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Epilepsy EK > Epilepsy Buzz words in MCQ > Flashcards

Epilepsy Buzz words in MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

Automatisms

A

Temporal lobe epilepsy

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2
Q

3Hz spike and wave

A

absence epilepsy

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3
Q

4-6Hz polyspikes

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

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4
Q

Autoinduction of metabolism

A

Carbamazepine

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5
Q

Nephrolithiasis

A

Topiramate and zonisamide

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6
Q

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

A

Lamotrigine

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7
Q

Hypsarrhythmia

A

infantile spasms

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8
Q

fencer’s posture

A

supplementary motor cortex

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9
Q

figure of 4 sign

A

supplementary motor cortex

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10
Q

Doose’s syndrome

A

myoclonic astatic epilepsy

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11
Q

Dravet’s syndrome

A

severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy

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12
Q

ohtahara’s syndrome

A

early infantile epileptic encephalopathy

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13
Q

West’s syndrome

A

triad of infantile spasms, hypsarrhythmia, psychomotor delay or regression

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14
Q

Panaylotopoulos syndrome

A

occipital epilepsy with tonic eye deviation, ictal vomiting and visual seizures

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15
Q

Lennox-gastaut syndrome

A

Multiple seizure types, slow spike wave complexes and psychomotor delay or regression

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16
Q

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

A

Epilepsy with multiple seizure types and acquired aphasia

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17
Q

Nocturnal hypermotor seizures (non-REM)

A

Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy

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18
Q

Gelastic seizures

A

Hypothalamic hamartoma

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19
Q

Head version

A

Contralateral frontal lobe

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20
Q

Dystonic posture during seizure

A

Contralateral temporal lobe

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21
Q

EPM1

A

Unverricht-Lundborg syndrome

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22
Q

Cystatin B

A

Unverricht-Lunborg syndrome

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23
Q

EPM2A

A

Lafora body disease

24
Q

Progressive myoclonic epilepsy and cherry red spot

A

sialidosis

25
Q

PME and mitochondrial disease

A

Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers

26
Q

Antibodies to glutamate receptor 3

A

Rasmussen’s encephalitis

27
Q

alpha rhythm

A

8-13

28
Q

Beta rhythm

A

> 13

29
Q

Theta rhythm

A

4-7

30
Q

delta rhythm

A

<4

31
Q

triphasic waves

A

metabolic encephalopathy

32
Q

temporal periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges

A

structural abnormality - typically HSV encephalitis

33
Q

K complex and sleep spindles

A

Stage 2 sleep

34
Q

REMs and atonia

A

REM sleep

35
Q

Apnea with no respiratory effort

A

Central sleep apnoea

36
Q

Apnoea with respiratory effort

A

obstructive sleep apnea

37
Q

Low hypocretin

A

narcolepsy with cataplexy

38
Q

low ferritin

A

restless leg syndrome

39
Q

REM sleep behaviour disorders

A

Alpha - synucleinopathies

40
Q

Febrile seizures: what is the age incidence?

A

Uncommon before age 6 months and after age 6 years

41
Q

Genetic basis for idiopathic epilepsies: what is the chromosome link for Benign familial neonatal convulsions, Benign familial infantile convulsions, Autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy
Partial epilepsy with auditory features
JME
Generalised epilepsy with febrile seizures plus?

A

Benign familial neonatal convulsions
8q; 20q

Benign familial infantile convulsions
19q

Autosomal-dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (FLE) 20q

Partial epilepsy with auditory features 10q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) 6p

Generalized epilepsy with febrile seizures plus 19q; 2q
Febrile seizures 19p 8q

42
Q

Describe a classic absence seizure

A

Primary generalised seizure of childhood

i. No aura or warning ii. Motionless with blank stare
iii. Short duration (usually < 10 seconds)
iv. If seizure prolonged, eyelid fluttering or other automatisms may occur
v. Little or no postictal confusion
vi. 70% of cases: precipitated by hyperventilation
vii. EEG: 3-Hz spike and wave

43
Q

Atonic seizures: what are they associated with?

