Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Is there any evidence for a ketogenic diet?

A

The ketogenic diet has been reported to be effective in refractory cases of epilepsy in childhood, even when multiple antiepileptic trials have failed. It is typically initiated in the hospital by starvation for 1 to 2 days in order to induce ketosis. This is followed by a strict diet in which 80% to 90% of calories are derived from fat.

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2
Q

What is the best treatment option for simple febrile seizures? What is the risk of developing epilepsy?

A

Supportive care is the general recommendation for the management of a simple febrile seizure (FS). It is estimated that about 3% to 5% of children aged 5 months to 5 years have simple FS. Ninety percent of these events occur in the first 3 years of life. One-third of patients have at least one additional seizure. Risk factors for having a simple FS include family history of FS, prolonged neonatal intensive care unit stay, developmental delay, and day care. There is a <5% risk that patients with a simple FS will develop epilepsy.

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3
Q

What is the definition of a simple febrile seizure?

A

Simple FSs are characterized by the following: <15 minutes in duration, generalized seizure, lack of focality, normal neurologic examination, no persistent deficits, and negative family history for seizures.

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4
Q

What defines a complex febrile seizure?

A

Complex FSs occur in approximately 20% of FSs and are characterized by the following: >15 minutes in duration, focal features, abnormal neurologic examination, seizure recurrence in <24 hours, and postictal signs (Todd’s paralysis), and are more likely to be due to meningitis, encephalitis, or an underlying seizure disorder.

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5
Q

What is GENFS+. What gene is most commonly associated with generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus (GEFS+)

A

GEFS+ is a familial syndrome. defined as FSs continuing beyond the defined upper age limit (5). 1/3 have other seizure types as well. most frequently reported mutation is SCN1A (codes pore forming alpha subunit of the sodium channel and comprises 4 transmembrane domains

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6
Q

What is Rasmussen’s syndrome? What is the characteristic imaging findings?

A

Rasmussen’s syndrome is a rare, but severe, inflammatory brain disorder characterized by progressive unilateral hemispheric atrophy, associated progressive neurologic dysfunction (hemiparesis and cognitive deterioration), and intractable focal seizures (epilepsia partialis continua). Imaging reveals slowly progressive development of focal cortical atrophy, which correlates to the clinical findings. It has been postulated that antibodies to glutamate receptor-3 (GLUR3) may play a pathogenic role, although the available data are conflicting and the specificity of GLUR3 antibodies in the pathogenesis of Rasmussen’s encephalitis has been challenged. the best treatment option for the patient’s intractable seizures is the surgical approach with hemispherectomy.

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7
Q

What does the finding of porencephaly on MRI suggest?

A

Generally associated with ischaemic insult in utero

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8
Q

What are the causes of Progressive myoclonic epilepsies? What is first line treatment?

A

Most progressive myoclonic epilepsies (PMEs) are due to either lysosomal storage disorders and/or mitochondrial disorders. They are characterized by progressive cognitive decline, myoclonus (epileptic and nonepileptic), and seizures (tonic–clonic, tonic, and myoclonic), and may be associated with ataxia or movement disorders. Examples include Lafora body disease, Unverricht– Lundborg syndrome, neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis, myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF), and sialidosis. Valproic acid is often the first-line treatment of myoclonic epilepsy. Caution is advised with use of valproic acid in patients with mitochondrial mutations, such as POLG gene mutations, because fulminant hepatic failure may result. Other treatments include clonazepam, levetiracetam, topiramate, and zonisamide. Lamotrigine is sometimes used, but caution is advised because it rarely may worsen myoclonic seizures. Gabapentin, carbamazepine, pregabalin, and vigabatrin are also known to exacerbate some myoclonic epilepsies.

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9
Q

Which drugs exacerbate absence seizures?

A

Phenytoin, carbamazepine, gabapentin, and lamotrigine have all been associated with aggravation of absence seizures and even absence status epilepticus in children with absence epilepsy.

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10
Q

What is benign rolandic epilepsy of childhood? What is the EEG? What is the treatment?

