fertility preservation and central venous catheters

525
Q

Examples of opportunistic infections?

A

PCP, aspergillosis, candidiasis, coagulase-negative staphylococcal infections

526
Q

SEs of chemo?

A

doxorubicin = cardiotoxicity; cisplatin = renal failure and deafness; vincristine = neuropathy; cyclophosphamide = haemorrhagic cystitis

527
Q

S+Ss leukaemia?

A

from disseminated disease (BM and organ infiltration by leukaemic blast cells) over weeks; FBC normal, low Hb, thrombocytopenia, malaise, anorexia, N+V, lethargy, bruising, infection and bone pain, lymphadenopathy

528
Q

Investigations leukaemia?

A

BM examination, clotting screen (for DIC), LP and CXR; B or T cells, normochromic normocytic anaemia; csf

529
Q

Prognostic factors for leukaemia?

A

age, WCC at presentation, cytogenetics and treatment response; if have Philadelphia chromosome then very high risk

530
Q

Treatment for leukaemia?

A

before = anaemia, thrombocytopenia, infection, hydration and allopurinol (for renal) should be managed; intense chemo and intrathecal for no CNS relapse, or moderate over 3 yrs; cotrimoxazole for PCP prophylaxis; high chemo and transplant for relapse; induction therapy, then consolidation phase then maintenance

531
Q

Remission of leukaemia?

A

eradication of leukaemic blast cells and restoration of marrow function

532
Q

Complications of leukaemia?

A

neutropenic sepsis, hyperuricaemia, cancer elsewhere

533
Q

Management of neutropenic pts?

A

anything suspect infection; test and treat = piptazobactum (tazocin) +/- gentamicin or imipenem (teicoplanin); usually gram +ve bacteria

534
Q

Types of brain tumours?

A

always primary, 60% infratentorial, 40% astrocytoma, 20% medullablastoma, 8% ependymoma, 6% glioma, 4%craniopharyngioma

535
Q

S+Ss brain tumours?

A

high ICP, focal neuro deficits, back pain, peripheral weakness, bladder/bowel dysfunction

536
Q

Investigations and treatment of brain tumours?

A

MRI, LP and surgery

537
Q

S+Ss lymphomas?

A

non-hodgkin common in kids = painless lymphadenopathy (usually neck), last months, systemic uncommon, usually T-cell

538
Q

Investigations for lymphomas?

A

lymph node biopsy, radio assess nodes, BM biopsy, examine CSF

539
Q

Treatment of lymphomas?

A

combination chemo with/without radio; PET to monitor

540
Q

What are Burkitt lymphomas?

A

B-cell NHL (more mature than ALL), either endemic (malaria from EBV), sporadic (EBV) and immunodeficient (HIV) associated

541
Q

S+Ss neuroblastoma?

A

neural crest tissue in adrenal medulla and sympathetic NS; ganglioneuroma to neuroblastoma spectrum; <5yrs; signs = usually abdo mass with adrenal origin (can envelop major vessels and lymph nodes), can have nerve compression from paravertebral, bone pain, BM suppression, weight loss, malaise

542
Q

Treatment neuroblastoma?

A

surgery (without mets), chemo, autologous stem cell rescue, radio, relapse high

543
Q

S+Ss Wilm’s tumour/nephroblastoma?

A

from embryonal renal (mesoderm) tissue; usually <5; asymptomatic other than large abdo mass but fever, flank pain, anorexia, anaemia, haematuria, HT sometimes; can be associated with beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (enlargement of most organs), Aniridia (no iris) GU malformations, Retardation; staging from US/CT/MRI

544
Q

Treatment Wilm’s tumour?

A

chemo (vincristine and actinomycin), delayed nephrectomy, 80% cured

545
Q

S+Ss rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

most common soft tissue in kids; primitive mesenchymal tissue; symptoms = proptosis, nasal obstruction, GU tumours, mets

546
Q

Treatment for rhabdomyosarcoma?

A

multimodal

547
Q

S+Ss osteosarcoma?

A

more common than Ewing’s and more common in prepubertal boys; symptoms = limbs, persistent bone pain, use XR, MRI, bone scan, BM and chest CT for mets and diagnosis

548
Q

Treatment osteosarcoma?

A

combo chemo before surgery and amputation

549
Q

Retinoblastoma S+Ss?

A

severe visual impairment, if bilateral then hereditary, <3yrs; MRI useful

550
Q

Treatment retinoblastoma?

A

based on ophthalmology and chemo then laser treatment or radio in advanced

551
Q

S+Ss primary hepatic malignant tumours?

A

hepatoblastoma or HCC; abdo distension and mass, elevated alpha fetoprotein, most cured

552
Q

What is rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

RHD-ve mother gives +ve baby and then makes anti-D rhd abs

553
Q

S+Ss rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

= hydrops fetalis (severe oedematous lunged foetus – need to ventilate with high pressure, find cause, drain ascites, vitamin K to lower haemorrhage, furosemide, limit fluids, 90% die in utero), hypoalbuminaemia, thalassaemia, infection

554
Q

Treatment of rhesus haemolytic disease?

A

regular US and anti-D titre should be lower <4u/mL and Hb should be above 7g/dL; give mums anti-D IgG, phototherapy and exchange transfusion for below 7g/dL

555
Q

Tropical causes of haemolytic diseases?

A

malaria, bacteraemia, worms, HIV, low B12, low G6DP, low iron, sickle cell

556
Q

Hb normal values in children?

A

neonate <140, 1-12 months <100, 1-12yrs <110

557
Q

Causes of reduced red cell production?

A

(MCV <70fL) – ineffective erythropoiesis (iron deficiency – inadequate uptake, malabsorption (coeliac), blood loss, delay in mixed feeding, asymptomatic unless Hb <70, tiredness, slow feeding; microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, low serum ferritin), abnormal MCV (low in IDA and high folic acid), normal reticulocyte count

558
Q

Treatment of reduced red cell production?

A

ferrous fumarate syrup

559
Q

Causes of a high MCV?

A

> 100fL – low folate, low B12; absorption, intake, breast milk from veggie, pernicious anaemia

560
Q

Causes of red cell aplasia?

A

either congenital, transient erythroblasopenia of childhood or parvovirus B19, Diamon-Blackfan = rare

561
Q

Diagnosis red cell aplasia?

A

low reticulocytes, normal bilirubin, negative Coomb’s, absent red cell precursors on BM

562
Q

Treatment red cell aplasia?

A

steroids, monthly RBC transfusions, stem cell transplant

563
Q

Causes of haemolytic anaemia?

A

normocytic) – reduced RBC lifespan; RBCs destroyed in liver/spleen, BM can’t compensate; causes = membrane disorders (spherocytosis – AD inheritance, SEE PHASE 2A NOTES, jaundice, anaemia, splenomegaly, aplastic crisis and gallstones), enzyme disorders (G6PD deficiency – common in central Africa, x-linked, neonatal jaundice, acute haemolysis increased by infection, fava beans, naphthalene, normal blood between episodes), haemoglobinopathies

564
Q

Diagnosis haemolytic anaemia?

A

hepato/splenomegaly, anaemia, high unconjugated bilirubin, high urinary urobilinogen, high reticulocytes, abnormal RBC shape, positive Coomb’s, high RBC precursors, blood film, autoimmune excluded by Coomb’s

565
Q

Treatment haemolytic anaemia?

A

oral folic acid, splenectomy sometimes, aplastic crisis = 2 blood transfusion

566
Q

What is haemoglobinopathy?

A

reduced HbA or low production from deletions; sickle cell anaemia, HbSC and sickle beta thalassaemia; sickle = lower lifespan and stuck in microcirc, HbSS is most severe

567
Q

S+Ss haemoglobinopathies?

A

anaemia, infection, painful crisis, acute anaemia, priapism (painful and sustained erection), splenomegaly, stroke, cognitive problems, HF, renal dysfunction, gallstones, leg ulcers, psychosocial problems, confusion

568
Q

Treatment haemoglobinopathies?

A

folic acid; avoid cold, dehydration, high exercise and stress; can use morphine if in a lot of pain

569
Q

Treatment of painful anaemic crises?

