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Year 3 Finals > Paediatrics > Flashcards

Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

Ventricular septal defect

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2
Q

Lithium use during pregnancy can cause what cardiac congenital malformation?

A

Ebstein’s anomaly

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3
Q

Where in the foetal heart is the foramen ovale located? What type of blood is passed through this foramen?

A

Between the right and left atrium; oxygenated

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4
Q

Where in the foetal heart is the ductus arteriosus located? What type of blood passes through this duct?

A

Between the pulmonary artery and aorta; oxygenated

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5
Q

The ductus arteriosus is kept open by what during foetal life?

A

Prostaglandins

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6
Q

The ductus venosus is located where in the foetus? What type of blood is shunted here?

A

Between the umbilical vein and inferior vena cava; oxygenated

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7
Q

Name the 2 cyanotic congenital heart defects

A

Transposition of the great arteries and Tetralogy of Fallot

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8
Q

What type of shunt does ventricular septal defect and atrial septal defect cause?

A

Left to right

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9
Q

Name the congenital heart malformation described:
Harsh pansystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal edge

A

VSD

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10
Q

Name the congenital heart malformation described:
Ejection systolic murmur heard best at upper left sternal edge with radiation to the back

A

Atrial septal defect

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11
Q

Name the congenital heart malformation described:
Continuous machine like murmur + collapsing pulse

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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12
Q

Name the congenital heart malformation described:
Ventricular septal defect + overriding aorta + right ventricular hypertrophy + right outflow tract obstruction

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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13
Q

How long after birth will transposition of the great arteries present compared to Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

TGA - first few hours
TOF - first 1-2 months

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14
Q

Coarctation of the aorta is most commonly associated with what genetic syndrome?

A

Turner’s syndrome - 45X

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15
Q

What cardiac malformation is most associated with Trisomy 21?

A

Atrio-ventricular septal defect

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16
Q

Supravalvular aortic stenosis is most commonly associated with genetic syndrome?

A

Williams syndrome

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17
Q

22q11 deletion (Di-George syndrome) is most associated with which congenital cardiac malformation?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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18
Q

Eisenmenger’s syndrome can result from lack of treatment of what cardiac congenital malformations?

A

ASVD, VSD, ASD, PDA
(Anything that causes a left to right shunt initially)

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19
Q

What type of shunt is seen in Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Right to left

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20
Q

Name the syndrome:
VSD + cyanosis + polycythaemia + syncope

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome

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21
Q

Name the presenting cardiac congenital malformation:
Prolonged crying + increasing cyanosis + knees to chest + poor feeding

A

Tetralogy of Fallot
(Tet spells)

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22
Q

Which medication can be given to encourage closure of a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Indomethacin, ibuprofen
(Prostaglandin inhibitors)

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23
Q

Pulmonary hypertension and congestion is a feature of which cardiac congenital malformations?

A

Any that cause left to right shunt - ASVD, VSD, ASD, PDA

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24
Q

Patients with transposition of the great vessels should be given what until surgery can be performed?

A

Prostaglandin infusion to keep ductus arteriosus open

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25
Q

Name the cardiac congenital malformation:
Weak femoral pulse + harsh systolic murmur at left sternal edge with radiation to the back

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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26
Q

Chronic coarctation of the aorta can lead to what clinical sign?

A

Radio-femoral delay

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27
Q

Congenital heart diseases can cause which metabolic disturbance on blood gas in neonates?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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28
Q

Name the murmur:
Ejection systolic heard at upper right sternal border + radiation to carotids

A

Aortic stenosis

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29
Q

Name the murmur:
Ejection systolic heard at upper left sternal border + radiation to the back

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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30
Q

Name the murmur:
Varies with posture + no thrill + asymptomatic

A

Innocent murmur

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31
Q

Noonan’s syndrome is most commonly associated with which heart murmur?

A

Pulmonary stenosis

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32
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip can be elicited with what tests?

A

Barlow’s or Ortolani’s

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33
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Easily dislocation of the hip + positive Ortolani’s test + breech presentation at birth

A

DDH

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34
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Limp + limited movement of hip joint + xray findings of sclerotic epiphysis

A

Perthes disease

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35
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Displacement of femoral head on neck + obese child + altered gait

A

Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

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36
Q

Spasticity in cerebral palsy can be managed by what medications?