A

Benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (benign rolandic epilepsy of childhood) is fairly common and accounts for about 25% of childhood seizures. Onset is usually between 2 and 13 years of age, and the condition typically resolves in the mid- teenage years. Seizures are characterized by focal motor, sensory, or autonomic manifestations involving predominantly the face, mouth, throat, or extremities, although secondary generalization can occur. These are seizures that classically occur nocturnally (70% only in sleep, 15% only awake, and 15% both). The EEG is characterized by the presence of independent bilateral, repetitive, broad, centrotemporal interictal EEG spikes on a normal background. The discharges are thought to arise from the vicinity of the precentral and postcentral gyri in the lower suprasylvian region. The characteristic EEG spike pattern is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait with variable penetrance. Normal development, physical examination, and brain imaging are the rule, though there are exceptions. Seizures respond well to certain antiepileptic medication and carbamazepine is usually considered the first line of therapy in the United States. It is important to note that it is often not necessary to treat with AEDs unless seizures are prolonged or frequent; some advocate waiting for two or more seizures to occur before initiating treatment. If antiepileptic medications are started, they can generally be stopped after adolescence. (Only 10% continue to have seizures 5 years after onset.)

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11
Q

What are is West syndrome?

A

Infantile spasms occur during the first year of life (typically 3 to 8 months) and are discussed further in question 45. They are characterized by sudden tonic extension or flexion of limbs and axial body, often occurring in clusters, and especially shortly after awakening. West’s syndrome is a triad of infantile spasms, hypsarrhythmia, and psychomotor arrest or regression. This disorder often occurs because of pre/peri/postnatal insults, tuberous sclerosis, cerebral dysgenesis, and others. Treatment with ACTH is generally first line. Other treatments include corticosteroids, vigabatrin, clonazepam, levetiracetam, topiramate, pyridoxine, and valproic acid. Vigabatrin has been associated with retinal toxicity.

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12
Q

What is Aicardi’s syndrome?

A

This patient has Aicardi’s syndrome, which is a rare genetic disorder, usually associated with an X-linked dominant pattern of inheritance. Aicardi’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of infantile spasms, chorioretinal lacunae, and agenesis of the corpus callosum. Being an X-linked dominant disorder, it is encountered predominantly in girls, as the mutation is lethal in males. This syndrome is associated with various nonspecific ocular malformations, such as cataracts, microphthalmia, retinal detachment, and hypoplastic papilla. The presence of chorioretinal lacunae is pathognomonic for this syndrome. The EEG shows multiple epileptiform abnormalities, such as burst suppression pattern with asynchrony between the two hemispheres and a disorganized background.

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13
Q

What is doose syndrome?

A

This patient has Doose’s syndrome or myoclonic–astatic epilepsy. Typical onset is between 1 and 5 years of age. Children are normal prior to the onset of seizures, and many continue to have normal cognitive development. Seizures are predominantly generalized with myoclonic or astatic components, in which the patient loses postural tone and falls, sometimes resulting in injuries. There may be other seizure types, such as absence, GTC, and tonic seizures, and/or nonconvulsive status epilepticus. The EEG demonstrates interictal bilateral synchronous irregular 2- to 3-Hz spike and wave complexes along with parietal rhythmic θ-activity. Myoclonic seizures are associated with irregular spikes and polyspikes. There may be a genetic predisposition, and a family history of epilepsy or abnormal EEGs is frequent.
Although many patients remain normal, some have severe developmental delay and intractable seizures, and the prognosis may be variable. Valproic acid is commonly prescribed. Ethosuximide may help with absence seizures. Levetiracetam and ketogenic diet have also been reported to be beneficial in some cases.

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14
Q

What is Dravet’s syndrome?

A

This patient has Dravet’s syndrome or severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy. This is a severe epilepsy syndrome, in which the patient has frequent seizures and various seizure types. The typical initial presentation is a febrile seizure (FS) in the first year of life; later, these patients develop other seizure types, including myoclonias, atypical absences, and tonic and tonic–clonic seizures, which could be generalized and/or unilateral. Given the initial presentation with an FS, the diagnosis may be delayed. Males are more affected than females, and there may be a family history of epilepsy or abnormal EEGs. In fact, Dravet’s syndrome may lie at the most severe end of the spectrum of generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus (GEFS+) and may commonly be associated with a mutation in the sodium channel gene SCN1A. The EEG may be normal initially in the interictal period, later showing generalized spike–wave complexes as well as focal and multifocal spikes. Developmental delay is the rule and neurologic abnormalities are common. The prognosis is poor, seizures are difficult to control, and there is sensitivity to hyperthermia. Treatment options include valproic acid, topiramate, zonisamide, and ketogenic diet. Importantly, treatment with phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine may exacerbate the seizures.

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15
Q

What is ohtahara’s syndrome?