A

oral/IV analgesia, good hydration and exchange transfusion; recurrent = hydroxycarbamide (monitor WBC suppression); can have older retinopathy; beta thalassaemia in India and middle-east; major (need blood with SC iron chelation and desferrioxamine so no iron overload) and intermedia forms

570
Q

What is severe alpha thalassaemia major?

A

4 alpha globulin deletions; diagnose from liquid chromatography or Hb electrophoresis

571
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

abs against blood group antigens; causes = feto-maternal haemorrhage, twin-twin transfusion and blood loss in delivery

572
Q

Causes of anaemia of prematurity?

A

inadequate epo, reduced RBC lifespan, frequent blood sampling, iron/folic acid deficiency

573
Q

Causes of aplastic anaemia?

A

BM failure; gives peripheral blood pancytopenia; inherited or acquired (viruses, drugs like sulphonamides or chemo, toxins)

574
Q

S+Ss aplastic anaemia?

A

anaemia, infection and bruising/bleeding

575
Q

S+Ss Fanconi syndrome?

A

inherited and most common; S+Ss = short stature, abnormal thumbs, renal malformations, BM failure at 5/6yrs, can become ALL

576
Q

Treatment Fanconi syndrome?

A

BM transplant

577
Q

Screening tests for bleeding disorders?

A

screening = FBC, PT, APTT, thrombin time (low fibrinogen), quantitative fibrinogen assay, D-dimers, biochemical screen, don’t forget autoimmune thrombocytopenia

578
Q

S+Ss haemophilia A and B?

A

x-linked; A (more common) = factor 8 and B = factor 9 deficient; severe = spontaneous bleeding into muscles, joints (arthritis) at end of 1st yr

579
Q

Haemophilia A and B treatment?

A

recombinant factor 8/9 in bleeding IV, may need to use central venous catheter, desmopressin

580
Q

What to avoid with bleeding disorders?

A

IM injections, NSAIDs, aspirin

581
Q

What is von Willebrand disease?

A

von willebrand factor aids platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and in this case is deficient; type 1 more common

582
Q

S+Ss VWD?

A

bruising, excessive post-surgery bleeding, mucosal bleeding

583
Q

Treatment of VWD?

A

desmopressin and if severe = plasma-derived factor 8 concentrate

584
Q

Causes of acquired bleeding disorders?

A

vit K deficiency (prolonged PT, from inadequate intake, malabsorption, vit K antagonists), liver disease
o Immune thrombocytopenia - pt <150

585
Q

S+Ss acquired bleeding disorders?

A

bruising, petechiae, purpura, mucosal bleeding; destruction of pts from antiplatelet IgG autoantibodies; exclude if = anaemia, infection, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly (SLE)

586
Q

Treatment of acquired bleeding disorders?

A

oral prednisolone, IV anti-D or IV Ig, rituximab sometimes, splenectomy if all fails

587
Q

What is DIC?

A

coagulation pathway activation giving diffuse fibrin deposition in microvasc

588
Q

Causes of DIC?

A

Severe sepsis or shock

589
Q

S+Ss DIC?

A

bruising, petechiae, haemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT and APTT, low fibrinogen, haemolytic anaemia, low natural anticoagulants

590
Q

Treatment of DIC?

A

intensive care needed, plasma/cryoprecipitate, vit K

591
Q

Causes of thrombosis in paeds?

A

most from underlying disorders; congenital thrombophilia disorders = C/S deficiency, antithrombin deficiency, factor 5 Leiden; screen in unanticipated VT with FH of neonatal purpura fulminans

592
Q

Causes of primary ab deficiencies?

A

primary hypogammaglobulinaemia or bruton’s agammaglobulinaemia

593
Q

S+Ss primary ab deficiencies?

A

infections, bronchiectasis, sinusitis, failure to thrive, nodular lymphoid hyperplasia, absent tonsils, enteropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, arthrology, lymphopenia, low total serum protein; count lymphocytes involved in ab production, FH

594
Q

Treatment of primary ab deficiencies?

A

ig replacement via iv, use hydrocortisone and antihistamine if reaction; can use stem cells and harmless retrovirus to replace gene

595
Q

Hx for child mental health?

A

from parents ask how affects child, child and adversity, how did problems start, what was happening at the time, how do people respond, ask what child thinks about problem, any worries, when is it better, what already doing about it, child development

596
Q

Risks for child mental health problems?

A

anger in fam, parental mental health, bereavement, divorce, intrusive overprotection, lack of parental authority, abuse, emotional rejection, unpredictable discipline, inappropriate responsibilities for child

597
Q

Prevention of child mental health problems?

A

time spent as a fam (meals – meal refusal = problem), regular exercise, regular sleep (tell child to go to bed and lie there for hour if can’t sleep, night terrors 1.5 hours into sleep), absence of bullying

598
Q

Analysing tantrums?

A

analysed by ABC (antecedents, behaviour, consequences)

599
Q

Night soiling causes?

A

abnormal >4yrs; with/without loaded rectum, constipation, inhibition of defecation from fear/punishment, anxiety about toilet

600
Q

Somatic symptoms in paeds?

A

common and increase with stress, depression, anxiety; abdo pain, headache; older = limb pain, aching muscles, fatigue, neuro; hx identifies causes and use pain-coping skills

601
Q

S+Ss chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

high levels of subjective persisting fatigue, rapid exhaustion on minimal exercise; sometimes recent infection; myalgia, migratory arthralgia, headache, insomnia, poor conc, irritability normal; stomach pains, scalp tenderness, eye pain, photophobia, depression sometimes

602
Q

Drug abuse in children?

A

– intoxication, unexplained truancy, mixing with users, high rates of stealing, possession of equipment for drug use, medical complications; solvent abuse = cardiac dysrhythmias, BM suppression, renal failure; ecstasy = hyperthermia, dehydration, death

603
Q

Investigation of drug abuse in children?

A

urine drug screen, exclusion of medication, dementia

604
Q

Bullous impetigo treatment?

A

severe blistering and given systemic abx

605
Q

S+Ss malignant melanoma?

A

congenital pigmented naevi increase risk; macule = small flat area of different colour/texture; papule = small raised lesion; nodule = larger raised and deeper component; purpura = bleeding into skin/mucosa

606
Q

RF malignant melanoma?

A

prolonged sun (use SPF30), positive FH, melanocytic naevi, far skin, repeated sunburn, hot climate

607
Q

S+Ss albinism?

A

defect in biosynthesis and melanin distribution; could be oculocutaneous, ocular or partial; pendular nystagmus, photophobia, severe visual impairment

608
Q

What is epidermolysis bulosa?

A

– rare genetic, blistering skin (after trauma or spontaneously) and mucous membranes; AR more severe (digit fusion, limb contracture)

609
Q

Management of epidermolysis bulosa?

A

avoid injury and treat infections, nutrition and analgesia

610
Q

S+Ss irritant dermatitis?

A

most common nappy rash (don’t change enough or diarrhoea); eruption on bum, perineal area, lower abdo, top of thighs; erythematous; not in flexures unless candida

611
Q

Treatment of irritant dermatitis?

A

protective emollient, severe, change nappies = topical corticosteroids; if candida then topical antifungal and hydrocortisone

612
Q

S+Ss infantile seborrheic dermatitis?

A

first 3 months; diffuse, red, shiny, erythematous scaly scalp then to face/behind ears; risk of atopic eczema

613
Q

Treatment irritant dermatitis?

A

mild with emollients and severe with topical corticosteroids/antibac agents

614
Q

S+Ss atopic eczema?

A

1st year of life; FH, 1/3 get asthma; most resolve by 16; exclude immunodeficiency if severe; S+Ss = pruritus, erythematous excoriated areas that weep and crust, dry skin, lichenification if scratch, flare-ups with staph/strep infections, regional lymphadenopathy

615
Q

What to avoid in atopic eczema?

A

soap and biological detergents, nails short

616
Q

Treatment of atopic eczema?

A

emollients, ointments when skin dry, topical corticosteroids, >2yrs short term tacrolimus ointment when steroids fail, occlusive bandages to stop scratching and oral antihistamine, abx with hydrocortisone for infection but if eczema herpeticum then acyclovir

617
Q

Common allergies associated with atopic eczema?

A

Eggs and cow’s milk

618
Q

S+Ss viral warts?