A

Baclofen or diazepam

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37
Q

Significant talipes can increase the risk of what other orthopaedic complaint in children?

A

DDH

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38
Q

For how many hours a day should scoliosis braces be worn?

A

23-24 hours a day

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39
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Pain and limited movement of the hip + low grade fever + bilateral effusion on USS

A

Transient synovitis

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40
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Morning stiffness + fatigue + 3 joints affected

A

Pauciarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis

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41
Q

Which type of JIA is most commonly associated with uveitis?

A

Pauciarticular

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42
Q

Which type of JIA is most commonly associated with constitutional symptoms?

A

Polyarticular RF-ve

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43
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Arthritis symptoms + salmon pink erythematous rash + high CRP and ESR

A

Systemic onset JIA

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44
Q

A child with JIA has poor response to intra-articular steroids. What treatment should be initiated?

A

DMARDs - methotrexate SC injection

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45
Q

Name the presentation:
Arthritis + red eyes + headache

A

Uveitis

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46
Q

Name the orthopaedic complaint:
Fever + joint swelling + elevated CRP and WCC

A

Septic arthritis

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47
Q

How should a child with septic arthritis be managed?

A

Immediate referral, IV antibiotics, joint aspiration

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48
Q

The nephron receives how much of cardiac output?

A

25%

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49
Q

What is the GFR in a neonate?

A

20-30ml/min/1.73m^2

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50
Q

Frothy urine indicates the presence of what?

A

Protein in the urine

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51
Q

Name the renal complaint:
Facial swelling + normal light microscopy + proteinuria +++

A

Minimal change disease

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52
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing minimal change disease?

A

24 hour urine protein collection

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53
Q

What treatment should be given to this child:
Facial swelling + preceding viral URTI + normal BP

A

8 weeks of prednisolone

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54
Q

Steroid resistance in minimal change disease would indicate a change in diagnosis to what?

A

Focal segmented glomerulosclerosis

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55
Q

What should this child be treated with:
Steroid resistant minimal change disease

A

Cyclophosphamide or ciclosporin

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56
Q

Name the renal complaint:
Hypertension + 2 day history of URTI + frank haematuria

A

IgA nephropathy

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57
Q

What type of vasculitis is associated with IgA nephropathy?

A

Henoch-Schonlein IgA small vessel vasculitis

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58
Q

Name the renal complaint:
Frank haematuria + hypertension + 1 week history of URTI

A

Post infectious glomerulonephritis

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59
Q

What increase in serum creatinine is seen in AKI level 1 in children?

A

Over to or equal to 1.5x

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60
Q

What happens to calcium and phosphate levels in AKI?

A

Calcium drops, phosphate rises

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61
Q

Which drugs should be held in AKI?

A

DAMN drugs:
Diuretics, ACE inhibitors, metformin, NSAIDs

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62
Q

Name the renal complaint:
Haemolytic anaemia + thrombocytopenia + AKI

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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63
Q

Name the renal complaint:
History of bloody diarrhoea + AKI

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

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64
Q

Name the renal complaint:
Oliguria + hypertension + rising creatinine

A

AKI

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65
Q

What percentage of kidney function needs to be lost before GFR is impaired?

A

40%

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66
Q

What affect does kidney disease have on sodium and potassium levels?

A

Sodium decreases (hyponatraemia)
Potassium increases (hyperkalaemia)

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67
Q

In what age group should we not use urine dipstick testing in?

A

Under 2

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68
Q

How many colony forming units per millilitre of culture is diagnostic in UTI?

A

10^5

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69
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing vescico-ureteric reflux in children?

A

Micturating cysto-urethrogram

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70
Q

How many days should we administer antibiotics in children with lower tract UTI symptoms?

A

3 days

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71
Q

How many days should we administer antibiotics for in children with pyelonephritis/upper tract UTI?

A

7-10 days; oral if systemically well, IV if not

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72
Q

Which GI symptom may predispose children to UTI?

A

Constipation

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73
Q

What happens to phosphate levels in kidney disease?

A

Increases

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74
Q

Increased phosphate in kidney disease leads to the increase of what hormone? This can lead to damage to which part of the body?

A

PTH; damage to bones - metabolic bone disease

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75
Q

A child presenting with a groin swelling is most likely what?

