Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

describe the traffic light system for assessment of a child with fever

A

green
- colour: normal
- activity: content, smiling, normal cry
- breathing: normal resp exam
- hydration: normal skin and eyes
- other: no amber or red features

amber
- colour: pallor
- activity: decreased activity, not responsive
- breathing: increased resp rate, crackles in chest, nasal flaring
- hydration: dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, dry nappies, poor feeding
- other: fever >5 days, not weight bearing

red
- colour: pale, mottled
- activity: high pitched cry, unarousable
- breathing: grunting, severe intercostal and subcostal recession, tracheal tugging, head bobbing
- hydration: reduced skin turgor
- other: non-blanching rash, bulging fontanelle, focal neurological deficit

green: discharge with fever leaflet and worsening advice
amber: intervene then reassess
> if improves and all green, discharge
> if remains amber, admit for observation
red: proactive intervention and admit; assess for safety and suitability for transfer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

state the paediatric dose of paracetamol and ibuprofen

A

paracetamol - 15mg/kg
ibuprofen - 7.5mg/kg (half of paracetamol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe bronchiolitis

A

commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

most commonly affects under 2s

clinical features
- dyspnoea, tachypnnoea
- poor feeding
- apnoeas
- fever
- coryzal symptoms: runny nose, sneezing, watery eyes
- harsh breath sounds
- wheeze, widespread crackles on auscultation

management: supportive
- ensuring adequate intake
- saline nasal drops and nasal suctioning
- oxygen
- ventilatory support

prophylaxis: palivizumab if premature or congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

describe the categorisation of acute wheeze in children

A

mild:
- >92% O2
- Normal PEFR
- normal mental state
- able to talk normally
- subtle or no increased WOB
- normal HR and RR

moderate
- >92% O2
- PEFR >50% of best
- normal mental state
- dyspnoea resulting in limitation of full sentences
- moderate increase in WOB (accessory muscle use and chest wall recession)
- HR PEWS <2 RR PEWS <2

severe
- <92% O2
- PEFR 33-50% of best
- agitated/distressed
- marked dyspnoea resulting in <3 word sentences
- severe increased WOB
- HR PEWS <=2 RR PEWS >=2

life-threatening
- <92% O2
- PEFR <33% of best
- confused / drowsy
- unable to talk due to dyspnoea
- cyanosed
- maximal WOB
- exhaustion may lead to poor respiratory effort
- silent chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe the clinical features of croup

A

aka laryngotracheobronchitis

causes: parainfluenza virus, RSV
> more common in autumn months

viral upper respiratory tract infection leading to subglottic narrowing secondary to inflammation

features
- night cough
- barking or seal-like cough
- biphasic harsh stridor
- hoarseness
- respiratory distress

CXR: steeple sign
> posterior-anterior view shows subglottic narrowing
> if epiglottitis, lateral view shows thumb sign (swelling of epiglottis)

never perform throat examination due to risk of airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the categorisation of severity of croup and its management

A

mild:
- no signs of severe croup, no symptoms at rest
- give oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg
- home with croup discharge leaflet

moderate:
- no signs of severe croup
- symptomatic at rest
- worsened by exertion
- give oral dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg, observe for 2-3 hours
- if changes to mild croup discharge
- if remains moderate give nebulised adrenaline (5ml 1:1000) and admit

severe:
- respiratory distress
- cyanosis
- exhaustion
- quiet chest and lack of respiratory effort are pre-terminal signs
- management: nebulised adrenaline, oral/IV dexamethasone 0.15mg/kg, oxygen, admit and consider ICU r/v

give prednisolone if dexamethasone not available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the clinical features of UTI in children

A

lower UTI
- frequency
- bed wetting
- vomiting
- loin pain
- frank haematuria

upper UTI
- fever
- abdominal pain
- lethargy and malaise
- urgency

atypical UTI
- seriously ill child
- poor urine flow
- septicaemia
- failure to respond to antibiotics after 48h

first-line antibiotic: trimethoprim 4mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

describe pulled elbow

A

occurs when a child’s arm is suddenly pulled resulting in subluxation of proximal radioulnar joint

exam
- no specific findings
- child refuses to use arm

reduction
- move hand into pronation
- gently flex elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

describe buckle fracture

A

common paediatric fracture to distal radius

injury to cancellous bone without actual break in cortex

manage symptomatically unless rotational deformity (requires manipulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

describe toddler’s fracture

A

torus or twisting injury resulting in spiral fracture of distal tibia

examination
- mild disseminated tenderness over anterior tibia
- localised erythema or warmth
- non-weight bearing child

management
- analgesia
- below-knee back-slab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

describe a hair tourniquet

A

clinical features
- inconsolable child
- unilaterally isolated swollen digit

remove with scalpel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe transient synovitis

A

aka irritable hip

usually affects hip and preceded by viral illness

clinical features
- mild/moderate hip pain (referred thigh/knee pain)
- acute onset <1 week
- no/mild restriction of hip movements (especially abduction and internal rotation)
- positive log roll test
- able to weight bear with limp
- otherwise well and afebrile

self-resolves within1-2 weeks

management
> advise regular analgesia and rest
> ask to return if no improvement in 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe Perthes disease

A

avascular necrosis of capital femoral epiphysis, can be bilateral

onset over weeks between ages 3-9

clinical features
- mild hip/groin pain
- referred pain to knee/thigh
- limp
- limitation of hip rotation
- associated with hyperactivity and short stature

AP pelvis X-ray: flattening of femoral head with joint space widening
> may be absent in early disease

child is systematically well with no other joint involvement and no evidence of joint inflammation

management
- <6y: serial X-rays, observation, analgesia, physiotherapy
- surgical containment - guided by arthrogram, osteotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE)

A

SUFE occurs in late childhood/adolescence

onset: acute or subacute, bilateral in 20% of cases

common in overweight children

examination
- antalgic gait, out-toeing
- external rotation and shortening of affected limb
- hip, groin, medial thigh or knee pain
- loss of internal rotation of leg in flexion
- afebrile
- systemically well
- no other joint involvement

diagnosis: AP pelvis X-ray + frog leg view

management: internal fixation

complications: OA, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, leg length discrepancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe the presentation of malignancy/leukaemia in children

A
  • malaise
  • anorexia
  • weight loss
  • bone pain
  • nocturnal pain
  • neurological symptoms: paralysis / paraesthesia
  • new incontinence/retention/constipation
  • fever
  • pallor/jaundice
  • lymphadenopathy
  • organomegaly
  • mass/swelling in bones
  • erythema / inflammation at tumour site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

describe juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)

A

diagnosis of exclusion

clinical features
- joint swelling affecting more than one joint
- symptoms (pain/stiffness) worse in the morning
- relevant family history
- symptoms persistent >6 weeks

most common type is oligoarticular ( or pauciarticular) JIA
> systemic onset diagnosis requires fevers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are key points to ask about in an airway history?

A
  • ex-prematurity/neonatal intubation
  • noisy breathing
  • voice/cry
  • cough/cyanotic spells
  • recurrent croup or LRTIs
  • feeding difficulties
  • failure to thrive
  • exercise tolerance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

list areas to examine to determine a child’s airway patency

A
  • voice / cry / cough
  • RR, HR
  • nasal flaring, grunting, head bobbing
  • tracheal tug, recession - sternal, intercostal
  • stridor / stertor

ENT examination
- fibreoptic nasendoscopy
- microlaryngobronchoscopy (MLB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

describe choanal atresia

A

babies are obligate nasal breathers

in choanal atresia, cyanotic episodes during feeding but pink while crying (due to mouth breathing)

  • investigations: CT scan
  • management:
    > feeding tube temporarily
    > oropharyngeal airway
    > definitive - surgical intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) in children

A

often due to adenotonsillar hypertrophy

features
- heavy snoring
- snort arousals
- apnoeic episodes
- disturbed sleep
- enuresis
- night terrors

effects
- poor concentration
- cognitive impairment
- fatigue
- hyperactivity
- hypertension
- cor pulmonale

investigations: sleep studies
> polysomnogram
> sleep study test

management: tonsil/adenoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

list causes of stridor in children

A
  • laryngomalacia (commonest cause)
  • webs
  • cysts
  • clefts
  • vocal cord paralysis
    > bilateral can be due to Arnold-Chiari malformation
  • papillomatosis
  • subglottic stenosis (neonatal history of intubation)
  • haemangioma
  • tracheobronchomalacia
  • tracheal stenosis
  • foreign bodies
  • vascular compression (abnormal aortic arch)

Cotton-Myer grading system can be used to categorise airway stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

describe a thyroglossal duct cyst

A

thyroglossal duct cyst
> commonest midline neck swelling

> congenital, embryology: foramen caecum - neck

> moves with tongue protrusion and on swallowing

> investigations: ultrasound

> management - surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe epistaxis management in children

A

causes:
> commonly idiopathic
> juvenile nasal angiofibroma: teenage males with recurrent epistaxis
> coagulopathies

basic first aid:
- head forward, pinch cartilaginous part of nose, spit blood out

  • naseptin cream (AVOID in peanut or soy allergy)
  • nasal cautery (Little’s area)
    > spray anaesthetic
    > silver nitrate cautery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

list neck lumps that can be found laterally

A
  • lymph nodes

> benign: small, mobile, multiple, often after URTI

> malignant (lymphoma): >2,5-3cm, firm, non-mobile, may be tethered, type B symptoms, assess lymphadenopathy elsewhere

most common nodes in children are reactive nodes, if in neck
> sore throats, ear infections, URTIs, skin and scalp conditions e.g. eczema, dental problems

  • cysts
  • congenital malformations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe foreign bodies (aural, nasal, airway, oesophageal)