A

small, skin coloured papules) from HPV disappear over months/yrs

619
Q

Treatment for viral warts?

A

use cryotherapy and sometimes topical abx, glutaraldehyde solution/salicylic acid and lactic acid paint daily

620
Q

S+Ss scabies?

A

parasite burrowing into epidermis and severe pruritus after 2-6wks, worse in warm conditions and night, older = fingers, toes, axilla, penis, bum, other fam (treat all fam), analyse skin scrapings

621
Q

Treatment of scabies?

A

permethrin cream and wash off after 8-12 hours and malathian lotion for 12 hours

622
Q

S+Ss headlice?

A

scalp itching, may have secondary bacterial infection

623
Q

Treatment headlice?

A

dimeticon lotion into hair and left overnight, wetcomb with fine-tooth comb

624
Q

S+Ss psoriasis?

A

usually >2yrs; guttate type most common in kids; attacks 3-4months and recur in next 3-5yrs

625
Q

Treatment psoriasis?

A

bland ointments, calcipotriol for plaque = coal tar preparations; can develop psoriatic arthritis

626
Q

S+Ss pityriasis rosacea?

A

acute, benign, viral; rash follows ribs

627
Q

Treatment of pityriasis rosacea?

A

None but should resolve in 4-6wks

628
Q

What is alopecia areata?

A

common form of hair loss

629
Q

S+Ss granuloma annulare?

A

ringed, raised flesh-coloured non-scaling over bony prominences on hands and feet; disappear spontaneously

630
Q

S+Ss acne vulgaris?

A

1-2yrs before puberty; risk = menstruation and emotional stress

631
Q

Treatment acne vulgaris?

A

benzyl peroxide, sunshine, topical abx and severe = oral tetracyclines

632
Q

Systemic disease causing skin rashes?

A

SLE, Hennoch-Schonlein purpura, erythema nodosum, Steven-Johnson syndrome (systemic rash reactions to sepsis/medications – severe bullous form of erythema multiforme starting with URTI)

633
Q

What is urticaria?

A

flesh-coloured wheals; popular urticarial = delayed hypersensitivity on legs after bite

634
Q

Triggers for TIDM?

A

triggers for type 1 = enteroviruses, cow’s milk; association with other autoimmune disorders (autoimmune destruction of beta pancreatic cells)

635
Q

S+Ss DM?

A

triad = polydipsia, polyuria and weight loss, weight loss, infection, poor growth, ketosis; DKA = change in breath, vomiting, dehydration, abdo pain, hypervent, hypovolaemia, drowsiness, coma

636
Q

Diagnosis DM?

A

symptoms, randomly raised bg >11.1 or 7mmol/l fasting, autoantibodies, type 2 = FH in obese of insulin resistance; monitor blood ketones and check HbA1c 4x per annum

637
Q

Tests for DKA?

A

intensive educational programme, glucose >11.1, ketones >3.0, U+Es (dehydration), ABG (metabolic acidosis), ECG (t wave change in hypokalaemia),

638
Q

S+Ss DKA?

A

cerebral oedema (mannitol), weight, infection, hyponatraemia, acidosis, leukocytosis; S+Ss = listless, confused, vomiting, polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss, abdo pain, kussmaul resps, dehydration, shock, drowsy, coma

639
Q

Treatment DKA?

A

ABC, fluids, IV insulin after 1 hour of fluids, stop insulin after ketones under 1

640
Q

Types of insulin?

A

human insulin analogues, short-acting soluble human regular insulin, intermediate-acting; can be given as continuous rapid acting; most have long and short; aim for 4-7mmol/L before meals; encourage healthy diet and carb counting

641
Q

Risks increasing consequences of DM?

A

menstruation, GH, illness, corticosteroids, sex hormones, stress, sugary snacks, infrequent blood testing, illness, exercise, eating disorders, family disruption, inadequate family motivation

642
Q

Conservative management DM?

A

exercise, alcohol, drugs, anxiety, hot weather

643
Q

S+Ss and treatment hypoglycaemia?

A

hunger, stomach ache, sweaty, faint, dizzy can lead to seizures and coma; glucose usually but glucagon if severe

644
Q

Hx to ask for DM?

A

hypos, absence from school, HbA1c, insulin regimen, lipohypertrophy, diet

645
Q

Regular checks for child with DM?

A

normal growth, BP, renal disease, circ, eyes, feet, screen for coeliac/thyroid, annual flu vaccine

646
Q

S+Ss maturity onset diabetes of the young?

A

– AD, non-ketotic, children or young-adults; impaired beta cell function and insulin secretion; only single gene defects (unlike DM)

647
Q

Define neonatal hypoglycaemia?

A

Glucose <2.6mmol/L

648
Q

S+Ss hypoglycaemia?

A

sweating, irritability, headache, seizures and neuro problems if not fixed; don’t starve infant for >4 hours; check bg if sepsis, prolonged seizure, altered state of consciousness; unknown cause = lab readings, urine

649
Q

Causes of hypoglycaemia?

A

hepatomegaly could be glycogen store disorder, DM, beta cell tumours, drug-induced, autoimmune, Beckwith syndrome, liver disease, ketotic hypo, hormonal deficiency, congenital error of metabolism

650
Q

Treatment of hypoglycaemia?

A

don’t overload glucose otherwise cerebral oedema risk, can use IM glucagon

651
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism?

A

can have severe LD if untreated
o Hypothyroidism = autoimmune; causes = maldescent of thyroid, dyshormonogenesis, iodine deficiency, TSH deficiency, athyreosis, premature, hashimoto’s thyroiditis, down’s, hypopituitarism

652
Q

S+Ss hypothyroidism?

A

faltering growth, feeding problems, prolonged jaundice, constipation, dry skin, large tongue, goitre, delayed development, hypotonia, delayed puberty, short

653
Q

Diagnosis hypothyroidism?

A

routine biochemical screen (high TSH but low T4), low Hb, low I uptake

654
Q

Treatment hypothyroidism?

A

levothyroxine before 2-3wks, lifelong treat

655
Q

Hyperthyroidism S+Ss?

A

eye signs less obvious, tremor, palpitations, anxiety, tachycardia, low TSH and high T4, exophthalmos, D, weight loss, diarrhoea, sweating, goitre

656
Q

Treatment hyperthyroidism?

A

carbimazole or PTU (neutropenia SE), beta blockers for anxiety

657
Q

Causes hypoparathyroidism?

A

usually due to congenital abnormality (DiGeorge syndrome with thymic aplasia, cardiac defects, facial abnormalities), older = autoimmune disorder, Addison’s

658
Q

S+Ss hypoparathyroidism?

A

hypocalcaemia, constipation, anorexia, lethargy, behaviour change

659
Q

Treatment hypoparathyroidism?

A

IV calcium gluconate with hypocalcaemia, chronic is with oral calcium and high doses of vit D analogues

660
Q

S+Ss congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

(insufficient cortisol – foetal ACTH production so overproduction of adrenal androgens, virilisation of external genitals, penis enlargement/scrotal pigmentation, salt-losing adrenal crisis (Na and K), tall stature, psychosexual problems, vomiting, dehydration); can give adrenocortical crisis (N+V, abdo pain, lethargy, hypotension; use hydrocortisone, saline, glucose and fludrocortisone)

661
Q

Diagnosis congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

high 17-alphahydroxyprogesterone, low sodium, high potassium, metabolic acidosis, hypos

662
Q

Management congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

lifelong gluco and mineralcorticoids, monitor growth/skeletal maturity and additional hormone replacement

663
Q

S+Ss Addison’s?

A

rare in kids; S+Ss = salt-losing crisis, hypotension, hypos, fatigue, pigmentation

664
Q

Diagnosis Addison’s?

A

hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, hypos, ACTH test

665
Q

Treatment Addison’s?

A

crisis (IV saline, glucose, hydrocortisone), parents taught to inject hydrocortisone (reduced height and osteopenia)

666
Q

S+Ss and investigations and treatment of Cushing’s?

A

short, growth failure, red cheeks, hirsutism, bruising, carb intolerance, osteopenia, psych problems, muscle wating and weakness; 24-hour free urinary cortisol high; pituitary adenoma releasing ACTH with transsphenoidal resection; adrenal tumours unilateral

667
Q

Causes of disorders of sexual development?