A

a. Typical in children with symptomatic or cryptogenic epilepsy syndromes, such as Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
b. Duration: tonic mean, 10 seconds; atonic, usually 1 to 2 seconds

44
Q

Explain typical JME - genetic link? treatment?

A

Adolescent, tonic clonic, morning myoclonus, atypical absence, chromosome 6p

Myoclonic seizures

a. Brief, shock-like muscle contractions of head or extremities
b. Usually bilaterally symmetric but may be focal, regional, or generalized
c. Consciousness preserved unless progression into tonic-clonic seizure
d. Precipitated by sleep transition and photic stimulation
e. May be associated with a progressive neurologic deterioration
f. EEG: generalized polyspike-wave, spike-wave complexes
g. Subtypes of myoclonic epilepsy

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME)
(A) Onset is often late adolescence (12–16 y/o) with myoclonic events followed by tonic-clonic seizures; within a few years, myoclonic events are more common in the morning shortly after awakening.
(B) Genetically localized to chromosome 6p
(C) Most common seizure induced by photic stimulation; also precipitated
by alcohol intake and sleep deprivation
(D) May have severe seizures if missed AEDs

Treatment of choice is sodium valproate

45
Q

What is Unverricht-Lundborg disease

A

Baltic myoclonus, progressive myoclonus and ataxia
Subtype of myoclonic epilepsy

Progressive myoclonic epilepsy
(A) Unverricht-Lundborg disease (Baltic myoclonus)
(1) Pathophysiology
(a) Mediterranean ancestry
(b) Autosomal recessive (AR)
(c) Genetic localization to chromosome 21q22.3, but may also occur sporadically
(d) Mutation is a dodecamer-repeat rather than a triplet-repeat disorder.
(e) Gene for cystatin B is the responsible gene.
(f) Two to 17 repeats is a normal finding, but more than 30
repeats is positive for this disease. (2) Clinical
(a) Relatively severe myoclonic-like events (b) Typically begin between 6 and 16 y/o (c) Progressive ataxia and dementia
(d) EEG: diffuse background slowing in the θ frequency with a 3- to 5-Hz polyspike and wave discharge; may also have sporadic focal spike and wave discharges
(e) Diagnosis is made by skin biopsy with a notation in sweat glands of vacuoles in one small series; pathology also demon- strates neuronal loss and gliosis of cerebellum, medial thala- mus, and spinal cord.
(f) Athena Diagnostics also has a lab test that is approximately 85% sensitive for genetic profile.

46
Q

Lafora body disease?

A

Subtype of myoclonic epilepsy:

(1) Pathophysiology: AR; localized to chromosome 6q24 (2) Clinical
(a) Significant myoclonus
(b) Age of onset is adolescence (10–18 y/o).
(c) Tend not to have severe ataxia or myoclonus, but do have relatively severe dementia
(d) Death by early to mid-20s
(e) EEG demonstrates occipital spikes and seizures in approxi-
mately 50% of cases.
(f) Abnormal somatosensory-evoked potentials
(g) Diagnosis: skin biopsy reveals Lafora bodies (polyglucosan neuronal inclusions in neurons and in cells of eccrine sweat gland ducts).
(h) Prognosis is poor.

47
Q

Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis - Santavuori disease, bielschowsky Jansky disease, spielmeyer vogt sjogren batten disease, kufs disease

A

Subtype of myoclonic epilepsy:
AR; defined by histology—by light microscope, neurons are engorged with peri- odic acid-Schiff–positive and autofluorescent material, and electron
microscopy demonstrates that ceroid and lipofuscin are noted in ab- normal cytosomes, such as curvilinear and fingerprint bodies that are diffusely distributed throughout the body (although only have CNS manifestations).