A
  • aural foreign body
    > live foreign body: flush with saline or olive oil
    > inorganic: not an emergency
    > organic: remove sooner
    > deep foreign body: theatre
    > management: remove with wax hook, crocodile forceps, Jobson’s horne
  • nasal foreign body
    > features: persistent unilateral nasal discharge, foul smell
    > potential risk of aspiration
    > management: Mother’s kiss first-line, grasping crocodile forceps extraction, suction
  • airway foreign bodies
    > features: stridor, airway distress, cyanosis, previous choking episodes
    > if complete occlusion or glottic FB: emergency scope or emergency tracheostomy
    > most commonly in right mainstem bronchus
    > lung hyperinflation if bronchial occlusion
    > can lead to chronic lung infections
  • oesophageal foreign bodies
    > commonly lodged at upper oesophageal sphincter (cricopharyngeus)
    > features: drooling, unable to swallow saliva/liquids
    > can cause upper airway obstruction
    > removal under GA with oesophagoscopy

Button batteries need to be removed immediately (surgical emergency) - double ring sign on CXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage and its management

A

causes: infection, coughing, vasospasm

can be fatal

management
- early contact with ENT/anaesthetics for definitive surgical management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe epiglottitis

A

very rare but critical airway

features
- stertor/stridor
- dysphagia
- drooling
- muffled voice
- relatively normal respiratory rate
- pyrexial, tachycardic, tachypnoeic (septic)
- tripod position: sat forward with a hand on each knee

most common cause is Haemophilus influenza type B but children are usually vaccinated
> other causes: S. pneumoniae, S. pyogenes, candida in immunocompromised

investigations
- clinical diagnosis
- CXR: thumb sign of epiglottis
- avoid examination to avoid worsening respiratory distress

management
- secure airway with intubation
- antibiotics + fluids + steroids
> abx: cephalosporin
> contacts and index case: rifampicin
- theatre if abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

describe infections in lymph nodes

A

abscess
> after URTI
> lymphadenopathy
> systemically unwell, pyrexial
> large fluctuant swelling, erythematous
> management: incision and drainage, washout, antibiotics

Atypical mycobacterium - cold node
> not infectious, not TB, do not incise
> well, not distressed, apyrexial, no rising blood count
> chronic but eventually self-resolviing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

describe tonsillitis

A

examination: exudative erythematous enlarged tonsils

exclude peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
> uvular deviation
> trismus
or unilateral tonsillitis

management
- penicillin V oral unless difficulty swallowing

complications: deep neck space infections

> quinsy

> retropharyngeal/parapharyngeal abscess
> restricted mouth opening (trismus) , restricted neck movement, torticollis, drooling, inability to swallow, pyrexial, tachycardic, requires drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

describe tongue tie (ankyloglossia)

A

baby born with short and tight lingual frenulum

prevents proper extension of tongue, makes it difficult to latch onto breast

presentation: poor feeding, noticed during newborn check

management
- mild: monitor
- affects feeding: frenotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

describe acute otitis media

A

very common 12 months-4 years

risk factors
- daycare, nursery
- parental smoking
- non-breastfed
- ASD/learning difficulties

features
- otalgia / pulling ear
- disconsolate child
- reduced hearing
- fever
- +/- discharge if TM perforation

commonly viral but can be S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, S. pyogenes

Management
- paracetamol and ibuprofen first 48-72h, usually self-limiting

  • antibiotic treatment if failed watch & wait OR less than 2 years old
  • 5 day course of amoxicillin/co-amoxiclav 2nd line)
  • consider topical antibiotics (ciprofloxacin) if prolonged otorrhoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

list complications of AOM

A
  • intracranial abscess
  • facial nerve palsy
  • mastoiditis
  • meningitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe mastoiditis

A

recent episode of AOM + 2 of following

  • proptosed auricle
  • post-auricular swelling
  • post-auricular erythema
  • post-auricular tenderness

investigations
- largely clinical diagnosis
- CT mastoids

management
- surgical intervention
> grommet insertion
> cortical mastoidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

list complications of mastoiditis

A
  • subperiosteal abscess
  • facial nerve palsy
  • Gradenigo syndrome (OM, trigeminal distribution pain, 6th nerve palsy)
  • venous sinus thrombosis
  • otogenic meningitis / temporal lobe abscess
  • Bezold (deep to SCM), Citelli (digastric), Luc (meatal) abscesses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

describe cervical lymphadenitis

A

neck lump following recent URTI/tonsillitis/ear infection/superficial skin trauma e.g. cat scratch

commonly affects children 1-4 years

features
- large, firm, tender lymph nodes
- commonly post-auricular
- swinging pyrexia
- torticollis
- paediatric systemic upset: poor oral intake, reduced urine output, miserable and unsettled

complications
- lymph node abscess (suppurative cervical lymphadenitis) requiring IV co-amoxiclav
- I+D for abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

list different types of deep neck space infections
(DNSI)

A

types
- parapharyngeal abscess
- retropharyngeal abscess
- submandibular space abscess (Ludwig’s angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

describe laryngomalacia

A

congenital abnormality of laryngeal cartilage

causes dynamic airway collapse during inspiratory phase

usually affects 6 months-24 months

features
- inspiratory stridor
- cyanotic episodes
- failure to thrive
- worse when feeding or lying on back
- associated with reflux

investigations
- dynamic assessment on flexible laryngoscopy
> classically omega-shaped epiglottis
> short aryepiglottic folds
> arytenoids prolapse into glottis during inspiration

mangement
- mild: observe, tend to outgrow by 24 months
- moderate: anti-reflux medications
- severe: surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe retropharyngeal abscess

A

potential life-threatening ENT emergency

infection spreading to potential space anterior to pre-vertebral fascia, can be due to necrotising lymph nodes in children

features
- odynophagia
- dysphagia
- difficulty breathing
- voice changes (hoarseness, loss of voice)
- drooling
- neck stiffness

management
- broad spectrum IV antibiotics and IV fluids
- IV dexamethasone
- oxygen and nebulised adrenaline
- drainage and washout in theatre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

describe vesicoureteric reflux

A

abnormal backflow of urine from the bladder into the ureter and kidney

predisposes to UTI

Clinical features
- antenatal period: hydronephrosis on ultrasound
- recurrent childhood UTIs
- reflux nephropathy (chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR)
- hypertension

Investigation
- micturating cystourethrogram
- DMSA scan: renal scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe paediatric basic life support

A

unresponsive? - shout for help

  • open airway, look, listen, feel for breathing
  • give 5 rescue breaths
  • check for signs of circulation
    > infants: use brachial or femoral pulse, children use femoral pulse
  • 15 chest compressions:2 rescue breaths
    > rate 100-120/min for both infants and children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

list risks of prematurity

A
  • respiratory distress syndrome
  • intraventricular haemorrhage
  • necrotizing enterocolitis
  • chronic lung disease
  • hypothermia
  • feeding problems
  • infection
  • jaundice
  • retinopathy of prematurity (<32 weeks)
  • hearing problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe the management of hernias in children

A

umbilical hernias - spontaneously resolve by 3 years old
> if large/symptomatic: elective repair at 2-3 years
> small/asymptomatic: elective repair at 4-5 years

inguinal hernias: high risk of incarceration
> clinical features: bulge inferior and lateral to pubic tubercle on crying
- < 6 weeks old: correct within 2 days
- <6 months old: correct within 2 weeks
- <6 years old: correct within 2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

describe neonatal hypoglycaemia

A

blood glucose <2.6 mmol/L in neonates

risk factors: prematurity, maternal diabetes, IUGR, macrosomic babies, mothers taking beta blockers, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis

features
- asymptomatic
- autonomic: jitteriness, irritable, tachypnoea, pallor
- neuroglycopaenic: poor feeding, weak cry, drowsy, hypotonia, seizures
- other features: apnoea, hypothermia

management
- asymptomatic: encourage normal feeding and monitor BMs
- symptomatic/very low blood glucose (<1mmol/L): admit to neonatal unit and give IV 10% dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

list red flag features in croup and indications for admission

A

red flags:
- audible stridor at rest
- suprasternal and sternal wall retraction at rest
- distress/agitation/restlessness/lethargy
- tachycardia
- hypoxaemia

indications for admission
- moderate/severe croup
- <3 months of age
- known upper airway abnormalities e.g. Down’s, laryngomalacia
- uncertainty about diagnosis (?DNSI, epiglottitis…)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

describe developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

risk factors: female sex, first born children, oligohydramnios, birth weight >5kg, congenital calcaenovalgus foot deformity

more common in left hip, can be bilateral

screening: ultrasound 6 weeks after birth
> first-degree family history of hip problems early in life
> breech presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation
> multiple pregnancy

> X-ray if infant >4.5 months

clinical examination
- Barlow test: attempt to dislocate an articulated femoral head
- Ortolani test: attempt to relocate an dislocated femoral head

  • examine:
    > symmetry of skin creases
    > symmetry of leg length
    > level of knees when hips/knees bilaterally flexed - asymmetry is Galeazzi sign
    > restricted abduction of hip in flexion

management
- most stabilise by 3-6 weeks of age
- pavlik harness ( dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis) if under 4-5 months
- older children may require surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe the developmental milestones for a child of 6 weeks

A
  • gross motor
    > good head control: raises head to 45 degrees when on tummy
    > stabilises head when raised to sitting position
  • fine motor/vision
    > tracks object/face
  • speech/language
    > stills, startles at loud noise
  • social
    > social smile (visual problem if not)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe the developmental milestones for a child of 6 months

A
  • gross motor
    > sit without support, rounded back
    > rolls tummy (prone) to back (supine)
    > cruises
  • fine motor/vision
    > palmar grasp (5m)
    > transfer hand to hand
    > forgets fallen objects
  • speech/language
    > turns head to loud sounds
    > understands “bye bye” / “no” (7m)
    > babbles (monosyllabic) - says ma, da
    > 9 months: polysyllables dada, mum-mum
  • social
    > puts objects to mouth (stops at 1yr)
    > shakes rattle
    > reaches for bottle/breast
    > stranger aware
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe the developmental milestones for a child of 9 months