A

secondary to virilisation in female from excessive androgens, inadequate androgen action, gonadotrophin insufficiency, ovotesticular DSD

668
Q

What is an inborn error of metabolism?

A

• Disorder of enzyme reactions (degrade, synthesise, interconvert molecules in cells); disorders of intoxication, energy metabolism, complex organelles

669
Q

S+Ss inborn errors of metabolism?

A

severe presentation of common illness, diarrhoea, significant metabolic acidosis, unexplained resp alkalosis, hypos, HF, hepatomegaly, unexpected drowsiness, early onset seizures, dysmorphic features, developmental regression, sudden unexplained death

670
Q

Hx for inborn errors of metabolism?

A

FH of IEoM, sudden unexplained death, epilepsy, LD, consanguinity; examine skin, MSK, eyes; usually AR inheritance

671
Q

Management of inborn errors of metabolism?

A

medication (symptomatic therapies, specific therapies and enzyme replacement therapy), dietary manipulation (supplying deficient product, preventing accumulation of toxic substrate, prevention catabolism, ketogenic diet); more likely if acidosis too much with clinical picture, abnormalities persist even when managed (raised anion gap – usually 10-16mmol/L)

672
Q

S+Ss infection for those with inborn errors of metabolism?

A

common trigger; ammonia measured if unexplained encephalopathy, resp alkalosis, recurrent vomiting, unexplained severe illness, unexplained seizures

673
Q

Treatment of inborn errors of metabolism with infection?

A

stop feeds, 10% dextrose, IV ammonia scavengers and arginine

674
Q

What is a glycogen storage disorder?

A

hepatic (hypos), muscular, cardiac; degradation in enzymes needed for glycogen storage and synthesis

675
Q

S+Ss glycogen storage disorders?

A

poor feeding, hepatomegaly, raised lactate, neutropenia 1b, stiffness and myalgia after exercise

676
Q

Types of glycogen storage disorders?

A

von gierke, pompe’s, cori, Anderson, mcardle, hers, tauri

677
Q

Diagnosis glycogen storage disorders?

A

= low levels of lactate and pyruvate in venous blood post exercise and low phosphorylase muscle staining

678
Q

Treatment glycogen storage disorders?

A

= no extreme exercise and glucose/fructose can help

679
Q

What is a lysosomal storage disorder?

A

can’t break down chemical (accumulate);

680
Q

Diagnosis lysosomal storage disorder?

A

urinary glycosaminoglycan screen, oligosaccharide screen, WCC testing

681
Q

S+Ss lysosomal storage disorder?

A

supportive treatment; most common = Gaucher disease and familial hypercholesteraemia is most common inherited

682
Q

Treatment lysosomal storage disorder?

A

low fat diet, statin, ezetimibe

683
Q

S+Ss PKU?

A

mutation of phenylalanine hydroxylase gene; mental impairment, fair hair, fits, eczema, musty urine

684
Q

Treatment PKU?

A

expert help and diet low in phenylalanine but high in tyrosine

685
Q

General MSK leg problems in kids?

A

• Most kids have tibiae bowing but if pathological then rickets; varus usually resolves; flat feet common in hypermobile and toddlers (if painful then tendo-Achilles contracture or JIA); toe-walking common in kids

686
Q

In-toeing causes of abnormal gait?

A

metatarsus varsus (from being flat-footed), medial tibial torsion and persistent anteversion of femoral neck

687
Q

Causes of abnormal posture?

A

talipes (club foot – inverted and supinated, equinovarus = complication) from intrauterine compression, passive exercises useful, can be bilateral, calf and leg smaller

688
Q

Treatment of abnormal posture?

A

plaster cast and bracing

689
Q

What is vertical talus?

A

foot is stiff and rocker-bottom shape; diagnose with XR and surgery needed

690
Q

What is talipes calcaneovalgus?

A

dorsiflexed and everted foot

691
Q

Tarsal coalition definition?

A

bones of foot more rigid as more fused; surgery

692
Q

S+Ss DDH (developmental dysplasia of the hip)?

A

dysplasia, subluxation and dislocation of hip; limb or abnormal gait

693
Q

S+Ss scoliosis?

A

lateral curvature in frontal plane of spine; mild, pain-free, cosmetic but can cause CV failure

694
Q

Causes scoliosis?

A

idiopathic, congenital structure defect, neuromuscular imbalance, connective tissue disorder

695
Q

Causes of torticollis?

A

sternocleidomastoid tumour; mobile, non-tender nodule, restriction in head-turning; later causes = muscular spasm from ENT infections/spinal tumour/C-spine arthritis

696
Q

S+Ss painful limb, knee, back?

A

growing pains common, 3-12 yrs, symmetrical limb pain, after start of day, physical activity and exam normal

697
Q

Causes and S+Ss hypermobility?

A

MSK pain after exercise; local or general; causes = chromosome abnormalities, collagen disorders; S+Ss = hyperaesthesia, allodynia, bizarre posturing, if diffuse then widespread pain, disturbed sleep, exhausted in day

698
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

infection of metaphysis of long bones; distal femur and proximal tibia; spread from staph, strep, H.influenzae and sometimes TB in immunocompromised

699
Q

S+Ss osteomyelitis?

A

painful, immobile limb, febrile illness, infection is erythematous and warm, blood culture positive, high CRP and WCC

700
Q

What to rule out for bone pain, swelling and fx?

A

osteoid osteoma = benign affecting adolescents in long bones in leg and spine (pain at night improves with NSAIDs)

701
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatter disease S+Ss?

A

osteochondritis of patellar tendon in adolescent males; physically active, knee pain after exercise, localised tenderness, swelling

702
Q

Treatment of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

reduce exercise and physio, knee immobiliser splint

703
Q

What is chondromalacia patellae?

A

softening of articular cartilage of patella in adolescent females

704
Q

Treatment of chondromalacia patellae?

A

physio

705
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans S+Ss?

A

persistent knee pain in physically active adolescent; tenderness over femoral epicondyles; from avascular necrosis

706
Q

Treatment osteochondritis dissecans?

A

rest and quad exercises

707
Q

Things to rule out with back pain?

A

if in younger then pathological (mechanical, tumour, vertebral osteomyelitis/discitis, spinal cord/nerve entrapment and Scheuermann disease, spondylosis and CRPS)

708
Q

S+Ss transient synovitis?

A

acute hip pain with decreased movement and referred knee pain, 2-12yrs with virus, can develop to Perthes disease

709
Q

Treatment transient synovitis?

A

bed rest and skin traction

710
Q

What is Perthes disease?

A

avascular necrosis of capital femroal epiphyses of femoral head from blood supply interruption then revascularisation, mainly boys

711
Q

Diagnosis perthes disease?

A

bone scan, MRI

712
Q

Treatment pertes disease?

A

rest, physio, plaster casts, surgery; slipped capital epiphyses need to be treated before avascular necrosis, restricted abduction and internal hip rotation

713
Q

S+Ss acute arthritic pain in kids?

A

pain, swelling, heat, redness, restricted movement

714
Q

Causes of arthritis in kids?

A

reactive arthritis is most common form (ankles, knees after extra-articular infection), enteric bacteria in children with virus and STIs in adolescents; septic, JIA, HSP

715
Q

Septic arthritis S+Ss and diagnosis?

A

<2yrs; common = staph aureus; S+Ss = erythematous, warm, acutely tender joint with lack of movement, infants hold limb still, joint effusion detectable, WCC and CRP high, blood cultures, US shows effusion, joint aspirate = diagnostic

716
Q

Treatment septic arthritis?

A

IV abx, washout and surgical drainage

717
Q

S+Ss JIA?

A

common chronic inflammatory joint disease in kids; persistent joint swelling >6wks in <16 with no infection; S+Ss = gelling (stiffness after rest), morning joint stiffness and pain, intermittent limp, behaviour/mood deterioration, antinuclear factor may be present

718
Q

Complications JIA?

A

chronic anterior uveitis (low sight from cataract), flexion joint contracture, growth failure, anaemia of chronic disease, delayed puberty, osteoporosis and amyloidosis

719
Q

Treatment JIA?