A

Inguinal hernia

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76
Q

At what age should we urgently refer children with inguinal hernia?

A

Under 1 year old

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77
Q

Name the urological complaint:
Painless scrotal swelling which transilluminates

A

Hydrocele

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78
Q

Non retractile foreskin will require what treatment?

A

Circumcision

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79
Q

How many hours do we have to save testicles in testicular torsion?

A

6 hours

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80
Q

Name the urological complaint present:
Blue dot sign

A

Torsion appendix testis

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81
Q

Name the urological complaint:
Urethral meatus on ventral aspect of penis

A

Hypospadias

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82
Q

Nuchal thickening seen on USS is an indication for what test?

A

Amniocentesis

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83
Q

Foetal macrosomia can predispose to what foetal complication during labour?

A

Shoulder dystocia

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84
Q

What is important to carry out for neonates born to diabetics?

A

Feeding early

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85
Q

Acute chorioamnionitis can predispose to what condition later in life for the child if not treated successfully?

A

Cerebral palsy

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86
Q

Cocaine use can predispose to what placental disorder?

A

Placental abruption

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87
Q

Name the neurological complaint:
Hemicranial pain + vomiting + abdominal pain

A

Childhood migraine

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88
Q

What medication would we use for migraine prophylaxis in children without AND with asthma?

A

Without - propranolol
With - amitriptyline

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89
Q

Name the neurological complaint:
Band like headache + constant ache

A

Tension headache

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90
Q

What medication can we use for tension headache prophylaxis?

A

Amitriptyline

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91
Q

Up rolling of the eyes and blinking indicates what type of epileptic seizure?

A

Absence

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92
Q

Do GABA and glutamate levels increase or decrease during epileptic seizures?

A

GABA - decrease
Glutamate - increase

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93
Q

What medication would we use for generalised seizures in boys?

A

Sodium valproate

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94
Q

What medication would we use for generalised seizures in girls?

A

Levetiracetam

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95
Q

What medication would we use for focal seizures in children?

A

Carbamazepine

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96
Q

What diet may be implicated in drug refractory epilepsy?

A

Ketogenic

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97
Q

At what age is febrile convulsion most common?

A

3 months to 5 years

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98
Q

Name the neurological complaint:
X linked + proximal muscle weakness + Gowers sign positive

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

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99
Q

Gowers sign positive indicates what?

A

Pelvic girdle weakness

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100
Q

Which blood test parameter would be significantly elevated in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Creatinine kinase

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101
Q

Name the neurological complaint:
Distal muscle weakness + high arched foot

A

Charcot-Marie tooth disease

102
Q

Which gene is implicated in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Dystrophin gene

103
Q

Name the neurological complaint:
Headache worse on coughing + vomiting

A

Raised ICP headache

104
Q

Which chromosome and gene is affected in cystic fibrosis?

A

Chromosome 7 CFTR gene

105
Q

Meconium ileus in neonates is a sign of which disease?

A

Cystic fibrosis

106
Q

Children with cystic fibrosis are vulnerable to deficiency’s in what vitamins?

A

Fat soluble vitamins - A, D, E, K

107
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing cystic fibrosis?

A

Sweat testing

108
Q

What level of chloride in sweat testing would be highly suggestive of a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis?

A

Over 60mm/l

109
Q

Neonatal heel prick testing will show elevated levels of what in cystic fibrosis?

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen

110
Q

What is the most common infectious agent in cystic fibrosis exacerbations?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

111
Q

Name the complaint:
Red currant jelly stools + dying spells + abdominal colic

A

Intussusception

112
Q

What is the first line treatment for intussusception?

A

Air enema

113
Q

Name the complaint:
Fever + strawberry tongue

A

Scarlet fever

114
Q

Otitis externa is associated with what sport?

A

Swimming

115
Q

Acute otitis media can be complicated by what?

A

Mastoiditis

116
Q

Name the complaint:
Chronic hearing loss + foul smelling discharge from ear

A

Cholesteatoma

117
Q

Glue ear causes what type of hear loss?

A

Conductive
- bone conduction exceeds air conduction on Rinne’s, Weber’s lateralises to affected ear

118
Q

Which antibiotic should be avoided in EBV and why?