A
  • gross motor
    > pulls self from sitting to standing
    > straight back sitting (7 1/2m)
    > crawls (some children bottom-shuffle)
  • fine motor/vision
    > inferior pincer grip
    > points with finger
    > object permanence - looks for fallen objects
  • speech/language
    > responds to own name
    > imitates adult sounds
  • social
    > stranger fear (6-9mths-2 years)
    > holds and bites food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

describe the developmental milestones for a child of 12 months

A
  • gross motor
    > walks alone (9-18m)
    > 18m is threshold for worry (Duchenne’s, hip problems, cerebral palsy)
    > can rise to sitting position from lying down
  • fine motor/vision
    > builds 2 brick tower
    > bangs blocks together
    > neat pincer grip (10m)
    > casting bricks (should disappear by 18m)
  • speech/language
    > shows understanding of nouns (where’s mummy?)
    > responds to own name
    > 1-3 words with meaning
    > points to own body parts (15m), doll (18m)
  • social
    > waves “bye bye”
    > hand clapping
    > plays alone if familiar person nearby
    > drinks from beaker with lid
    > comes when called
    > cooperates with dressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

list indications for head CT in children with a head injury

A

CT head within 1h
- 3 or more episodes of vomiting
- LOC >5 mins
- amnesia >5mins
- abnormal drowsiness
- suspicion of non-accidental injury
- post-traumatic seizure if non-epileptic child
- GCS <14 or <15 if baby under 1
- suspicion of skull fracture or tense fontanelle
- focal neurological deficit
- if under 1 year, presence of bruise more than 5cm on head
- dangerous mechanism of injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

describe the management and complications of undescended testes

A

unilateral undescended testis
- review at 3 months
- if persistent refer for orchidopexy

bilateral undescended testes
- review by senior paediatrician within 24h

complications
- infertility
- torsion
- testicular cancer
- psychological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

describe Edward’s syndrome

A

trisomy 18: edward rock n roll (can go clubbing at 18)

features
- micrognathia
- low-set ears
- rocker bottom feet (rock musician)
- overlapping of fingers (edward scissorhands)
- clenched fist (around microphone)
- short sternum
- congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

describe Patau syndrome

A

trisomy 13

features
- cleft lip / palate
- polydactyly
- microphthalmia, microcephaly
- scalp defects
- congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

describe fragile X syndrome

A

features
- intellectual disability
- macrocephaly
- macro-orchidism
- characteristic long face, large ears, hyperextensible joints
- behavioural problems: ADHD, ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

describe William’s syndrome

A

features
- elfin facies: wide mouth, small nose, full lips
- cardiovascular disease: supravalvular aortic stenosis
- hypercalcaemia
- intellectual disability
- outgoing personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

describe Noonan syndrome

A

features
- webbed neck
- pectus excavatum
- short stature
- pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

describe Pierre-Robin syndrome

A

features
- micrognathia
- posterior displacement of tongue (may result in upper airway obstruction)
- cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

describe Prader-Willi syndrome

A

genetic imprinting: phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from mother or father

features
- neonatal hypotonia
- learning difficulties
- hypogonadism, infertility
- obesity
- short stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

describe cri du chat syndrome

A

chromosome 5p deletion syndrome

features
- characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems
- feeding difficulties and poor weight gain
- learning difficulties
- microcephaly and micrognathism
- hypertelorism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

describe the management of a child with a palpable abdominal mass

A
  • urgent referral to on-call paediatric registrar for assessment of neuroblastoma or Wilms tumour
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

describe a neuroblastoma

A

tumour arising from neural crest cells in adrenal medulla and sympathetic nervous system

features
- palpable abdominal mass
- pallor, weight loss
- bone pain, limp
- hepatomegaly
- paraplegia
- proptosis

investigations
- raised urinary vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) and homovanillic acid (HVA)
- calficiation may be seen on abdo X-ray
- biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

describe viral-induced wheeze

A

causes: RSV, rhinovirus, coronaviruses, parainfluenza

features
- children >2y
- shortness of breath
- signs of respiratory distress
- expiratory wheeze throughout chest
- no atopic history
- only occurs during viral infections, as opposed to asthma

management
- same as acute asthma:
> inhalers/nebulisers
> oral prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

list signs of respiratory distress in children

A
  • nasal flaring
  • grunting
  • stridor
  • wheeze
  • head bobbing
  • tracheal tugging
  • subcostal and intercostal recessions
  • increased respiratory rate
  • use of accessory muscles
  • cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

describe the management of acute asthma

A

management
- supplementary oxygen
- bronchodilators - salbutamol, ipratropium bromide
- steroids
- antibiotics if infection suspected

severe: magnesium sulphate, aminophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

describe chronic asthma and its treatment

A

features
- diurnal variability
- dry cough with wheeze and shortness of breath
- history of atopy: eczema, hay fever, food allergies
- bilateral widespread polyphonic wheeze

Management
- child <5y: moderate-dose ICS 8 week trial
- child >5y: asthma management if uncontrolled by SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

describe whooping cough

A

URTI caused by Bordatella pertussis

features
- coryzal symptoms
- fever
- paroxysmal cough
- inspiratory whoop when coughing ends
- intensity of cough may precipitate faint, vomit or pneumothorax
- apnoeas

diagnosis
- nasopharyngeal / per nasal swab: PCR testing / bacterial culture
- lymphocytosis
- cough present >2 weeks: anti-pertussis toxin immunoglobulin G

management
- notifiable disease
- supportive care
- macrolide antibiotics e.g. azithromycin in first 21 days
- close contacts: prophylactic antibiotics
- symptoms typically resolve within 8 weeks

complication - bronchiectasis

school exclusion: 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

describe chronic lung disease of prematurity

A

aka bronchopulmonary dysplasia

occurs in premature babies
(<28 weeks) after the infant requires oxygen therapy after 36 weeks gestational age

features
- low oxygen saturations
- increased WOB
- poor feeding and weight gain
- crackles and wheezes on chest auscultation
- increased susceptibility to infection

prevention
- giving steroids to mothers in premature labour
- once the neonate is born
> avoid intubation/ventilation, use CPAP if possible
> caffeine to stimulate respiratory effort
> avoid over-oxygenation with supplementary oxygen

diagnosis
- CXR changes, sleep study

management
- low dose oxygen at home to be weaned over first year of life
- monthly injections of palivizumab to protect against RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

describe the clinical features of cystic fibrosis

A

AR condition affecting chloride channels in mucus glands

most common mutation is delta-F508

features
- chronic cough and thick sputum production
- recurring airway infections
- pancreatic insufficiency (steatorrhoea), pancreatitis
- failure to thrive
- abdominal pain and bloating
- salty sweat
- congenital bilateral absence of vas deferens in males
- meconium ileus
- finger clubbing
- nasal polyps
- crackles and wheezes on auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

describe the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis

A

diagnosis
- screening at birth with newborn bloodspot test: raised immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT)
- sweat test: gold standard
- genetic testing: CFTR gene during pregnancy by amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, or blood test after birth

common colonisers: staph aureus, haemophilus influenza, klebsiella pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

describe testing for parvovirus B19 in pregnant women with infected contacts

A

parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectiosum aka slapped cheek

infectious from up to 3 weeks before rash develops
> no longer infectious once rash appears

infection in pregnancy mostly causes no issues but complications can include hydrops fetalis and fetal death
> pregnant women with infected contacts require immediate serological testing

Serological testing
> IgM positive and IgG negative: recent infection, refer to fetal medicine
> IgG positive and IgM negative: immunity to parvovirus
> IgG negative and IgM negative: repeat test in 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

describe the clinical features of erythema infectiosum aka slapped cheek

A

aka fifth disease

features
- asymptomatic
- mild fever
- noticeable rose-red rash in cheeks
- rash may spread to rest of body
- child feels better as rash appears and this peaks after a week and then fades
- heat can sometimes make rash reappear for several months after

aplastic anaemia can be precipitated in
> sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis, haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

describe fluid prescription in children

A

child’s circulating blood volume = 75-80mls/kg

fluid resuscitation:
> fluid bolus: 10 mls/kg
> children with severe DKA: 10mls/kg of 0.9% NaCl (risk of cerebral oedema)

maintenance fluids:
> 100ml/24h for every kg between 0-10kg (or 4ml/kg/hr)
> 50ml/24h for every kilo from 11-20kg (or 2ml/kg/hr)
> 20ml per kilo thereafter (or 1ml/kg/hr)

e.g. child weighing 13.5kg
= 100 + 3.5*50 = 1175ml/24h

potassium: 1-2mmol/kg/24h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

describe the developmental milestones expected of a child of 18 months of age

A
  • gross motor
    > climbs stairs holding rail / two feet a step
    > squats to pick up toy
    > runs unsteadily (16m)
    > jumps (18m)
  • fine motor/vision
    > fisted grasp of pencil: to and fro scribbles (15m)
    > builds 4 block tower
    > turns pages of book several at a time
  • speech/language
    > shows understanding of nouns (“show me the xxxx”)
    > 1 to 6 different words
    > obeys simple instructions
    > 10 words
  • social
    > imitates every day
    activities
    > spoon feeds self, lifts and drinks from cup
    > takes off shoes, socks, hat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

describe the developmental milestones expected of a 2- 2 1/2 year old child

A
  • gross motor
    > runs
    > walks upstairs, both feet/each step
    > throws ball at shoulder level
    > kicks ball
  • fine motor/vision
    > draws a vertical line or horizontal line
    > build 8 block tower
    > puzzles: shape matching is >2 year skill, random effort is <2 year
    > turns pages of book one at a time
  • speech/language
    > shows understanding of verbs (“what do you draw with, what do you eat with?”)
    > 2-4 words joined together (50+ words)
    > shows understanding of prepositions in/on “put the cat on the bowl”

social
> eats skilfully with a spoon
> dry by day
> no sharing
> simple imaginative play