A

NSAIDs, analgesics, joint injections, methotrexate, systemic corticosteroids, cytokine modulators

720
Q

S+Ss hennoch-Schonnlein purpura?

A

most common vasculitis of kids; S+Ss = purpuric rash on legs and bum, abdo pain (use steroids), haematuria, proteinuria, arthralgia, severe nephropathy sometimes, scrotal oedema sometimes and sometimes intussusception

721
Q

S+Ss juvenile dermatomyositis?

A

malaise, progressive weakness, facial rash, muscle pain, resp failure and aspiration pneumonia can happen

722
Q

S+Ss achondroplasia?

A

AD inheritance; features = short stature, large head, frontal bossing, depression of nasal bridge, lumbar lordosis and hydrocephalus

723
Q

S+Ss thanatophoric dysplasia?

A

stillbirth, large head, short limbs; XR and antenatal US

724
Q

S+Ss arthrogryposis?

A

stiffness and contracture of joints, marked flexion contractures, muscle atrophy over joints; association with oligohydramnios

725
Q

Treatment arthrogryposis?

A

physio and correction of deformities

726
Q

Osteogeneis imperfecta S+Ss (type 1 and 2)?

A

disorder of collagen metabolism; S+Ss = bone fragility, bowing, frequent fx; type 1 = AD, fx in kids and blue sclera, less severe, treat with bisphosphonates; type 2 = severe

727
Q

S+Ss osteopetresis?

A

bones dense and brittle, faltering growth, recurrent infection, hypocalcaemia, anaemia, thrombocytopenia

728
Q

Treatment osteopetresis?

A

BM transplant

729
Q

S+Ss and complications Marfans?

A

AD, tall stature, long thing digits, hyperextensible joints and eye lenses, CV aneurysms and valvular incompetence

730
Q

Types of febrile seizures?

A

fever and no intracranial infection; small chance of epilepsy (focal, generalised, tonic/conic [grand mal – limbs stiffen which is clonic and then jerk which is tonic], absences [brief 10 sec pauses, unaware], infantile spasms/west syndrome [clusters of head nodding and arm jerks – use prednisolone])

731
Q

Causes of febrile seizures?

A

hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy, infection, intracranial haemorrhage, CNS lesions, metabolic disturbance/disorders, withdrawal, kernicterus (rare brain damage from jaundice), idiopathic

732
Q

S+Ss febrile seizures?

A

toddlers have blue breath holding spells (after anger/crying), blue, stiff, limp, apnoea, lip-smacking, limb-cycling, eye-deviation and then recover, reflex asystolic syncope after sudden surprising pain (stop breathing, pale, stiff, brief convulsions, rapid recovery), EEG, lasts <15 min, >1 in 24 hrs

733
Q

Treatment of febrile seizures?

A

ketogenic diet, vagal nerve stimulation, surgery, treat causes, empirical abx, IV access for invest, cerebral function analysis monitoring; prolonged seizure 3-5 min = phenobarbital and if not then phenytoin, others = midazolam, clonazepam, paraldehyde, lorazepam, diazepam; treat fever with antipyretics, parental education

734
Q

What is a positive gower’s sign?

A

proximal weakness and inability to stand unaided from supine

735
Q

Emergency treatment of epilepsy?

A

0-5min = ABC, 5-15 = lorazepam or buccal midazolam, 15-20 = phenytoin or phenobarbital and call PICU/anaesthetist, 20-40 = PICU

736
Q

Drug management of epilepsy?

A

carbamazepine, sodium valproate, ethosuximide, lamotrigine, vigabatrin, levetiracetam, diet, education

737
Q

S+Ss reflex anoxic attacks?

A

paroxysmal, self-limiting, asystole, fear and pain triggers; S+Ss = hypotonia, rigidity, upward eye deviation, clonic, incontinent urine; drugs rarely needed

738
Q

S+Ss panayiotopoulos syndrome?

A

benign focal seizure disorder, 5yrs peak, autonomic symptoms; vomiting and eye deviation before seizure, at night; no drugs as recover in 2yrs

739
Q

What is ohtahara syndrome?

A

tonic spams with/out clustering

740
Q

Treatment of ohtahara syndrome?

A

chloral hydrate

741
Q

What does ohtahara syndrome develop into?

A

west syndrome then lennox-gas-taut syndrome

742
Q

S+Ss rolandic?

A

benign, brief, infrequent, unilateral facial/oropharyngeal and rarely speak; no treatment needed

743
Q

S+Ss migraine?

A

severe bilateral or frontal 1-48 hours, N+V either 2 of photophobia, phonophobia, visual, sensory aura; aggravated by activity, daily then chronic, CHOCOLATE aggravators

744
Q

Treatment migraine?

A

paracetamol, ibuprofen, domperidone for nausea and sumatriptan if doesn’t work

745
Q

Prophylaxis for migraine?

A

avoid triggers, pizotifen if not then propranolol and amitryptilline

746
Q

What is craniostenosis and its complications?

A

premature closure of skull’s fibrous sutures by ossification (should be 3-9 months for frontal and 22-39 months for rest – can mean brain diesn’t have enough growth room = high ICP, sleep loss, eating problems, visual loss, low IQ)

747
Q

Investigations for myopathy?

A

plasma CK, muscle biopsy, DNA testing, US/MRI muscles

748
Q

S+Ss spinal muscular atrophy?

A

AR, degeneration of anterior horn cells; S+Ss = tongue fasciculation, symmetrical flaccid paralysis, absent deep tendon reflexes, intercostal recession, weakness of bulbar muscles, death from resp failure in 12 months

749
Q

S+Ss dermatomyositis?

A

5-10yrs; S+Ss = symmetrical muscle weakness, sometimes with pharynx, purple rash on eyelids, periorbital oedema

750
Q

Treatment dermatomyositis?

A

physio, corticosteroids, immunosuppressants

751
Q

S+Ss Freidrich ataxia?

A

AR; S+Ss = worsening ataxia, dysarthria, wasting in lower limbs, absent reflexes, pes carvus, kyphoscoliosis, DM, cardiomyopathy, death at 40-50yrs

752
Q

S+Ss ataxia telengiectasia?

A

AR condition of DNA repair; delay in motor movement, complex eye movement disorder, cerebellar ataxia, dysarthria, susceptibility to infection, malignant disorder, progressive pulmonary disease

753
Q

What is anencephalopathy?

A

failure of development of cranium and brain (myelocele); most stillborn

754
Q

Types of myelodysplasia?

A

neuroectoderm defect (no fused tube = myelocele, double neural tube = diplomyelia, herniation through bony defect = meningocele and meningomyelocele if cord as well)

755
Q

Prevention of myelodysplasia?

A

folic acid to mother

756
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

A

failure of vertebral arch fusion

757
Q

S+Ss meningocele?

A

variable paresis of lower limb, muscle imbalance, sensory loss, bladder/bowel denervation, scoliosis, hydrocephalus

758
Q

Treatment of meningocele?

A

physio, indwelling catheter, checks for HT/RF/UTI, laxatives, suppositories, surgical treatment

759
Q

Treatment of hydrocephalus in kids?

A

cranial US in young and CT/MRI in kids with head circ, use a ventriculoperitoneal shunt

760
Q

S+Ss type 1 neurofibromatosis?

A

AD, mutation in neurofibromin-1 gene; S+Ss = >6 café-au-lait spots, neurofibroma on periphery nerves, axillary freckling, optic glioma, bony lesions, 1st degree relative with condition; sometimes megalencephaly with LD and epilepsy

761
Q

S+Ss type 2 neurofibromatosis?

A

AD, present in adolescence, bilateral acoustic neuromata, present with deafness and cerebellopontine angle syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes

762
Q

S+Ss tuberous sclerosis?

A

AD, mutations in TSC1/2 genes; S+Ss = depigmentation patches, roughened skin over lumbar spine, angiofibromata (over nose-bridge), developmental delay, epilepsy, LD, fibromata under nails, dense white areas on retina, rhabdomyata on heart, angiomyolipomas, polycystic kidneys, lung cysts

763
Q

S+Ss Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

sporadic, port-wine stain in trigeminal distribution, epilepsy, LD, contralateral hemiplegia, ophthalmic nerve always involved

764
Q

Treatment Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

laser treatment to reduce ipsilateral glaucoma risk

765
Q

S+Ss foetal alcohol spectrum disorder?