A

Amoxicillin - can cause an itchy maculopapular rash

119
Q

Name the complaint:
Coryzal symptoms + buccal mucosa spots + fever

A

Measles

120
Q

What is the most common complication associated with measles?

A

Acute otitis media

121
Q

Erythema infectiosum is caused by what virus?

A

Parvovirus B19

122
Q

What treatment should be given to all children presenting with barking cough and stridor?

A

Oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg

123
Q

What bacteria causes whooping cough?

A

Bordatella pertussis

124
Q

Where is the vomiting centre in the brain located?

A

Medulla oblongata

125
Q

Retching plus early morning vomiting is associated with what type of pathology?

A

Intracranial

126
Q

Bilious vomiting is what until proven otherwise?

A

Intestinal obstruction

127
Q

Vomiting will show what abnormality on ABG?

A

Hypokalaemia hypochloraemia metabolic alkalosis

128
Q

Name the complaint:
Non bilious projectile vomiting after feeds + dehydration + hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

A

Pyloric stenosis

129
Q

What is the management for patients presenting with pyloric stenosis?

A

Fluid resus to correct ABG value followed by pyloromyotomy

130
Q

Around what age should most cases of reflux resolve spontaneously?

A

6 months old

131
Q

Sandifer syndrome is associated with what?

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux

132
Q

What pH in the oesophagus suggests significant reflux?

A

Below 4

133
Q

What is the surgical procedure carried out in reflux?

A

Nissen’s fundoplication

134
Q

Bloating, dumping syndrome and retching after surgery are all side effects of which surgical procedure?

A

Nissen’s fundoplication

135
Q

Steatorrhoea is common in what respiratory condition?

A

Cystic fibrosis

136
Q

Secretory diarrhoea is associated with what levels of sodium, potassium, chloride and pH?

A

All high

137
Q

Osmotic diarrhoea is associated with what values of sodium, potassium, chloride, pH and osmolarity?

A

All low apart from osmolarity which is high

138
Q

Gene HLADQ2/8 is associated with what disease?

A

Coeliac disease

139
Q

Which serological tests should be carried out on suspicion of coeliac disease?

A

Anti-TTG + IgA

140
Q

Which test should be carried out on suspicion of coeliac disease when anti-TTG is positive?

A

Anti-endomysial antibodies

141
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing coeliac disease?

A

Duodenal biopsy

142
Q

There is increased risk of what if coeliac disease goes untreated?

A

Small bowel lymphoma

143
Q

What is the first line treatment for faecal disempaction in children?

A

Movicol

144
Q

Megarectum can lead to what infectious complication?

A

Urinary tract infections

145
Q

Name the complaint:
Growth failure + diarrhoea + oral ulcers

A

Crohn’s disease

146
Q

Which medication is used to induce remission in Crohn’s?

A

Prednisolone

147
Q

Which medication is used to maintain remission in Crohn’s?

A

Azathioprine or methotrexate

148
Q

Which medication is used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis?

A

Mesalazine

149
Q

Which medication is used to maintain remission in ulcerative colitis?

A

Prednisolone

150
Q

Acute flares of Crohn’s and ulcerative colitis can be managed with what?

A

IV hydrocortisone

151
Q

What are the first vaccines given at 2 months old?

A

6 in 1, rotavirus, men B, pneumococcal

152
Q

When are the first, second and third doses of 6 in 1 given?

A

First - 2 months
Second - 3 months
Third - 4 months

153
Q

When is the first dose of the pneumococcal vaccine given?

A

2 months

154
Q

When is the second dose of the rotavirus vaccine given?

A

3 months

155
Q

When is the second dose of the meningitis B vaccine given?

A

4 months

156
Q

When is the first dose of the MMR vaccine given?

A

1 year old

157
Q

When is the first dose of the meningitis C vaccine given?

A

1 year old

158
Q

Which ONE of the 6 in 1 is given as a booster at 1 year old?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

159
Q

When is the meningitis ACWY vaccine given?

A

14 years old

160
Q

Which vaccine is given alongside the second dose of MMR at 3 years + 4 months old?

A

4 in 1 booster - diphtheria, tetanus, polio, whooping cough

161
Q

When is the HPV vaccine given?

A

12-13 years

162
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in immunosuppressed patients?

A

MMR
- due to being a live vaccine

163
Q

At what age do we expect crawling?