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

describe the developmental milestones expected of a 3- 3/12 year old child

A
  • gross motor
    > walks upstairs, one foot per step; downstairs two feet per step
    > rides a tricycle
  • fine motor/vision
    > draws a circle
    > builds a tower of 9-10 bricks
    > builds a bridge or train
    > puzzles: shape matching is > single cuts or cuts pieces
    > Griffiths beads
  • speech/language
    > gives full name and sex
    > counts by rote up to ten or more
    > comprehends meaning of under, over, in
    > understands negatives “which of these is NOT an animal”
    > understands adjectives “which one is red?”
  • social
    > begins to share toys with friends
    > plays alone without parents
    > eats with fork and spoon
    > understands comparatives “which boy is bigger than this one” while pointing to middle-sized boy
    > bowel control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

describe the developmental milestones expected of a 4-5 year old child

A

gross motor
- walks upstairs / downstairs in adult manner
- hops
- single leg stand, runs on tiptoe

fine motor/vision
- 4 years: draws a cross and square
- 5 years: draws a triangle/person
- build a tower of 10 or more blocks
- can imitate a bridge with three blocks
- cuts paper in half
- small beads
- matches and names 4 colours

language/speech
- understands complex instructions “before you put x in y, give z to mummy”
- uses complex narrative / sequences to describe events
- counts by rote to 20 or more

social
- concern/sympathy for others if hurt
- has best friend
- bladder control (4 1/2 years)
- engages in imaginative play, observing rules (4 1/2 to 5 years old)
- understands taking turns and sharing
- eats skilfully with little help
- dressing and undressing
- handles knife (at 5 years)
- brushes teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

list routine screening opportunities for children

A
  • Neonatal hearing screening (newborn babies)
  • Newborn Infant Physical examination (baby check)
  • Health visitor first visit (around 10 days of age)
  • 6 to 8-week review (second baby check)
  • 13 to 15-month review
  • 27 to 30-month review
  • 4 to 5-year review
  • Preschool Orthoptist Vision Screen
  • Primary School height and weight and health check (school nurses)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

describe the neonatal blood spot test

A

between days 5-9 of newborn’s life: heel prick test

screens for 9 inherited conditions:
- Sickle cell disease
- Cystic fibrosis (CF)
- Congenital hypothyroidism (CHT)
- Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD)
- Maple syrup urine disease
- Isovaleric acidaemia (IVA)
- Glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1 )
- Homocystinuria (HCU)

Infant must have been on milk feeds for at least 48 hours and not had a blood transfusion within last 72 hours for tests to be accurate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

describe UK’s routine immunisation schedule

A

at birth: BCG (if risk factors) - TB in family in past 6 months

8 weeks
- diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenzae B, hepatitis B “6-in-1 vaccine”
- meningococcal group B “men B”
- oral rotavirus vaccine

12 weeks
- diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B “6-in-1 vaccine”
- pneumococcal (PCV)
- oral rotavirus vaccine

16 weeks
- diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Hib, hepatitis B “6-in-1 vaccine”
- Meningococcal group B “Men B”

1 year
- Hib and MenC
- pneumococcal (PCV)
- Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR)
- MenB

2-8 years: annual flu vaccine

3 years 4 months
- diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio “4-in-1 pre-school booster”
- MMR

12-13 years
- HPV vaccine

14 years
- tetanus, diphtheria and polio “3-in-1 teenage booster”
- menACWY

65 years
- pneumococcal
- influenza
- shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

describe a formula used to estimate weight in a child

A

Weight (kg) = (age + 4) x 2 (use if aged >12 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

describe feeding in babies

A

volumes gradually increase in the first week of life as tolerated
> 60mls/kg/day on day 1
> 90mls/kg/day on day 2
> 120mls/kg/day on day 3
> 150mls/kg/day on day 4 and onwards

breast fed babies can lose 10% of birth weight and formula fed babies can lose 5% of their body weight by day 5 of life
> must be back at birth weight by day 10

weaning around 6 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

describe normal puberty

A

girls: 8-14 years
- development of breast buds (first sign)
- pubic hair
- menstrual period

boys: 9-15 years
- testicular growth (first sign >4ml volume)
- penile enlargement
- darkening of scrotum
- development of pubic hair
- deepening of voice

Tanner staging - examination findings of sex characteristics

delayed puberty is due to hypogonadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

describe hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

A
  • LH and FSH deficiency

causes
- iatrogenic damage to hypothalamus/pituitary
- growth hormone deficiency
- hypothyroidism
- hyperprolactinaemia
- serious chronic conditions e.g. cystic fibrosis, IBD
- excessive exercise/dieting
- constitutional delay in growth and development
- Kallman syndrome (associated with anosmia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

describe hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism

A
  • high FSH and LH, failure of gonads to respond to stimulation

causes
- previous damage to gonads e.g. testicular torsion, cancer or infections e.g. mumps
- congenital absence of testes/ovaries
- Kleinfelter’s syndrome (XXY)
- Turner’s syndrome (XO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

list different types of learning disability

A
  • dyslexia
  • dysgraphia
  • dyspraxia aka developmental coordination disorder
  • auditory processing disorder
  • non-verbal learning disability
  • profound and multiple learning disability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

describe a cephalohaematoma

A

bleeding between periosteum and skull

clinical features
- swelling on newborn head
- does not cross suture lines
- presents several hours after birth
- associated with instrumental extraction
- most commonly parietal region
- may take up to 3 months to resolve

complication: jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

describe Down’s syndrome

A

trisomy 21

dysmorphic features
- upslanting palpebral fissures
- prominent epicanthic folds
- Brushfield spots in iris
- protruding tongue
- small low-set ears
- round/flat face

clinical features
- flat occiput
- single palmar crease
- pronounced “sandal gap” between big and first toe
- hypotonia
- congenital heart defects: atrioventricular septal defect most common, VSD, Tetralogy of Fallot
- GI: duodenal atresia, Hirschprung’s disease, imperforate anus

later complications
- hypothyroidism
- acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
- subfertility
- learning difficulties
- conductive hearing loss due to recurrent otitis media
- short stature
- repeated respiratory infections
- early onset Alzheimer’s disease
- atlantoaxial instability - increased risk of neck dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

describe a caput succedaneum

A

clinical features
- diffuse subcutaneous fluid collection (oedema)
- poorly defined margins: crosses suture lines
- caused by pressure on presenting part of head during delivery
- resolves over days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

describe a subgaleal haemorrhage

A

clinical features
- bleeding between aponeurosis of scalp and periosteum
- large, fluctuant collection crossing a suture lines
- rare but may cause life-threatening blood loss

89
Q

describe a craniosynostosis

A
  • one or more fibrous sutures in infant skull prematurely fuses
  • changes growth pattern of skull
  • results in raised ICP and damage to intracranial structures

management: surgery
- excision of prematurely fused suture
- correction of associated skull deformities

90
Q

describe measles

A

measles: RNA paramyxovirus, spread via droplets

clinical features
- prodromal phase: irritable, fever
- cough
- coryzal symptoms
- purulent conjunctivitis
- fever
- Koplik spots: white spots on buccal mucosa, pathognomic
- diarrhoea

  • discrete maculopapular rash “lace-like”:
    > starts behind the ears
    > spreads down the body between days 3 and 5
    > becomes blotchy and confluent
    > desquamation sparing the palms and soles may occur after a week

investigations: IgM antibodies

management: supportive
> admission if immunosuppressed / pregnant
> notifiable disease
> child contacts who are not immunised: MMR within 72h
> can return to school 4 days from onset of rash

91
Q

list complications of measles

A

complications
- acute otitis media: most common
- pneumonia: most common cause of death
- encephalitis: after 1-2 weeks
- febrile convulsions
- keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration
- increased incidence of appendicitis
- myocarditis

  • subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: very rare, 5-10 years following illness
92
Q

describe threadworm infestation

A

Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms

causes: swallowing eggs in environment

clinical features
- asymptomatic
- perianal itching, especially at night
- girls: vulval symptoms

diagnosis
> apply sellotape to perianal area and send for microscopy to see eggs
> or treat empirically

management
- anthelmintic + hygiene measures for ALL members of the household
- mebendazole first-line for children >6 months old
> single dose given unless infestation persists

93
Q

why are the following avoided in children
- aspirin
- codeine
- tramadol

A

aspirin: risk of Reye syndrome (except Kawasaki disease)

Reye syndrome: rapidly worsening brain disease

features
- confusion
- vomiting
- personality changes
- seizure
- loss of consciousness
- hepatotoxicity

codeine and tramadol have unpredictable metabolism so are avoided

94
Q

describe a Meckel’s diverticulum

A

congenital disorder causing malformation in the small intestine - outpouching remnant of omphalomesenteric duct

rule of 2s - occurs in 2% of population, 2 feet from ileocaecal valve, 2 inches long

features
- asymptomatic
- painless massive rectal bleeding
- nausea and vomiting
- constipation
- abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis
- intestinal obstruction

investigations
- haemodynamically stable: Meckel’s scan (99m technetium pertechnetate)
- mesenteric arteriography in more severe cases e.g. transfusion required

management
- removal if narrow neck or symptomatic
> wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis

95
Q

describe chickenpox

A

primary infection with varicella zoster virus (shingles is a reaction of dormant virus in dorsal root ganglion)

  • spread via respiratory route (highly contagious)
  • infectivity: 4 days before rash until lesions dry and crusted over (usually 5 days after rash first appeared)

features
- fever
- itchy rash starting on head/trunk before spreading
- initially macular then papular then vesicular
> spots > blisters > scabs
- mild systemic upset

management
- keep cool, trim nails
- calamine lotion
- ibuprofen is contraindicated due to nec fasc risk
- school exclusion