A

microcephaly, short palpebral fixtures, hypoplastic upper lip, small eyes, low IQ, cardiac mmalformations

766
Q

S+Ss x-linked adenoleukodystrophy (ALD)?

A

peroxisomal defects and neonatal (feeding problems, seizures, hypotonia), X-linked (adrenal glands, brain cells and myelin), childhood cerebral (boys 4-12yrs, low academic performance, regression, ataxia, adrenal insufficiency), adrenomyeloneuropathy (slowly progressive spastic paraparesis, dorsal column sensory disturbance)

767
Q

HEADS for taking a psychosocial hx in adolescents?

A

Home life, Education, Activities, Driving drugs and diet, Sexual health sleep suicide and safety

768
Q

What are the 4 points of child rights?

A

survival rights (food, shelter, access to healthcare), developmental rights (achieve full potential in education, play, thoughts, religion), protection rights (against all forms of abuse), participation rights (active role in the community)

769
Q

Top 5 causes of death in children worldwide?

A

pneumonia, diarrhoea, HIV, malaria and measles

770
Q

Systems review in child?

A

general rashes, fever; resp (cough, wheeze, breathing problems); ENT (throat infections, snoring, noisy breathing); CV (murmur, cyanosis, exercise tolerance); GI (D+V, constipation, abdo pain); GU (dysuria, frequency, bed-wetting); neuro (seizures, headaches, abnormal movements); MSK (gait, limb pain, swelling)

771
Q

What is fogg’s test?

A

walk on heels, inside and outside of feet to assess gait

772
Q

Give the primitive reflexes in infants?

A

moro (sudden head extension causes extension then arm flexion – similar to startle reflex but this dwindles after multiple times), grasp, rooting (head turns to stimulus when touches near mouth), stepping response, asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (when lying supine head turns to side and arm outstreteched)

773
Q

Give the postural reflexes in infants?

A

labyrinthine righting (head moves opposite to way head tilted), postural support (when held upright legs take support), lateral propping (arm extends to way child falls), parachute (arms extend when held upside down)

774
Q

What is developmental screening?

A

checking children at set ages for milestones and formal process

775
Q

What is developmental assessment?

A

detailed analysis of particular areas if development to follow up any concerns for diagnosis and formulating a management plan

776
Q

What is the healthy child programme?

A

screening tests, development reviews, health promotion from 0-19yrs

777
Q

What is optoacoustic emission?

A

use earphone to produce a sound from the ear if cochlear working

778
Q

What is auditory brainstem response audiometry?

A

computer analysis of EEG from auditory stimuli

779
Q

What is visual reinforcement audiometry?

A

Turn head to stimulus with different frequencies

780
Q

What is performance and speech discrimination testing?

A

Can visibly understand the content of what is being said (asked to pick up a toy etc)

781
Q

Give the gross motor function classification?

A

level 1 = walks without limitations, 2 = walks with limitations, 3 = use handheld mobility advice, 4 = self-mobility with limitations (may need powered mobility), 5 = in manual wheelchair

782
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

potentially permanent loss of visual acuity in eye/lazy eye

783
Q

What is involved with the common assessment framework (for special needs)?

A

multidisciplinary sharing of diagnosis, assessment of functional skills, provision of therapy, regular review, coordinated approach to care

784
Q

Flowchart progression for evidence based paeds practice?

A

Frame question, search for evidence, appraise the evidence and make a decision and evaluate your performance

785
Q

S+Ss compensated shock?

A

tachypnoea, tachycardia, low skin turgor, sunken eyes and fontanelle, delayed cap refill, mottled/pale/cold skin, core-peripheral temp gap >4degrees, decreased urine output

786
Q

S+Ss decompensated shock?

A

acidotic breathing, bradycardia, confusion, blue peripheries, absent urine output, hypotension

787
Q

S+Ss sepsis?

A

fever, tachycardia, tachypnoea, purpuric rash (meningococcal shock), poor feeding, irritable, focal infection, multi-organ failure, shock

788
Q

Causes of life threatening events?

A

infections (RSV and pertussis), GORD, seizures, upper airway obstruction

789
Q

Investigations of life threatening events?

A

blood glucose, blood gas, O2 sats, cardioresp monitoring, EEG, oesophageal pH, barium swallow, FBC, U+Es, lactate, urine (culture, toxicology, microscopy, metabolic), ECG, CXR, LP

790
Q

What chelating agents used for lead posioning?

A

D-penicillamine or EDTA if severe

791
Q

2 types of birth defects?

A

single-system or sequence

792
Q

4 causes of dysmorphology?

A

malformation (primary structural defect in development of organ), deformation (abnormal uterine force distorting normal formed structure), disruption (destruction of part that was formed normally), dysplasia (abnormal cells/organisation of tissue)

793
Q

Genetic testing methods?

A

PCR, FISH, aCGH, GWAS

794
Q

When to consider DOPE and what it is?

A

When intubating newborn isn’t working; displaced airway, obstructed airway, patient (airway disorders, shock, birth asphyxia etc), equipment failure

795
Q

What to give all newborns to stop haemorrhaging?

A

Vit K

796
Q

What is the guthrie/heel prick/newborn screening test for in newborns?

A

biochemical screening from blood; for checking if have phenylketonuria, hypothyroidism, haemoglobinopathies, CF, MCAD

797
Q

Why is hypothermia a problem in preterm infants and how is it prevented?

A

thinner walls, less fat, large SA to V ratio; put in incubators, cover and keep dry

798
Q

What is the cause of transient tachypnoea in the newborn?

A

delay in resorption of lung liquid

799
Q

How to prevent left to right shunting in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn?

A

use NO or sildenafil to dilate vessels

800
Q

Main cause of pulmonary hypoplasia in newborn?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

801
Q

Neonatal seizures S+Ss?

A

unstimulated, repetitive, rhythmic clonic movements

802
Q

Neonatal seizures treatment and investigations?

A

use EEG and check for hypoglycaemia/meningitis, head US, use MRI to check for stroke

803
Q

What is the fastest growth period?

A

Foetal

804
Q

What is failure to thrive?

A

Inability to grow in infantile growth stage

805
Q

What is craniosynostosis?

A

premature fusion of the skull sutures leading to head shape distortion

806
Q

When does the brain dveelop the most?

A

Last trimester of pregnancy and first 2yrs of life

807
Q

Problems with breastfeeding?

A

o Can transmit drugs or infection (hep B, HIV), jaundice, less flexible, vit K if breast milk is deficient

808
Q

Mechanism for breastfeeding?

A

baby uses rooting, sucking and swallowing reflex, tactile receptors in nipple activated, hypothalamus sends impulses to anterior (prolactin secretion for milk secretion from cuboidal cells) and posterior pituitary (oxytocin for contraction for ‘let down’ reflex in myoepithelial cells)

809
Q

When should be weaning of pureed food be introduced?

A

After 6 months (don’t give wheat, eggs, fish) and no honey til 1yr to prevent infantile botulism

810
Q

Causes of failure to thrive?

A

organic (impaired suck/swallow reflex, cleft palate, Crohn’s, chronic renal failure, CF, liver disease, coeliac, cow’s milk intolerance, chromosomal disorders) or non-organic (psychosocial and environmental deprivation), undernutrition for both

811
Q

History taking in failure to thrive?

A

diet, feeding details, energy levels, diarrhoea, vomiting, cough, premature/IUGR, growth of other family, development normal, psychosocial, HF, dysmorphia

812
Q

How is vit D3 activated?

A

hydroxylated by liver from oral/sun intake or from bone by parathyroid hormone

813
Q

Earliest sign of rickets?

A

craniotabes (ping pong sensation in skull)

814
Q

Pathophysiology of vit A deficiency?

A

aka retinol, complication of fat malabsorption

815
Q

S+Ss and complications of Vit A deficiency?

A

S+Ss = rare other than can’t adapt to dark light; complications = eye damage (xerophthalmia), night blindness from corneal ulceration and scarring, susceptible to infection

816
Q

S+Ss Meckels diverticulum?

A

ectopic gastric mucosa/pancreatic tissue, S+Ss = severe rectal bleeding, volvulus, diverticulitis

817
Q

Aetiology and S+Ss volvulus?