A

This patient has Ohtahara’s syndrome, also known as early infantile epileptic encephalopathy. This is a rare severe neurologic condition in which seizures begin during early infancy (between 1 day and 3 months of age). Patients have epileptic tonic spasms occurring multiple times per day. The EEG typically shows a burst suppression pattern that is present during wakefulness or sleep. This is a catastrophic epileptic encephalopathy with intractable seizures and a very poor prognosis. In one series, 25% of patients died before 2 years of age. All survivors have severe disabilities and developmental impairment.

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16
Q

What is benign myoclonic epilepsy of infancy?

A

This patient has benign myoclonic epilepsy of infancy (BMEI). This condition affects males more than females, between the ages of 4 months and 3 years. It is characterized by the presence of brief myoclonic seizures, which are easily treatable. These myoclonias are brief (1 to 3 seconds) and usually isolated and are more prominent during drowsiness, photostimulation, and external stimulation. Unlike infantile spasms, the myoclonic seizures of BMEI do not occur in long series/clusters. During a myoclonic seizure, the EEG shows generalized spikes and waves or polyspikes and waves. The interictal EEG is normal. Neuroimaging is usually normal. Seizures respond well to valproic acid, and the prognosis is generally good with spontaneous resolution of seizures in less than a year. Neuropsychological outcome is favorable, although a small minority of patients may have mild cognitive–developmental delay.

17
Q

What are benign neonatal seizures?

A

This patient has benign neonatal seizures. In this syndrome, full- term, otherwise healthy, newborns develop seizures around day 5 of life (also referred to as “fifth day fits”), which are partial clonic seizures that may be unilateral and/or symmetric and may migrate to other regions of the body. These seizures are frequently associated with apneic spells. The EEG is normal but may demonstrate the “θ pointu alternant” pattern, characterized by discontinuous, asynchronous, unreactive θ-activity with intermixed sharp waves. Patients are neurologically normal. In general, there is no need for treatment with antiepileptic agents, and seizures resolve spontaneously by 4 to 6 weeks of age.
Benign neonatal seizures and benign familial neonatal seizures should be diagnoses of exclusion, and workup to rule out symptomatic seizures is indicated. Benign familial neonatal seizures is an autosomal dominant disorder, characterized by seizures in the first few days of life, which resolve spontaneously within few weeks. Genetic linkage studies have mapped two disease loci, both associated with mutations in voltage-gated potassium channels, in the genes KCNQ2 on chromosome 20 and KCNQ3 on chromosome
8.

18
Q

What is panayiotopoulos syndrome?

A

This child presents with an idiopathic occipital epilepsy, more specifically early-onset childhood occipital epilepsy or Panayiotopoulos syndrome. In this condition, the seizures begin between 4 and 8 years of age (with a peak incidence at 4 to 5 years) and are characterized by tonic eye deviation and vomiting. Visual auras are reported during wakefulness, characterized by elementary or complex visual hallucinations and illusions. Partial or generalized tonic-clonic seizures may occur during sleep; in fact, in the majority of children, seizures occur predominantly or exclusively in sleep. The EEG shows high-voltage occipital spikes in 1- to 3-Hz bursts, which disappear with eye opening and reappear with eye closure or darkness. Treatment is generally not required. The prognosis is good, and this condition resolves within several years.

19
Q

What is gastaut type childhood occipital epilepsy?

A

Late-onset childhood occipital epilepsy or Gastaut type occurs in older children at a mean age of 8 years (between the ages of 4 and 13 years) and consists of brief seizures with visual manifestations, followed by hemiclonic convulsions and in some cases a postictal migraine. The EEG is similar to that seen in Panayiotopoulos syndrome. The prognosis is variable in the Gastaut type, but most patients have a benign course. However, pharmacologic therapy may be needed and seizures may be difficult to control in some cases.

20
Q

What is Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome?

A

This patient has Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome (LGS). This syndrome is characterized by the triad of seizures of multiple types, EEG with diffuse slow (1.5 to 2 Hz) spike–wave complexes, and cognitive– developmental impairment. The onset is between the ages of 1 to 8 years, with most children presenting at the age of 3 to 5 years. Less than half of these patients will have normal cognitive function before the onset of seizures, eventually deteriorating after the onset of seizures leading to severe psychomotor impairment. About 60% of the cases have an identified cause but some are cryptogenic. Patients with LGS will develop various seizure types, including atypical absence, tonic, atonic, myoclonic, and tonic– clonic seizures. Valproic acid and clonazepam are frequently used. Other medications that could be given include lamotrigine, felbamate, topiramate, and vigabatrin. Ketogenic diet may be considered. These seizures are often refractory to therapy

21
Q

What is Landau-Kleffner syndrome?