  • immunocompromised and newborns with peripartum exposure: varicella zoster immunoglobulin
    > if chickenpox develops consider IV aciclovir
96
Q

list developmental red flags in children

A

red flags:
- absence of social smile by 6 weeks

  • no sitting by 8 months
  • hand preference before 12 months
    > could be an indicator of cerebral palsy
    > risk factors: low birth weight
  • not walking by 18 months
  • persistent toe walking

management:
- refer urgently to child development service for multidisciplinary assessment
- check hearing, vision
- exclude environmental deprivation and general developmental delay

97
Q

describe intussusception

A

invagination of one portion of small bowel into lumen of adjacent bowel, most commonly ileocaecal region

usually affects infants 6-18 months old

features
- intermittent, severe, crampy, progressive abdominal pain
- inconsolable crying
- vomiting
- bloodstained stool - “red currant jelly” - late sign
- during paroxysm infant will draw legs up towards chest and turn pale
- sausage-shaped mass RUQ

investigations
- AXR: rule out obstruction
- US: target sign

management
- first-line: reduction by air insufflation under radiological control
- if this fails or signs of peritonitis: surgery

98
Q

describe pyloric stenosis

A

usually 2-4 week of life, but may present up to 4 months

caused by hypertrophy of circular muscles of pylorus

features
- projectile vomiting, usually 30 mins after feed (non-bilious)
- constipation and dehydration
- palpable mass in upper abdomen
- visible peristalsis as stomach tries to push past obstruction

bloods: hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis due to persistent vomiting

diagnosis - ultrasound

management: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy

99
Q

describe rickets

A

inadequately mineralised bone resulting in soft/easily deformed bones

usually due to vitamin D deficiency

features
- aching bones and joints
- lower limb abnormalities
> toddlers: genu varum (bow legs)
> older children: genu valgum (knock knees)
- rickety rosary: swelling at costochondral junction
- kyphoscoliosis
- craniotabes: soft skull bones in early life
- Harrison’s sulcus

investigations
- low vitamin D levels
- low serum calcium
- raised ALP

management: oral vitamin D

100
Q

describe normal lower limb variants in children

A

features
- flat feet (pes planus)
> all ages
> absent medial arch on standing
> usually resolves between ages 4-8 years
> orthotics not recommended, reassurance

  • in-toeing
    > 1st year
    > resolves in majority
  • out-toeing
    > all ages
    > usually resolves by age 2 years
  • bow legs (genu varum)
    > 1st-2nd years
    > usually resolves by age 4-5
  • knock knees (genu valgum)
    > 3rd-4th year
    > usually resolves spontaneously
101
Q

describe febrile convulsions

A

seizures provoked by fever in otherwise normal children

> occur in 3% of children between 6 months and 5 years
10% risk of febrile convulsion if history in a 1st degree relative

features
- seizures usually brief <5 mins
- appear hot and flushed before losing consciousness
- tonic-clonic seizure-like episodes
- post-ictal period

types of febrile convulsions
- simple:
> <15 mins
> generalised seizure
> typically no recurrence within 24h
> complete recovery within 1h

  • complex
    > 15-30 mins
    > focal seizure
    > repeat seizures within 24h
  • febrile status epilepticus: >30 mins

management
- first seizure OR features of complex seizure: admit to paeds

  • ongoing
    > parents should call ambulance if seizure >5mins
    > recurrent febrile convulsions: benzodiazepines e.g. rectal diazepam / buccal midazolam
  • may be linked to epilepsy if: family history, complex febrile seizures, neurodevelopmental disorder
102
Q

describe a Wilms’ tumour

A

Wilms’ nephroblastoma - one of most common childhood malignancies

usually children <5 years

associations: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, WAGR syndrome, hemihypertrophy

features
- abdominal mass
- painless haematuria
- flank pain
- other: anorexia, fever
- unilateral in most cases
- metastasises most commonly to lung

management
- unexplained abdo mass: paeds review within 48h
- nephrectomy
- chemotherapy, radiotherapy in advanced disease

103
Q

describe Turner’s syndrome

A

chromosomal disorder caused by only one sex chromosome (45,X)

features
- short stature
- shield chest, widely spaced nipples
- webbed neck
- bicuspid aortic valve (ejection systolic murmur), coarctation of aorta
- primary amenorrhoea
- cystic hygroma
- high-arched palate
- short fourth metacarpal
- multiple pigmented naevi
- lymphoedema in neonates
- elevated gonadotrophin levels
- hypothyroidism
- horseshoe kidney

complications: autoimmune disease, aortic dissection

104
Q

list signs of childhood sexual abuse

A
  • pregnancy
  • STIs
  • recurrent UTIs
  • sexually precocious behaviour
  • anal fissure, bruising
  • reflex anal dilatation
  • perianal warts
  • enuresis and encopresis
  • behavioural problems, self-harm
  • recurrent symptoms e.g. headaches, abdominal pain
105
Q

describe scarlet fever

A

reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci e.g. Streptococcus pyogenes

more common in children aged 2-6 years, spread via respiratory route

features
- fever
- malaise
- headache
- nausea and vomiting
- sore throat / tonsillitis
- bright red tongue “strawberry tongue”
- rash
> fine punctate erythema “pinhead” which appears first on torso and spares palms and soles
> rough sandpaper texture
> later in illness, desquamation occurs

diagnosis: throat swab (commence antibiotics before results)

management
- oral penicillin V for 10 days (azithromycin if penicillin allergic)
- can return to school 24h after commencing antibiotics
- notifiable disease

complications
- otitis media: most common
- rheumatic fever
- acute glomerulonephritis
- invasive complications: bacteraemia, meningitis, necrotising fasciitis

106
Q

describe nocturnal enuresis

A

involuntary discharge of urine at night in a child aged 5 years or older in the absence of defects in nervous system or urinary tract
> if under 5 years, reassure parents

management
- exclude underlying causes: constipation, diabetes, UTI

  • general advice
    > reduce fluid intake before bed
    > encourage regular bladder emptying during day and before sleep
    > lifting and waking
  • reward systems e.g. Star chartd
  • enuresis alarm: first-line for children
  • desmopressin
    > if short-term control is needed or enuresis alarm is ineffective / not acceptable to family
107
Q

describe the Kocher’s criteria for septic arthritis

A

assesses probability of septic arthritis in children

features
- non-weight-bearing: 1 point
- fever >38.5 degrees: 1 point
- WCC >12: 1 point
- ESR>40mm/hr

108
Q

describe features of early and late shock in children

A

blood pressure
- early: normal
- late: hypotension

heart rate
- early: tachycardia
- late: bradycardia

respiration
- early: tachypnoea
- late: acidotic (Kussmaul)

extremities
- early: pale or mottled
- late: blue

urine output
- early: reduced
- late: absent

109
Q

describe gastroenteritis

A

most common cause in UK is rotavirus

features
- diarrhoea lasting 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks
- vomiting lasting 1-2 days and stopping within 3 days

  • dehydration
    > decreased consciousness
    > cold extremities
    > pale/mottled skin
    > tachycardia
    > tachypnoea
    > weak peripheral pulses
    > prolonged CRT
    > hypotension

investigations
- assess hydration status
- stool culture if: suspected septicaemia, blood or mucus in stool, immunocompromised child

management

  • clinical shock: IV rehydration
  • no evidence of dehydration
    > continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds
    > encourage fluid intake
    > discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks
  • dehydration suspected
    > give 50mls/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution over 4h
    + ORS for maintenance
    > continue breastfeeding + supplementing with usual fluids
110
Q

describe plagiocephaly

A

skull deformity producing unilateral occipital flattening, which pushes ipsilateral forehead ear forwards producing parallelogram appearance

most improve by age 3-5 due to adoption of more upright posture

management
- reassurance

  • conservative
    > turn cot around
    > tummy time
    > supervised supported sitting

differentiate between craniosynostosis as ear moved with skull in plagiocephaly v fixed in craniosynostosis

111
Q

describe the Apgar score

A

assesses health of newborn baby
> assess at 1 and 5 minutes of age
> if low score repeat again at 10 mins

A - appearance
- pink all over: 2 points
- body pink, extremities blue: 1 point
- blue all over: 0 points

P - pulse
- >100 bpm: 2 points
- <100: 1 point
- absent: 0 points

G - grimace (reflex irritability)
- cries on stimulation/sneezes, coughs: 2 points
- grimace: 1 point
- nil: 0 points

A - activity (muscle tone)
- active movement: 2 points
- limb flexion: 1 point
- flaccid: 0 points

R - respiratory effort
- strong, crying: 2 points
- weak, irregular: 1 point
- nil: 0 points

scores
- 0-3: very low
- 4-6: moderate low
- 7-10: good state

112
Q

describe acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

A

peak incidence 2-5 years of age

clinical features
- lethargy and pallor
- frequent or severe infections
- easy bruising, petechiae
- epistaxis
- bone pain, limp
- splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
- fever
- testicular swelling

investigations
- bloods: anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia
- lumbar puncture
- bone marrow aspirate

worse prognostic factors: male, WCC>20 at presentation, <2 or >10 years, having B or T cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity

113
Q

describe precocious puberty

A

<8 years in females and <9 years in males

> thelarche: first stage of breast development
adrenarche: first stage of pubic hair development

classification
- gonadotrophin-dependent:
> premature activation of hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis
> FSH and LH raised

  • gonadotrophin-independent;
    > excess sex hormones
    > FSH & LH low

causes
- females: usually idiopathic/familial. Organic cause is rare but happens rapidly e.g. McCune Albright syndrome