A

9 months

164
Q

At what age should we refer children if they are not walking?

A

18 months

165
Q

What is the mean age that children begin to walk?

A

12 months

166
Q

At what age do we expect the pincer grip?

A

9 months

167
Q

At what age can children draw - a line, circle, square

A

Line - 2 years
Circle - 3 years
Square - 4 years

168
Q

At what age do children begin building with bricks?

A

18 months

169
Q

At what age would we expect children to laugh and vocalise?

A

4 months

170
Q

Polysyllabic babble is typically present by what age?

A

6 months

171
Q

At what age would we expect to see a social smile?

A

6 weeks

172
Q

At what age do infants put food in their mouth?

A

6 months

173
Q

At what age do children wave bye bye?

A

9 months

174
Q

Isolated thrombocytopenia + recent viral illness + purpuric rash is indicative of what?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura

175
Q

Which 2 LFTs are raised in hepatocellular damage?

A

ALT & AST

176
Q

Which 2 LFTs are raised in biliary disease?

A

ALP and GGT

177
Q

Stercobilin is the faecal pigment version of what?

A

Bilirubin

178
Q

Early infant jaundice occurs when?

A

Within first 24 hours of life
- ALWAYS PATHOLOGICAL

179
Q

Which form of neonatal jaundice is always pathological?

A

Early infant jaundice

180
Q

Late infant jaundice appears at what age?

A

2 weeks

181
Q

What is the normal haemoglobin range for an infant?

A

180-200

182
Q

Breast milk jaundice typically occurs at what age?

A

24 hours to 2 weeks

183
Q

What type of jaundice is breast milk jaundice?

A

Unconjugated

184
Q

Kernicterus occurs in what type of jaundice only?

A

Unconjugated

185
Q

Kernicterus occurs as bilirubin crosses what?

A

The blood brain barrier

186
Q

How can we prevent kernicterus from developing?

A

Phototherapy with 450nm wavelength

187
Q

Neonatal hepatitis causes what type of jaundice?

A

Conjugated

188
Q

What is the best investigation to show reversible airway obstruction in asthma?

A

Peak flow

189
Q

An FeNO reading of over what is a positive test?

A

35ppb

190
Q

After initiating very low dose ICS and SABA when needed in under 5s, what should be administered next if symptoms are still bothersome?

A

LTRA - montelukast

191
Q

After initiating very low dose ICS and SABA when needed in over 5s, what should be administered next if symptoms are still bothersome?

A

LABA

192
Q

Acute asthma is what type of hypersensitive reaction?

A

Type 1

193
Q

A peak flow reading of under what percentage is indicative of a life threatening asthma attack?

A

33%

194
Q

Oxygen saturations below what are indicative of a life threatening asthma attack?

A

92%

195
Q

What 3 things should be administered on presentation of an acute asthma attack?

A

Oxygen + salbutamol + oral prednisolone

196
Q

What sats should we aim for in children having an acute asthma attack?

A

94-98%

197
Q

If initial management of an acute asthma attack does not relieve symptoms, what can we add?

A

Ipratropium bromide

198
Q

If ipratropium bromide is not successful in alleviating symptoms in an acute asthma attack, what can we administer next?

A

Magnesium sulfate

199
Q

Name the complaint:
Dilation of bronchi + purulent sputum + inspiratory creps

A

Bronchiectasis

200
Q

Bronchiolitis typically presents at what age?

A

1-12 months

201
Q

Bronchiolitis is most typically caused by what virus?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

202
Q

Management for bronchiolitis is mainly what?

A

Supportive

203
Q

The CENTOR criteria is used to determine what?

A

If tonsillitis is bacterial

204
Q

What is the first line treatment for bacterial tonsillitis?

A

Penicillin V
- clarithromycin or erythromycin if penicillin allergic

205
Q

Bacterial tracheitis presents the same as what other infection, but with the addition of what?

A

Presents the same as croup with the addition of a high fever

206
Q

Glandular fever is most commonly caused by what?

A

EBV

207
Q

Why should we advise glandular fever patients to avoid contact sports or heavy lifting?

A

Minimise risk of splenic rupture

208
Q

It is important not to administer which antibiotic in glandular fever?

A

Amoxicillin
- causes a rash

209
Q

Whooping cough is caused by which bacteria?