A

This patient has Landau–Kleffner syndrome, also known as acquired epileptic aphasia. This syndrome is characterized by an acquired aphasia associated with epileptiform abnormalities on EEG and seizures of various types. The age of onset is between 2 and 11 years, with a peak onset between 5 and 7 years; these children may initially present with word deafness in the setting of normal hearing. The disorder of language progresses and both a receptive and expressive aphasia may eventually occur. The seizures are of various types, including atypical absence, myoclonic, tonic, and tonic–clonic. Furthermore, a small minority of patients do not have a history of clinical seizures. The EEG demonstrates multifocal cortical spikes, predominantly in the temporal and parietal lobes, most frequently bilaterally. Antiepileptic agents such as valproic acid and lamotrigine are usually effective in controlling the seizures. Recovery of speech on the other hand is variable, with some patients having significant improvement but others not. Corticosteroids have been tried with variable success.

22
Q

What is autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy?

A

This patient has autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (ADNFLE). These seizures begin in childhood and frequently persist into adult life. Patients with ADNFLE present with bizarre episodic behaviors in the context of hypermotor seizures, that is, hyperkinetic seizures with prominent motor phenomena, such as thrashing and jerking. These seizures occur during non-REM sleep, and patients may experience sudden awakenings with motor manifestations. Some patients will be conscious and report auras with epigastric, sensory, or psychic components. Because of the unusual appearance of these seizures, they are often mistaken for psychogenic nonepileptic seizures (“pseudoseizures”) or sleep-related disorders. The interictal EEG is usually normal, and the diagnosis is based on capturing the seizures on video EEG. These seizures usually respond well to carbamazepine or oxcarbazepine. Mutations in the genes that encode subunits of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, CNRNA4 and CHRNB2, have been detected.

23
Q

What is electrical status epilepticus during slow wave sleep?

A

Electrical status epilepticus during slow-wave sleep (ESES) presents in children between ages 1 and 12 years (peak around 4 to 5 years) with psychomotor impairment and multiple seizure types that occur more often during sleep. The diagnosis is made with the EEG showing slow spike–wave complexes occurring during non- REM sleep occupying at least 85% of the slow-wave sleep time. This disorder has been linked to Landau–Kleffner syndrome (see question 54). Although there is an overlap between these two syndromes, children with ESES present with a more global regression and seizures that may be more difficult to treat.

24
Q

What are risk factors for a recurrent simple febrile seizure after having one?

A

-e a family history of FS, age younger than 18 months at the time of the first FS, lower peak temperature, and shorter duration of fever prior to the FS. Simple FS or complex FS carries similar risk of recurrence.

25
Q

What are risk factors for developing epilepsy after having a simple febrile seizure?

A

The risk of developing epilepsy following a single simple FS is not substantially different than the risk in the general population. On the contrary, patients with complex FS may be at risk of developing epilepsy in the future. The risk is even higher when the complex FS was very prolonged in duration (i.e., febrile status epilepticus). Other risk factors to develop epilepsy include the presence of a neurodevelopmental abnormality and/or family history of epilepsy. Importantly, a family history of FS does not predispose the patient to subsequent development of epilepsy.

26
Q

What is Unverricht-Lundbory syndrome?

A

his patient has Unverricht–Lundborg syndrome, one of the PMEs. This group of disorders is characterized by myoclonic epilepsy and progressive neurologic deterioration and includes Unverricht– Lundborg syndrome, Lafora body disease, MERFF, sialidosis, and neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis. Unverricht–Lundborg syndrome, also known as Baltic myoclonic epilepsy, is an autosomal recessive condition associated with mutations in the gene EPM1 located on the chromosomal locus 21q22.3, which encodes for cystatin B, a cysteine protease inhibitor associated with the initiation of apoptosis. Patients with Unverricht–Lundborg syndrome present between 6 and 15 years of age with stimulus-sensitive myoclonus, which is action related and worsens over time. Eventually, they develop various seizure types, including absences, focal motor, or GTC seizures. These patients will deteriorate neurologically, presenting with ataxia, tremor, and intellectual decline. Magnetic resonance imaging is usually normal, and EEG shows generalized spike–waves and polyspikes. Treatment options include valproic acid, clonazepam, levetiracetam, and zonisamide. Certain AEDs may worsen the seizures, including phenytoin, carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine, vigabatrin, tiagabine, gabapentin, and pregabalin. These patients may worsen progressively, but, in some cases, the disease stabilizes over the years.

27
Q

What are some of the PME disorders?