  • males: uncommon, usually organic cause
    > bilateral testicular enlargement: gonadotrophin release from intracranial lesion
    > unilateral testicular enlargement: gonadal tumour
    > small testes: adrenal tumour / hyperplasia
114
Q

describe investigations and management of meningitis in children

A

indications for LP
> all children <1 month presenting with fever
> 1-3 months: fever and unwell
> under 1 year with unexplained fever and unwell

management: notifiable disease

  • antibiotics
    > primary care: stat IV/IM benzylpenicillin

> <3 months: IV amoxicillin (cover Listeria) + IV cefotaxime
>3 months: IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone)

  • steroids
    > avoid in children under 3 months
    > consider dexamethasone if LP reveals: frankly purulent CSF, CSF WCC >1000, bacteria on gram stain
  • fluids
  • cerebral monitoring
  • prophylaxis for contacts: ciprofloxacin
115
Q

describe head lice aka pediculosis capitis

A

aka nits

caused by parasitic insect Pediculus capitis

diagnosis: fine toothed combing of wet or dry hair

management
- only treat if living lice are found

  • choice of treatments:
    > malathion
    > wet combing
    > dimeticone
    > isopropyl myristate
    > cyclomethicone

school exclusion is not advised

116
Q

describe haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Caused by E. coli O157 (STEC) which produces Shiga-like toxin (verotoxin), usually in children
> associated with exposure to farm animals
> can also be D -ve, caused by pneumococcal infection, HIV, SLE, drugs, cancer

Classic triad
- Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
- AKI / uraemia
- Thrombocytopaenia

clinical features
- bloody diarrhoea
- abdominal pain
- fever
- vomiting
- haematuria, oliguria
- hypertension
- bruising, pallor, lethargy
- jaundice
- confusion

investigations: stool culture

Management
- supportive treatment only: IV fluids, transfusions and dialysis if needed
- no role for antibiotics
- plasma exchange or eculizumab if severe

117
Q

describe immune thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

A

type II hypersensitivity reaction - antibodies against glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

features
- bruising
- petechial or purpuric rash
- bleeding is less common but may present as epistaxis or gingival bleeding
- no fever
- preceded by viral illness/vaccination

labs:
- FBC: isolated thrombocytopaenia
- blood film
- bone marrow examination if atypical features

management
- resolves in most children within 6 months
- advice to avoid activities that may result in trauma e.g. team sports
- if platelet count <10 or significant bleeding: steroids, immunoglobulins, platelet transfusions in emergency

118
Q

describe rubella

A

caused by rubella virus
> highly contagious, respiratory spread

features
- mild erythematous macular rash > starts on face and spreads to rest of the body
> classically lasts 3 days
- mild fever
- joint pain
- sore throat
- post-auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy

Management
- supportive
- notifiable disease

  • avoid pregnant women due to risk of congenital rubella syndrome
    > triad of deafness, blindness and congenital heart disease

Complications: thrombocytopenia, encephalitis

school exclusion: 5 days from onset of rash

119
Q

describe mumps

A

clinical features
- fever
- malaise
- muscular pain
- parotitis: ear ache, pain on eating, facial swelling

complications:
- abdominal pain (pancreatitis)
- testicular pain (orchitis)
- confusion, neck stiffness and headache (meningitis/encephalitis)

management: supportive; notifiable disease

school exclusion: 5 days from onset of swollen glands

120
Q

describe impetigo

A
  • acute superficial bacterial infection
  • very contagious

features
- honey coloured or golden crusting around mouth/nose
- annular erythematous lesions
- bullous impetigo causes blisters and erosions

caused mostly by staph aureus

management
> localised non-bullous impetigo, systemically well: hydrogen peroxide 1% cream
> widespread non-bullous impetigo, systemically well: topical fusidic acid 2% OR oral antibiotic

> systemically unwell:
- oral antibiotic: flucloxacillin (or erythromycin)

school exclusion: until lesions are crusted and healed, or 48h after commencing antibiotic treatment

121
Q

describe the presentation and causes of meningitis in neonates and children

A

causes
- neonates: group B strep, Listeria monocytogenes, E.coli
- children: Neisseria meningitidis (gram negative diplococci) and Streptococcus pneumoniae

presentation

> neonates
- lethargy, irritability
- hypotonia
- poor feeding
- hypothermia
- bulging fontanelle

> children
- fever
- neck stiffness
- photophobia
- vomiting
- non-blanching rash
- altered consciousness
- seizures

complications: skin necrosis, abscesses / subdural empyema

122
Q

list contraindications to LP

A

contraindication to LP (any signs of raised ICP)
- focal neurological signs
- papilloedema
- significant bulging of fontanelle
- DIC
- signs of cerebral herniation
- meningococcal septicaemia
> obtain blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus

123
Q

describe Kernig’s and Brudzinski’s test

A

Kernig’s test: creates a slight stretch in the meninges
- lying the patient on their back, flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees
- then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed at 90 degrees
- positive Kernig’s: spinal pain or resistance to movement

Brudzinski’s test
- lying patient flat on their back
- use hands to lift head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest
- positive Brudzinski’s: involuntary flexion of hips and knees

124
Q

list long-term complications of meningitis

A
  • hearing loss
  • seizures and epilepsy
  • memory loss
  • cognitive impairment and learning disability
  • cerebral palsy with focal neurological deficits e.g. limb weakness or spasticity
125
Q

describe roseola infantum

A

aka sixth disease
> caused by human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) and less frequently HHV-7

features
- high fever (up to 40ºC) that comes on suddenly
- fever lasts for 3 – 5 days and then disappears suddenly
- coryzal symptoms: sore throat, swollen lymph nodes

  • mild erythematous macular rash across the arms, legs, trunk and face
    > not itchy
    > appears for 1 – 2 days AFTER fever settles

complication: febrile convulsions

does not require exclusion from school

Immunocompromised patients: complications e.g. myocarditis, thrombocytopenia and Guillain-Barre syndrome

126
Q

describe hand, foot and mouth disease

A

caused by coxsackie A16 virus

features
- fatigue
- sore throat
- dry cough
- low-grade fever
- small painful mouth ulcers
- blistering red spots across body (mostly on hands, feet and mouth)
> rash may be itchy
- onychomadesis (nails split and peel 2-6 weeks later)

management
- supportive: adequate fluid intake, analgesia
> resolve after 7-10 days

does not require exclusion from school but highly contagious

complications: dehydration, bacterial superinfection, encephalitis

127
Q

describe primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

aka Kartagener’s syndrome

AR condition causing dysfunction of motile cilia

Kartagener’s triad
- paranasal sinusitis
- bronchiectasis
- situs inversus
also male infertility

investigations
- biopsy of ciliated epithelium via nasal brushing or bronchoscopy
- semen analysis for infertility

management
- daily physio
- high calore diet
- antibiotics

128
Q

describe an abdominal migraine

A

features
- episodes of central abdominal pain lasting more than 1h
- nausea and vomiting
- anorexia
- pallor
- headache
- photophobia
- aura
- normal examination

management
- acute attack: paracetamol / ibuprofen / sumatriptan, low stimulus environment
- prevention: pizotifen, propranolol

129
Q

describe gastro-oesophageal reflux

A

in infants <8 weeks due to immature lower oesophageal sphincter, most improve by one year

presentation
- milky vomits after feeds
- distress, crying, unsettled after feeding
- reluctance to feed
- chronic cough
- hoarse cry
- pneumonia
- poor weight gain
- children >1 year experience similar symptoms to adults

management
- advice: small frequent meals, burping regularly, keeping baby upright after feeding

  • breastfed baby: gaviscon first-line
  • bottle fed baby: feed thickeners
  • PPIs (omeprazole)
130
Q

describe biliary atresia

A

congenital condition where a section of the bile duct is narrowed or absent resulting in cholestasis

clinical features
- persistent jaundice
> >14 days in term babies, >21 days in premature babies
- high proportion of conjugated bilirubin
- hepatomegaly with splenomegaly
- dark urine and pale stools
- abnormal growth

management: surgery
> Kasai portoenterostomy: prolongs survival but often full liver transplant is required
> ursodeoxycholic acid as an adjuvant following surgery

131
Q

list causes of jaundice in neonates

A

unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
- physiological jaundice
- breast milk jaundice (commonest cause of prolonged jaundice)
- haemolytic disease of the newborn
- infection (UTI, sepsis)
- congenital hypothyroidism
- cephalohaematoma / bruising
- hereditary spherocytosis
- G6PD deficiency

conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
- biliary atresia
- idiopathic neonatal hepatitis
- Alagille syndrome

132
Q

list causes of intestinal obstruction in neonates and children

A
  • meconium ileus: soap bubble appearance on AXR
  • Hirschprung’s disease
  • oesophageal atresia
  • duodenal atresia: double bubble sign on AXR
  • intussusception
  • imperforate anus
  • malrotation of intestines with a volvulus
  • strangulated hernia
133
Q

describe Hirschprung’s disease

A

congenital condition where parasympathetic ganglion cells are absent from myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus in distal bowel and rectum

features
- delay in passing meconium (>24h)
- chronic constipation since birth
- abdominal pain and distension
- vomiting
- poor weight gain and failure to thrive
- aganglionic megacolon
- may be improvement after PR exam

investigations:
> AXR: dilated loops of bowel with fluid levels
> barium enema: cone with dilated ganglionic proximal colon and distal aganglionic bowel failing to distend
> rectal biopsy

management
- initial: NG tube decompression, rectal washouts / bowel irrigation
- surgical removal of aganglionic section of bowel: abdominoperineal pull-through with diverting colostomy

134
Q

describe Hirschprung-associated enterocolitis

A

aka HAEC

inflammation and obstruction of intestine occurring in 20% of neonates with Hirschprung’s

features
- fever
- abdominal distension
- bloody diarrhoea
- sepsis

investigations: AXR

complications: toxic megacolon, perforation

management
- antibiotics
- fluid resuscitation
- decompression of obstructed bowel