A

mesentery unfixed at duodenojejunal flexure/ileocaeal region and obstruction with/out compromised blood supply, dark green bilious vomiting, abdo pain from peritonitis/ischaemia

818
Q

Treatment for diarrhoea in kids?

A

fluids (isotonic), abx (don’t try to use anti-diarrhoea/anti-emetics) then give good nutrition post-infection

819
Q

SS and aetiology of coeliacs?

A

AI against gluten to lead to villous atrophy, anaemia, failure to thrive and abdo distension

820
Q

Difference between UC and crohns?

A

only after ileum and crohn is skip lesions and anywhere from mouth to anus

821
Q

What is used to treat EBV in kids if not serious?

A

Amoxicillin/ampicillin with symptomatic management (airway management)

822
Q

TB S+Ss in kids?

A

fever, malaise, anorexia, weight loss, focal infection signs

823
Q

Tests for TB?

A

Mantoux, interferon gamma release assays (best one) and tuberculin tests

824
Q

RIPE treatment for TB?

A

rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

825
Q

Vaccine prevention TB?

A

BCG

826
Q

Sinusitis in paeds S+Ss?

A

mainly paranasal sinuses with tenderness, swelling

827
Q

Treatment for sinusitis?

A

acute give abx, analgesia and topical decongestants

828
Q

Indications for tonsillectomy or adenoidectomy?

A

recurrent tonsillitis, OSA, peritonsillar abscess

829
Q

Differences between croup and epiglottitis?

A

croup over days rather than hours, no coryza in epiglottitis before, severe coughing/barking, can’t drink in epiglottitis, drooling in epiglottitis, higher fever and more unwell in epiglottitis, harsher stridor in croup

830
Q

Vaccines against the pathogens causing pneumonia?

A

Prevenar and Hib

831
Q

What is global developmental delay in children?

A

delay in more than 2 areas of development – mild, moderate and severe determined against children of their age

832
Q

What test and why would you do in a boy 18 months old and not walking?

A

CK for muscular dystrophy

833
Q

Dx diagnosis of testicular torsion?

A

testicular appendage/Mullerian remnant is torsion of appendix testis and mimics testicular torsion

834
Q

Dx of lumps in neck?

A

thyroglossal cyst on front of neck (surgical removal), cervical lymph nodes swelling (viral infection but if >2cm for 2wks then maybe lymphoma etc), brachial fistula

835
Q

What is omphalitis?

A

infection of umbilicus, can form sepsis quite easily so needs immediate treatment

836
Q

Consequences of tricuspid atresia?

A

mixing of blood and difficult to treat surgically as right atria not working, relies on venous pressure to pump blood to lungs, palliation, chronic cyanosis that worsens

837
Q

Tests of kidney function in children?

A

plasma creatinine conc, eGFR, inulin/EDTA filtration rate, plasma urea conc

838
Q

Consequences of acute nephritis?

A

hypertension, oedema, proteinuria, haematuria, decreased urine output, volume overload

839
Q

Normal conditions in young boys in the genitals?

A

preputial adhesions (foreskin partially adherent to glans) and trapped epithelial squames looking like white pearls under foreskin

840
Q

Indications for circumcision?

A

recurrent balanoposthitis, recurrent complicated UTIs, phimosis

841
Q

Treatment for vulvovaginitis and fusion of labia minora firstline?

A

Topical oestrogen

842
Q

Warning signs for jaundice in neonates needing treatment?

A

• Prolonged neonatal jaundice (with pale stools, dark urine, bleeding tendency, failure to thrive)

843
Q

Main S+Ss of liver failure?

A

encephalopathy, jaundice, epistaxis, pale stools, dark urine, bleeding tendency, failure to thrive, ascites, hypotonia, peripheral neuropathy, rickets, varices of portal hypertension, spider naevi, muscle wasting, bruising, petechiae, splenomegaly, hypersplenism, hepatorenal failure, liver palms, clubbing

844
Q

Diagnosis of billiary atresia?

A

operative cholaniography

845
Q

How to treat billiary atresia?

A

Kasai procedure/hepatoportoenterostomy

846
Q

Causes of chronic liver disease?

A

hep B and C, AI hepatitis, nitrofurantoin/NSAIDs, IBD, primary sclerosing cholangitis, Wilson’s, alpha 1 antitrypsin, CF, neonatal liver disease, bile duct lesions

847
Q

Treatment of ascites?

A

Diuretcis and fluid and sodium restriction

848
Q

Treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Broad spectrum abx

849
Q

Vitamins given in liver failure?

A

ADEK

850
Q

3 indicators of malignancy in general?

A

localised mass, disseminated disease (bone infiltration etc), pressure from mass on local structures

851
Q

SEs of chemo?

A

Allopecia, GI damage, N+V

852
Q

Name of the cells in Hodgkin’s lymphoma to diagnose?

A

Reed-sternberg

853
Q

Most common way retinoblastoma picked up?

A

White reflex instead of red reflex

854
Q

S+Ss of langerhans cell histiocytosis?

A

technically not cancer; S+Ss = seborrheic rash, widespread soft tissue infiltration, bone pain/swelling, diabetes insipidus

855
Q

5 factors involved in blood clotting homeostasis and how they do it?

A

coagulation factors (vessel injury and from liver), coagulation inhibitors (stop widespread coagulation), fibrinolysis (limits fibrin deposition to just site of injury), platelets (aggregate at site of injury for fibrin), blood vessels (initiate and limit coagulation, intact release prostaglandin I2 and NO for vasodilation and inhibition platelet aggregation; damaged releases tissue factor and procoagulants [VWF and collagen])

856
Q

Are haemangiomas ok?

A

not good in mouth as obstruction, eye and use beta blockers

857
Q

What are mongolian blue spots (on bottom)?

A

not bruises btu fine and should go away

858
Q

What is coxsackie?

A

hand, foot and mouth disease

859
Q

Molluscum contagiosum S+Ss?

A

red warts all over skin

860
Q

What causes impetigo and therefore what should you use to treat it?

A

from staph aureus and use flucloxacillin

861
Q

DKA CO2 and pH and HCO3 values?

A

pH = 7.06, CO2 = 2.8 and HCO3 = 13

862
Q

What happens after 6 months of ITP?

A

Becomes chronic and should screen for SLE

863
Q

What age do babies get upset about removal from their main caregiver?

A

6-8 months

864
Q

What is the triphasic acute separation reaction?

A

mounting fear mother doesn’t reappear; then child becomes withdrawn from play, food and speech; child eventually cheers up but now indifferent to the mother (detachment)

865
Q

What does the PATHOS mneumonic stand for in assessing suicide risk?

A

Problems for longing than a month?, Alone in the house at the time?, plan the OD for longer than Three hours?, feeling HOpeless about the future?, feeling Sad most of the time before OD?

866
Q

Main psych treatment for emotional and behavioural problems?

A

explanation and reassurance, counselling of child/parents, parenting groups, behavioural therapy, family therapy, cognitive therapy, individual or group dynamic psychotherapy

867
Q

What is a collodion baby and how to treat?

A

baby comes out dry and scaly skin; use emollients and moisturisers

868
Q

S+Ss ringworm?

A

when dermophyte fungi invade dead keratinous skin, scalp from dogs and cats, UV light can show yellow infected hairs

869
Q

Treatment ringworm?

A

Topical antifungals

870
Q

What is pediculosis?

A

Headlice

871
Q

Long-term risks from diabetes?

A

stunted growth, delayed puberty, HT, renal disease, retinopathy, peripheral neuropathy (feet), type 1 associated with coeliac, thyroid disease and other AI diseases

872
Q

Definition of hypoglycaemia?

A

BG below 2.6mmol/L

873
Q

Main cause of hyperthyroidism in children?

A

Grave’s disease

874
Q

Causes of failure of treatment?

A

ADECB = adherence, diagnosis, environment, choice of drugs/device, bad disease

875
Q

Definition of UTI?

A

at least 10^5 organisms in urine

876
Q

Types of strabismus?

A

eye deviation/strabismus = esotropia (eye deviates in), exotropia (eye out), hypertropia (up) and hypotropia (down); others = deviation when covered esophoria, exophoria, hyperphoria, hypophoria

877
Q

What is anisometropia?