A

Bordetella pertussis

210
Q

Name the complaint:
Spasmodic cough followed by inspiratory whoop + post cough vomiting

A

Whooping cough/pertussis

211
Q

How do we manage whooping cough?

A

Macrolide antibiotics
- azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin

212
Q

Epiglottitis is caused by what?

A

Haemophilus B

213
Q

Name the complaint:
Soft inspiratory stridor + drooling + high fever

A

Epiglottitis

214
Q

Which antibiotic is most commonly used for epiglottitis?

A

Ceftriaxone

215
Q

Which mediation can be prescribed to alleviate muscle spasticity in cerebral palsy?

A

Baclofen

216
Q

Early onset neonatal sepsis is most commonly caused by what organism?

A

Group B strep

217
Q

Is group B strep gram negative or positive?

A

Positive

218
Q

Brudzinski’s and Kernig’s sign can be elicited in presentation of what disease?

A

Meningitis

219
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in children?

A

Viral

220
Q

High protein + low glucose on lumbar puncture is indicative of what type of meningitis?

A

Bacterial

221
Q

High lymphocytes + normal glucose on lumbar puncture is indicative of what type of meningitis?

A

Viral
- high neutrophils not lymphocytes on bacterial

222
Q

Gram positive and negative bacteria are treated by what antibiotic in paediatric meningitis?

A

IV ceftriaxone

223
Q

Listeria meningitis is treated via which 2 antibiotics?

A

Amoxicillin + gentamicin

224
Q

Group B strep meningitis is treated by which 2 antibiotics?

A

IV benzylpenicillin + gentamicin

225
Q

Staph scalded skin syndrome can be managed by what antibiotic?

A

IV flucloxacillin

226
Q

Scarlet fever is managed by what antibiotic?

A

Penicillin V (phenoxymethylpenicillin)

227
Q

What equation can we use to calculate an child’s approximate weight?

A

2 x (age in years + 4)

228
Q

What equation can we use to approximately calculate a child’s systolic BP?

A

80 + (age in years x 2)

229
Q

What dose of adrenaline should be administered to a 4 year old child experiencing anaphylaxis?

A

150mcg

230
Q

What dose of adrenaline should be given to an 8 year old child experiencing anaphylaxis?

A

300mcg

231
Q

What dose of adrenaline should be given to a 14 year old child experiencing anaphylaxis?

A

500mcg

232
Q

PPROM is associated with neonatal infection with what?

A

Group B strep

233
Q

Transient synovitis usually follows what?

A

Viral infection

234
Q

SIDS can occur up to what age?

A

1 year

235
Q

What is the most common age for SIDS to occur?

A

10-20 weeks

236
Q

What is the most common causation of SIDS?

A

Unknown

237
Q

Cleft palate and polydactyly are associated with which Trisomy?

A

Patau syndrome - trisomy 13

238
Q

Elevated calcium is associated with which genetic condition?

A

Williams syndrome

239
Q

Fragile X is due to what abnormality at genetic level?

A

Trinucleotide repeat

240
Q

Constant insatiable hunger is associated with what genetic condition?

A

Prader-Willi syndrome

241
Q

Long fingers and thumbs are associated with what genetic condition?

A

Marfan syndrome

242
Q

47-XXY is the genetic component of what syndrome?

A

Klinefelter’s

243
Q

Unusual fascination with water is associated with what syndrome?

A

Angelman syndrome

244
Q

Children have a circulating blood volume of how many ml per kg?

A

70-80

245
Q

On finding a child unresponsive, what it the first most important thing to administer?

A

5 rescue breaths

246
Q

What is the correct compression to rescue breath ratio in children?

A

15:2

247
Q

What rate should CPR be delivered in children in bpm?

A

100-120

248
Q

Which pulse should be felt for for signs of life in under 1s and over 1s?

A

Under 1s - brachial or femoral
Over 1s - carotid

249
Q

Where is the ductus venosus found?

A

Between umbilical vein and IVC

250
Q

Which vessel delivers oxygenated blood to the foetus?

A

Umbilical vein

251
Q

Newborn babies produce heat via what?

A

Brown fat lipolysis

252
Q

Irregular breathing in neonates can be managed by administering what?

A

Caffeine

Year 3 Finals (7 decks)

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