Infantile (Santavuori’s disease) - 8mnths
Late infantile (Bielschowsky-Jansky disease) - age 2-7
- usually death by 5 years old
Juvenile (Spielmeyer-Vogt-Sjögren-Batten disease) - - most common neurodegenerative disorder of childhood age 4-12 at onset - progressive vision loss, myoclonus, ataxia, dementia death in 20s
Kuf’s disease - adult onset - typically ages 11-34 - fingerprint profiles noted on skin biopsy

48
Q

Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers - mitochonidrial disorder

A

ssential features: my- oclonic epilepsy, cerebellar dysfunction, myoclonus; other features: short stature, ataxia, dementia, lactic acidosis, weak- ness, and sensory deficits

(c) MRI/CT: leukoencephalopathy and cerebellar atrophy
(d) Diagnosis: muscle biopsy—ragged red fibers; genetic testing via Athena Diagnostics

49
Q

Tay sachs and sandhoff disease?

A

Tay Sachs: type I GM2 gangliosidosis
AR, age 4-12 months
Deficit of hexosaminidase A causing developmental delay, cherry red spot on macula, startle seizure

Type II Sandhoff: GM2 gangliosidosis: AR age 4-12 months due to enzyme hexosaminidase A and B defect causing developmental delay, cherry red spot in macular, startly seizure

50
Q

West syndrome:

A

Infantile spasms, hypsarrhythmia

a. Onset: age 3 months to 3 years
b. Prenatal causes are most common, including tuberous sclerosis (most com-
mon) and chromosomal abnormalities.
c. Truncal flexion, mental retardation, myoclonus
d. EEG: hypsarrhythmia
e. Treatment: adrenocorticotrophin hormone; vigabatrin is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) with black-box warning.

51
Q

Aicardi’s syndrome

A

a. X-linkeddominant
b. Onset at birth with infantile spasms, hemiconvulsions, coloboma, chorioretinal lacunae, agenesis of corpus callosum, and vertebral anomalies
c. EEG:burstsofsynchronousslowwaves,spikewaves,andsharpwavesalternating with burst suppression
d. Treatment:adrenocorticotropichormone

52
Q

Lennox Gastaut syndrome

A

Multiple seizure types, atonic, tonic, GTC

a. Onset: age 1–10 years
b. Multiple seizure types, particularly atonic seizures, developmental delay
c. EEG: slow spike-wave complex at 1.0 to 2.5 Hz (usually approximately 2 Hz), multifocal spikes and sharp waves, generalized paroxysmal fast activity
d. Treatment: lamotrigine, VA, vagal nerve stimulation

53
Q

Benign rolandic epilepsy

A

Onset between ages 18 months and 13 years; typically spontaneously ends by
age 16 years
b. 40%: family history of epilepsy or febrile seizures
c. Accounts for 10% of all childhood epilepsies
d. Clinical: nocturnal seizures with somatosensory onset involving the tongue, lips, and gums followed by unilateral jerking that involves the face, tongue, pharynx, and larynx, causing speech arrest and drooling; no loss of awareness unless evolves into a secondary GTC seizure
e. EEG:centrotemporalspikes
f. Treatment: AEDs are typically unnecessary owing to isolated occurrence of sei- zures and overall cognitive effects of AEDs, but may be necessary if recurrent GTC seizures; CBZ is the treatment of choice, if necessary.

54
Q

Rasmussen’s encephalitis

A

Frequent seizures,loss of motor skills, affects single hemisphere

  1. Rare, progressive neurologic disorder characterized by frequent and severe seizures, loss of motor skills and speech, hemiparesis (paralysis on one side of the body), encephalitis (inflammation of the brain), dementia, and mental deterioration
  2. Affects a single brain hemisphere; generally occurs in children less than 10 y/o
  3. Treatment
    a. AEDs usually not effective in controlling the seizures
    b. When seizures have not spontaneously remitted by the time hemiplegia and aphasia are complete, the standard treatment for Rasmussen’s encephalitis is hemispherectomy.
    c. Alternativetreatmentsmayincludeplasmapheresis,IVimmunoglobulin,keto- genic diet, and steroids.
55
Q

Which AEDs reduce OCP levels

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitol, topiramate (dose >200/day), oxcarbazepine, lamotrigine

levetiracetam, gabapentin, tiagabine, vigabatrin, zonisamide and topiramate have no effect

Epilepsy EK (6 decks)

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