135
Q

describe congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

defect in 21-hydroxylase enzyme which converts progesterone into aldosterone and cortisol
> excess progesterone is converted into testosterone

lab features: low aldosterone, low cortisol, high testosterone

features
- skin hyperpigmentation

  • mild CAH: presents during childhood/puberty
    > tall for age
    > early puberty
    > deep voice

> females: facial hair, absent periods, ambiguous or virilised genitalia, enlarged clitoris

> males: large penis, small testicles

  • severe CAH: presents shortly after birth
    > hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia
    > poor feeding
    > vomiting
    > dehydration
    > arrhythmias

management: cortisol and aldosterone replacement with hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

136
Q

describe growth hormone deficiency

A

congenital or acquired

features
- neonates
> micropenis (males)
> hypoglycaemia
> severe jaundice
- older infants/children
> poor growth
> short stature
> slow development of movement/strength
> delayed puberty

investigations
- growth hormone stimulation tests with glucagon, insulin, arginine and clonidine
- test for pituitary abnormalities and genetic testing

treatment
- daily SC injection of growth hormone (somatropin)
- treatment of associated hormone deficiencies

137
Q

describe congenital hypothyroidism

A

features
- prolonged neonatal jaundice
- poor feeding
- constipation
- increased sleeping
- reduced activity
- slow growth and development

investigations: TFTs, thyroid US, thyroid antibodies

management: levothyroxine

138
Q

describe vulvovaginitis

A

inflammation and irritation of vulva and vagina

  • common condition affecting girls between ages of 3 and 10

risk factors: wet nappies, chemicals/soaps to clean the area, tight clothing, poor toilet hygiene

features
- soreness
- itching
- erythema around labia
- vaginal discharge
- dysuria
- constipation

management
- lifestyle: good toilet hygiene, avoiding chemicals/soaps, emollients, loose cotton clothing
- severe: oestrogen cream

139
Q

describe nephrotic syndrome

A

features
- frothy urine
- generalised oedema
- pallor

classic labs
- low serum albumin
- high urine protein content
- oedema
- deranged lipids: high cholesterol, triglycerides
- high BP
- hypercoagulability: increased risk of VTE

causes
> minimal change disease: most common in children
> others: glomerulonephritis, secondary to HSP, diabetes…

140
Q

describe a posterior urethral valve

A

tissue at the proximal end of the urethra causing obstruction of urine output leading to hydronephrosis
> occurs in newborn boys

features
- difficulty urinating
- weak urinary stream
- chronic urinary retention
- palpable bladder
- recurrent UTIs
- impaired kidney function
- severe cases are identified antenatally due to oligohydramnios and hydronephrosis

investigations: abdominal US, micturating cystourethrogram (MCUG), cystoscopy

management
- catheter (temporary)
- definitive: ablation or removal of extra urethral tissue during cystoscopy

141
Q

describe hypospadias

A

congenital condition where urethral meatus is abnormally placed on underside (ventral side) of penis towards scrotum

> epispadias when meatus is on top side of penis

associated condition: chordee (head of penis bends downwards)

management
- surgery at around 12 months to correct position of meatus and straighten penis
- do not circumcise infant

142
Q

describe erythema toxicum neonatorum

A

normal rash in newborns

features
> erythematous macules, papules, and pustules

Lesions usually appear from 48 hours of age and resolve spontaneously

143
Q

describe congenital dermal melanocytosis

A

aka slate grey naevi or Mongolian blue spots

  • often resolves/fades by age 4-5

more common in african & asian babies

  • Benign, flat, congenital birthmark
  • Wavy borders and irregular shape
  • Usually located over sacrum
  • Commonly blue in colour can be mistaken for bruise
  • Disappear within 3-5 years after birth
144
Q

describe eczema

A

aka atopic dermatitis, onset usually <2yrs

Chronic inflammatory skin condition associated with atopy
> associated with filaggrin (FLG) mutation (dry skin, hyperlinear palms, keratosis pilaris)

clinical features
- itchy flexural rash
> cheeks, forehead and outer limbs in <4y
- excoriation marks
- general dry skin
- history of asthma, allergic rhinitis, food allergy (or atopy in 1st degree relative in <4y)

  • dark skin:
    > dry skin
    > can have reverse pattern (outer elbow/front of knees)
    > follicular pattern esp. trunk
    > discoic eczema: well-demarcated plaques
    > lichenoid “thickened” areas
    > looks purple or “darker” when inflamed
    > leaves hypopigmentation as it resolves

management
- emollients
- topical steroids (consider wet wrapping)
- calcineurin inhibitor (Tacrolimus)
- UVB phototherapy
- immunosuppression: methotrexate, ciclosporin
- biologics & JAK inhibitors

  • treat superadded infection
    > bacterial (usually staph aureus): golden crust, systemically unwell
    > viral e.g. eczema herpeticum
145
Q

describe a port wine stain

A

Aka naevus flammeus

Red/purple marks on face and neck due to capillary malformation

Typically present from birth (bright red) and do not regress but become violaceous with time

Can be associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome and Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome

146
Q

describe infantile colic

A

occurs in infants <3 months old and resolves by 6 months

features
- bouts of excessive crying
- pulling up of legs
- worse in evening

unknown cause

147
Q

describe toddler’s diarrhoea

A

benign condition due to fast transit through their digestive system

features
- stools vary in consistency
- contains undigested food

no treatment required

148
Q

describe Kawasaki disease

A

clinical features
- fever >5 days
- maculopapular rash on trunk
- lymphadenopathy
- perioral changes: cracked lips, strawberry tongue
- desquamation of palms and soles
- bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis

clinical diagnosis, inflammatory changes on bloods

complications: coronary artery aneurysms
> screen with echocardiogram

management
- high dose aspirin, then low-dose on d/c
- single dose of intravenous immunoglobulin
- steroids
- cardiology follow-up

149
Q

explain delayed umbilical cord clamping

A

Delayed clamping of the umbilical cord provides time for placental blood to enter the circulation of the baby - placental transfusion

leads to
- improved haemoglobin, iron stores and blood pressure
- reduction in intraventricular haemorrhage and necrotising enterocolitis

  • negative effect: an increase in neonatal jaundice, potentially requiring more phototherapy

Current guidelines
- uncompromised neonates: delay at least one minute in the clamping of the umbilical cord
- neonates requiring resuscitation: clamp sooner to prevent delays in resuscitation

150
Q

describe Erb’s palsy

A

injury to C5/C6 nerves in the brachial plexus during birth
> associated with shoulder dystocia, traumatic or instrumental delivery and large birth weight

clinical features
- weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation, arm flexion and finger extension

  • affected arm has a “waiters tip” appearance
    > internally rotated shoulder, extended elbow, flexed wrist facing backwards (pronated)
    > lack of movement in the affected arm

management
- function normally returns spontaneously within a few months - if function does not return: neurosurgical input

151
Q

describe neonatal sepsis

A

Common Organisms
- Group B streptococcus (GBS)
- Escherichia coli (e. coli)
- Listeria
- Staphylococcus aureus

Risk Factors: vaginal GBS colonisation, GBS sepsis in a previous baby, Maternal sepsis, chorioamnionitis or fever > 38ºC, prematurity, PROM

Clinical Features
- fever
- reduced tone and activity
- poor feeding
- respiratory distress or apnoea, hypoxia
- vomiting
- tachycardia or bradycardia
- seizures
- hypoglycaemia
- jaundice within 24h

management
- benzylpenicillin + gentamicin first line

152
Q

describe hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy (HIE)

A

complications: cerebral palsy, death

causes
- maternal shock
- intrapartum haemorrhage
- prolapsed cord
- nuchal cord

HIE grading - Sarnat Staging
- mild:
> poor feeding, general irritability, hyper-alert
> resolves within 24h
> normal prognosis

  • moderate
    > poor feeding, lethargic, hypotonic, seizures
    > weeks to resolve
    > 40% develop cerebral palsy
  • severe
    > reduced consciousness, apnoeas, flaccid/absent reflexes
    > 50% mortality, 90% develop cerebral palsy

management
- supportive care
- therapeutic hypothermia

153
Q

list causes of jaundice in a neonate

A

increased production of bilirubin

  • haemolytic disease of the newborn
  • ABO incompatibility
  • haemorrhage
  • intraventricular haemorrhage
  • cephalohaematoma
  • polycythaemia
  • sepsis and DIC
  • G6PD deficiency

decreased clearance of bilirubin
- prematurity
- breast milk jaundice
- neonatal cholestasis
- extrahepatic biliary atresia
- endocrine disorders (hypothyroid and hypopituitary)
- Gilbert syndrome

154
Q

describe haemolytic disease of the newborn

A

caused by incompatibility between the rhesus antigens on the surface of the RBCs of the mother and fetus

Usually due to mothers being sensitisation in a previous pregnancy and forming antibodies which then cross placenta

features
- haemolysis
- anaemia
- high bilirubin

complications: kernicterus (high bilirubin causing brain damage)
> deafness, learning disability, cerebral palsy

155
Q

describe physiological jaundice

A

high concentration of red blood cells in the fetus and neonate
> more fragile than normal red blood cells
> less developed liver function

Fetal RBC break down releases lots of bilirubin
> causes mild yellowing of skin and sclera from 2 – 7 days of age
> usually resolves by 10 days

management
- monitor according to bilirubin level on treatment threshold chart
> phototherapy
> exchange transfusion if severe

156
Q

describe apnoea of prematurity

A

when breathing stops spontaneously for >20 seconds, or shorter periods with oxygen desaturation/bradycardia

occurs in almost all babies <28 weeks due to immaturity of the autonomic nervous system that controls respiration and heart rate

can be a sign of developing illness e.g. infection, anaemia, airway obstruction, GORD, neonatal abstinence syndrome, CNS pathology