A

PMEs. This group of disorders is characterized by myoclonic epilepsy and progressive neurologic deterioration and includes Unverricht– Lundborg syndrome, Lafora body disease, MERFF, sialidosis, and neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis.

28
Q

What is myoclonic epilepsy with ragged-red fibers (MERRF), which is a mitochondrial disorder

A

Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers is a mitochondrial disorder that usually starts in the second or third decade of life and is maternally inherited (like other disorders of mitochondrial DNA). Cerebrospinal fluid studies will show elevation of pyruvate and lactate, and the serum creatine kinase may be elevated. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain usually demonstrates cerebral atrophy. Point mutations in mitochondrial DNA have been detected in this disorder.

The patient has various characteristics suggestive of a mitochondrial disorder, including migraines, short stature, ataxia, cognitive impairment, deafness, epilepsy, and elevated lactate. He has generalized proximal weakness suggesting a myopathy, and the muscle biopsy in Figure 5.6 demonstrates ragged red fibers, which supports the diagnosis.

29
Q

What is sialidosis?

A

This patient has a progressive myoclonic epilepsy (PME), more specifically sialidosis. There are two types of sialidosis that can cause PME: Type I is caused by a deficiency of α-neuraminidase and presents in adolescents and adults with action myoclonus and slowly progressive ataxia, tonic–clonic seizures, and vision loss. These patients do not have psychomotor or cognitive deterioration or dysmorphism, and, characteristically, the fundoscopic examination demonstrates a cherry red spot. Type II is caused by deficiency of N-acetyl neuraminidase and β-galactosialidase and begins between the neonatal period and the second decade of life. These patients have myoclonus, along with coarse facial features, corneal clouding, hepatomegaly, skeletal dysplasia, and learning disabilities. The sialidoses are autosomal recessive, and the gene implicated is NEU1 in chromosome 6p21.3. The diagnosis is confirmed with the detection of high urinary sialyl oligosaccharides and by confirmation of the lysosomal enzyme deficiency in leukocytes or cultured fibroblasts.

30
Q

What is Lafora body disease?

A

Lafora body disease, which is an autosomal recessive disorder associated with a mutation in the gene EPM2A on chromosome 6q, encoding laforin, a ribosomal protein with undetermined function. Patients with Lafora body disease present between 12 and 17 years of age. These patients have seizures of various types, including myoclonus, atypical absences, atonic, complex partial, and occipital seizures with transient blindness and visual hallucinations. These patients also have dysarthria, ataxia, as well as emotional disturbance, and cognitive decline leading to dementia. The EEG shows an evolution, with multiple spike–wave discharges at the beginning, but progressively over months or years, the background deteriorates and multifocal epileptiform abnormalities appear, mainly in the occipital regions, in addition to generalized bursts. Lafora bodies are periodic-acid-Schiff–positive intracellular polyglucosan inclusion bodies found in neurons, cardiac muscle, skeletal muscle, hepatocytes, and sweat gland duct cells, making it possible to detect these bodies in skin biopsy specimens. Most patients die within 10 years of onset and the treatment remains palliative.

31
Q

Mutation in cystatin B and EPM1 mutation are seen in which syndrome?

A

Unverricht–Lundborg syndrome.

32
Q

Cherry red spot in a patient with PME suggests?.

A

sialidosis

33
Q

Ragged red fibers on muscle biopsy are seen in which PME?.

A

MERFF

34
Q

What does the histology show in Rasmussen’s encephalitis?

A

Histopathology shows perivascular cuffs of lymphocytes and monocytes, as well as glial nodules in the gray and white matter

Rasmussen’s encephalitis is an inflammatory condition that affects one hemisphere and is characterized by focal seizures, often epilepsia partialis continua, hemiparesis, and progressive neurologic deterioration. This condition most frequently affects children, though adolescents and adults may also be affected. The pathogenesis is not well understood; however, it is known that it is an inflammatory condition, and an antibody has been detected targeted against the GluR3 subunit of the AMPA receptor, which is a glutamate receptor. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates cortical atrophy that is progressive and focal areas of white matter hyperintensity. Histopathologic findings demonstrate perivascular cuffs of lymphocytes and monocytes, as well as glial nodules in the gray and white matter. The continuous neuron loss leaves areas of spongy tissue degeneration.
In Rasmussen’s encephalitis, seizures are not typically well controlled with AED monotherapy and are usually intractable. Anti- inflammatory agents such as corticosteroids and other immune modulating treatments including IV immune globulin and plasmapheresis have been tried with some promise but variable success. Hemispherectomy is often needed, providing the possibility of cure of the seizures.