A

difference in refractive error (associated with strabismus and amblyopia)

878
Q

How to detect a strabismus?

A

Corneal reflective test, cover test using corneal reflection

879
Q

Treatment of amblyopia?

A

refractive adaptation (glasses), occlusion of the better seeing eye, atropine drops to paralyse the good eye

880
Q

Management of strabismus?

A

glasses, orthoptic exercises, prisms, surgery or botox in extraocular muscles

881
Q

What are the three factors a disability is defined by?

A

functioning, activity and ability to participate

882
Q

WHODAS 6 domains of functioning covered in assessing a disability?

A

cognition, mobility, self-care, social, life activities, participation

883
Q

Problems with prematurity?

A

chronic lung disease of prematurity, inadequate neural development (LD), apnoea of prematurity (baby forgets to breath, give phosphodiesterase inhibitor and caffeine, CPAP), ventricular haemorrhage (not usually long-term consequences unless massive), cystic periventricular leukomalacia (worst type of premature brain injury – end up with some kind of plegia [hemi, para, tetra]), 22-25 wks very high likelihood of death

884
Q

Who automatically has parental responsibility?

A

• Unless married, the mother has parental responsibility of the child’s care

885
Q

Factors to cover when thinking about when to apply fraser guidelines (and Gillick competency)?

A

girl understand advice, cannot persuade to tell parents about contraceptive advice, likely to keep having sex, unless she has contraceptive advice physical and mental health suffer, best interests to give contraceptive advice

886
Q

Cause of transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

C section

887
Q

Origin of cause for inspiratory stridor?

A

Laryngeal

888
Q

Origin of cause for biphasic stridor?

A

subglottis/trachea

889
Q

Origin of cause of expiratory stridor?

A

bronchi

890
Q

ENT causes of stridor?

A

laryngomalacia, cysts, papilloma, haemangiomas, clefts, post intubation subglottis stenosis, tracheobronchomalacia

891
Q

Diagnosis of OSA?

A

Polysomnography and management from hx and examination (large adenoids need removal with tonsils)

892
Q

Which side does foreign body tend to fall into in lung?

A

Right side

893
Q

Red flag sign causes for high fever?

A

Pneumonia, UTI, bone/joint infection, kawasaki, flu, meningitis and meningococcal septicaemia

894
Q

S+Ss meningococcal sepitcaemia?

A

Fever, rigors, mottled, rash (non-blanching), bulging fontanelle, febrile, tachypnoea, tachycardia, cold peripheries, delirium, arthralgia

895
Q

What is a vesicle?

A

blistering like in chicken pox/herpes simplex

896
Q

What is a pustule?

A

pus in a vesicle

897
Q

What is petechiae?

A

smaller spots of purpura (below 2mm)

898
Q

What is urticaria?

A

raised, itchy red rash usually from reaction and looks like nettle sting

899
Q

What is eczema?

A

dry itchy skin and can be red

900
Q

What is the mnemonic and what it stands for for emergency management of a seriously ill child?

A

ABCDENT TT - airway, breathing, circulation, ENT, temperature, tummy

901
Q

Thalidomide ADR?

A

fetal congenital abnormalities

902
Q

Surfactant ADR?

A

pulmonary haemorrhage

903
Q

Chloramphenicol (eyedrops abx) ADR?

A

grey baby syndrome

904
Q

Ceftriaxone ADR?

A

calcium precipitation

905
Q

Sulphonamides ADR?

A

kernicterus

906
Q

Aniline dye from nappies ADR?

A

methaemoglobinaemia

907
Q

Sodium valproate ADR?

A

liver toxicity

908
Q

Propofol ADR?

A

metabolic acidosis

909
Q

Lamotrigine ADR?

A

serious skin reactions

910
Q

What does more protein in CSF mean?

A

Bacterial CNS infection

911
Q

Sepsis 6 for child?

A

High flow oxygen, inotropic support, IV/IO access and bloods, IV/IO abx, involve senior clinicians

912
Q

SEs of rifampicin?

A

Nausea, thrombocytopenia, liver problems and reduces efficacy of the pill

913
Q

Management of septic child?

A

sepsis 6, fluid management (20ml per kilo), 3x bolus then intubate if not stable, metabolic disturbances found and corrected, catheterise

914
Q

Give 2 DMARDs?

A

methotrexate/sulfasalzine

915
Q

My HEART mnemonic for kawasaki S+Ss?

A

mucosal involvement like dry lips and strawberry tongue, Hands and feet with desquamation and oedema, Eyes non-purulent bilateral conjunctivitis, adenopathy of cervical lymph nodes, rash usually truncal and pleomorphic, temperature for at least 5 days

916
Q

Treatment for kawasaki?

A

Aspirin and IVIg

917
Q

Fluid management for DKA (values for shocked and not shocked)?

A

shock = 1st bolus 20ml/kg 0.9% NaCl, further use 10ml/kg; not shocked = 10ml/kg 0.9% over 1 hour

918
Q

The MISFITS and NEOSECRETS causes acronyms for collapsed child?

A

o T: Trauma, tumor, thermal
o H: Heart disease, hypovolemia, hypoxia
o E: Endocrine (CAH, DM, thyroid)
o M: Metabolic disturbances (electrolyte imbalance)
o I: Inborn errors of metabolism
o S: Seizures or CNS abnormalities
o F: Formula dilution or over-concentration leading to hypo/hypernatremia
o I: Intestinal catastrophe (intussusception, volvulus, NEC)
o T: Toxins (including home remedies such as baking soda for burping)
o S: Sepsis

o	N: iNborn errors of metabolism
o	E: Electrolyte abnormalities
o	O: Overdose
o	S: Seizures
o	E: Enteric emergencies
o	C: Cardiac abnormalities
o	R: Recipe (formula, additives)
o	E: Endocrine crisis
o	T: Trauma
o	S: Sepsis
919
Q

What medication to give for high risk of RSV (immunodeficient/CF)?

A

Prophylactic palivizumab every month

920
Q

Longterm management for HF with septal defects?

A

ACEi, diuretics

921
Q

Causes of faltering growth categories?

A

Intake decreased, increased metabolism/requirements, decreased absorption

922
Q

Stool softeners examples for faecal impaction?

A

Movicol and lactulose

923
Q

Stimulant laxative example?

A

Senna

924
Q

What are TORCH and when are they referred to?

A

toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex; antepartum infections

925
Q

EEG for absence seizure?

A

3 spikes

926
Q

First line treatment drugs for paeds epilepsy?

A

sodium valproate, ethosuximide

927
Q

What type of seizure tends to happen in the morning and what type of epilepsy can it develop from?

A

Myoclonic from absence seizures

928
Q

Cause of resp distress in premature baby?

A

Choanal atresia, IVH, sepsis, surfactant dysfunction, congenital heart defect, congenital pulmonary defect, pneumonia (strep B), sepsis (treat with benzylpenicillin, amoxicillin and gentamicin)

929
Q

Treatment amount for sepsis in premature baby of benzylpenicillin?

A

25mg/kg

930
Q

How does jaundice tend to progress?

A

From the eyes craniocaudally downwards

931
Q

Obstructive jaundice signs?

A

pale stools and dark urine

932
Q

S+Ss and aetiology of medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)?

A

fat breakdown; infections, fasting, diarrhoea, vomiting with encephalopathy with death if untreated

933
Q

Treatment of MCADD?

A

IV/enteral glucose before BMs decrease

934
Q

mnemonic PAMGU for main illnesses in kids?

A

pneumonia, acute otitis media, meningitis, gastroenteritis and uti

935
Q

BINDS mnemonic for PMC?

A

Birth hx, immunisations, neonatal, development hx, shx

936
Q

VITAMIN CDE for differentials?

A

vascular, infectious/inflammatory, traumatic/toxic, autoimmune, metabolic, iatrogenic/idiopathic, neoplastic, congenital, degenerative, endocrine

937
Q

O SHIT for asthma management in severe attacks and IV treatment after this?

A

oxygen, salbutamol (nebulised and IV), hydrocortisone, ipratropium bromide, theophylline

IV = magnesium sulfate and then salbutamol

938
Q

Give a tocolytic?

A

Atosiban