Management
- apnoea monitors
> use tactile stimulation to prompt baby to restart breathing
- IV caffeine to prevent apnoea and bradycardia if recurrent episodes
- self-resolves

157
Q

describe retinopathy of prematurity

A

screening for ROP
- babies born <32 weeks or <1.5kg should be screened for ROP

Treatment
- transpupillary laser photocoagulation first line
> halt and reverse neovascularisation
- cryotherapy
- injections of intravitreal VEGF inhibitors
- surgery if retinal detachment occurs

158
Q

describe respiratory distress syndrome

A

affects premature neonates due to lack of surfactant, aka surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD)

Chest xray: “ground-glass” appearance

features
- atelectasis (lung collapse)
- hypoxia, cyanosis
- hypercapnia
- respiratory distress: tachypnoea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting

Management
- antenatal steroids (i.e. dexamethasone) for mothers in preterm labour
- CPAP via nasal mask
- supplementary oxygen
- severe: intubation, ventilation
- endotracheal surfactant

complications:
> short-term: pneumothorax, infection, apnoea, pulmonary haemorrhage
> long-term: chronic lung disease of prematurity, ROP, neurological impairment

159
Q

describe necrotising enterocolitis (NEC)

A

disorder affecting premature neonates where part of the bowel becomes necrotic

> life threatening emergency: death of bowel can lead to perforation

risk factors: prematurity, formula feeding, respiratory distress, sepsis, congenital heart disease

clinical features
- intolerance to feeds
- bilious vomiting
- distended, tender abdomen
- absent bowel sounds
- blood in stools
- if perforation: peritonitis, shock

Investigations
- supine abdominal xray
> dilated loops of bowel
> bowel wall oedema
> pneumatosis intestinalis: gas in the bowel wall
> pneumoperitoneum if perforation

Management
- Nil by mouth with IV fluids, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and antibiotics
- NG tube insertion to decompress stomach
- immediate referral to neonatal surgical team

Complications: perforation, sepsis, death, strictures, abscess formation, long-term stoma

160
Q

describe neonatal abstinence syndrome

A

Withdrawal from
- opiates, diazepam, SSRIs and alcohol: 3 – 72h after birth.
- methadone / other benzodiazepines: 24h - 21 days

clinical features
- Irritability
- Increased tone
- High pitched cry
- Tremors
- Seizures
- Yawning
- Sweating
- Unstable temperature / pyrexia
- Tachypnoea
- Poor feeding
- Regurgitation / vomiting
- Hypoglycaemia
- Loose stools with a sore nappy area

Management
- monitoring with NAS chart for at least 3 days
- urine sample to test for substances
- quiet, dim environment with gentle handling / comforting

  • pharmacological (moderate to severe)
  • Oral morphine sulphate (opiate withdrawal)
  • Oral phenobarbitone (non-opiate withdrawal)
160
Q

describe minimal change disease

A

most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children

most cases are idiopathic but can be associated with
- drugs: NSAIDs, rifampicin
- Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma
- Infectious mononucleosis

Features
- nephrotic syndrome
- normotension
- highly selective proteinuria
- renal biopsy
> light microscopy - normal
> EM: fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes

Management
- oral steroids e.g. prednisolone
- diuretics for oedema
- cyclophosphamide if steroid-resistant

prognosis is good but relapse is common

161
Q

describe post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis and its management

A

Occurs 7-14 days after group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus infection (usually Streptococcus pyogenes)

> 1-3 weeks following URTI
3-6 weeks following skin infection e.g. impetigo

Caused by immune complex deposition (IgG, IgM and C3) in the glomeruli

most common cause of nephritic disease in children

features
> malaise, headache
> visible haematuria, proteinuria
> hypertension
> oliguria

bloods: raised anti-streptolysin O titre (confirms recent strep infection), low C3

management
- supportive: fluid balance, penicillin, anti-hypertensives, diuretics if oedema

Renal biopsy
- acute diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
- endothelial proliferation with neutrophils
- EM: subepithelial humps caused by immune complex deposits
- immunofluorescence: granular or starry sky appearance

162
Q

describe mesenteric adenitis

A

inflammation of abdominal lymph nodes secondary to viral infection

common cause of abdominal pain in children under 16

163
Q

describe testicular torsion

A

features
- severe sudden onset testicular pain

  • no relief of pain on elevation (negative prehn’s sign)
  • absent cremasteric reflex in torsion of spermatic cord
  • more common in young men (<18)
  • risk factors: Bell-clapper deformity (transverse lie on examination), physical activity, trauma
  • uss: whirlpool sign - spiral appearance to the spermatic cord and blood vessels
  • management:
  • <6h: scrotal exploration, urgent surgical reduction with fixation of both testes (bilateral orchidopexy)
  • > 6h: urgent orchidectomy and contralateral orchidopexy
164
Q

describe phimosis

A

non-retractile foreskin

physiological in children aged 2-4
> avoid forcible retraction

management
- personal hygiene
- if >2y and UTIs/recurrent balanoposthitis, then treatment

165
Q

describe paraphimosis

A

rectracted foreskin which cannot be pulled forward

leads to progressive pain and swelling in glans, can lead to necrosis if untreated

management
- reduce ASAP with analgesia: lubricant and manual pressure

166
Q

describe balanitis

A

inflammation of the glans penis (posthitis is inflammation of the foreskin)

clinical features
- erythema
- penile pain
- itch
- bleeding
- urethral discharge

management
> hygiene advice
> bacterial infection: topical antibiotics
> fungal infection: topical antifungal
> hydrocortisone cream if dermatitis

167
Q

describe torsion of the testicular appendage (hydatid)

A

torted hydatid of Morgagni
> most common cause of testicular pain/swelling in children

clinical features
> cremasteric reflex is preserved
> gradual onset (2-3 days)
> blue spot under skin
> reactive hydrocoele
> localised to upper scrotum

management
- discharge home with analgesia

168
Q

describe a congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

condition resulting from a developmental defect in the diaphragm leading to protrusion of abdominal contents into the thoracic cavity

clinical features
- feeding problems
- respiratory distress
- displaced heart sounds
- bowel sounds in respiratory exam
- scaphoid abdomen

presence of liver in thoracic cavity is a poor prognostic factor

management: surgical repair

> complications: pulmonary hypoplasia and hypertension

169
Q

describe irritant contact napkin dermatitis

A

seen with cloth nappies (uncommon with disposable nappies), chronic diarrhoea, neglect

moisture & friction disrupt skin barrier - penetration of irritants from urine & faeces

> erythema spares skin folds

> candida overgrowth common (satellite papules & pustules)

management
- frequent nappy changes
- avoid soap/wipes
- emollient to repair skin barrier
- thick barrier preparation (Zinc) every change
- topical steroid/antifungal if very inflamed

170
Q

describe staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

due to release of exotoxins produced by a staphylococcal strain

features
- malaise
- fever
- erythroderma
- flaccid bullae peri-orificially and in flexures
- spreads in sheets
- dehydration due to fluid loss

management
- IV penicillin and flucloxacillin
- IV fluids

171
Q

describe herpes simplex (HSV)

A

reactivation at site of primary infection

management
- aciclovir (prophylaxis if recurrent)
- caution if periorbital involvement
- if eczema may spread rapidly
> acute deterioration
> pain
> monomorphic punched out lesions

172
Q

describe viral warts

A

caused by HPV

  • can be found on hands
  • may auto-inocculate or may be through vertical transmission (caution for CSA)

management
- salicylic acid with duct tape occlusion
- cryotherapy
- cantharadin
- curettage
- bleomycin, 5-FU, PDL and CO2 laser

173
Q

describe acute urticaria

A

features
- itchy papules (hives) and plaques
- wheal and flare
- last up to 6-8 weeks

triggers
- infection: bacterial, viral (lasts weeks)
- ingestion: drugs, foods (lasts hours)
- injection: drugs, immunisation, blood products
- aero: pollen, moulds

174
Q

describe infantile haemangioma

A

benign tumour of blood vessels
> form raised red lump on skin which appears soon after birth

Aka strawberry marks

Get bigger over 6-12 months then shrink and disappear by age 7
> may have a precursor at birth: bruise, flat pink area, white area

more common in premature infants and girls

management
- Require treatment if affecting vision, breathing or feeding
- beta-blockers: propranolol
- laser therapy if not involuting for cosmetic purposes

> concern about segmental HOI (large, occur as plaque, associated with underlying abnormalities)

complications: ulceration, infection, bleeding

175
Q

describe a salmon patch

A

Aka stork mark or nevus simplex

Red or pink patches often on eyelids, head or neck

Caused by congenital capillary malformation

Very common

Usually fade by age two

176
Q

describe transient tachypnoea of the newborn

A

most common cause of respiratory distress in the newborn period

caused by delayed reabsorption of fluid from the lungs

more common following C-sections

177
Q

what conditions might the absence of a fundal reflex indicate?

A
  • retinoblastoma (RB1 tumour suppressor gene mutation)
  • congenital cataracts
178
Q

describe talipes equinovarus

A

aka clubfoot - deformity of ankle & foot causing plantarflexion and inversion

management
- ponseti technique: serial plaster casting, cutting of achilles and foot orthosis

positional talipes can be corrected: physio

179
Q

describe sticky eye

A

usually due to blocked lacrimal duct
> conservative: massage lacrimal duct

180
Q

describe Epstein’s pearls, Bohn nodules and neonatal teeth

A

Epstein’s pearls
- white calcific nodule on palate
> resolve by around 3 months

Bohn nodules
- found on inner labial aspect of maxillary alveolar ridges (gum)

Neonatal teeth
- very rare, present at site of incisors

181
Q

describe spina bifida

A

neural tube defect associated with folate deficiency in pregnancy

types: spina bifida occulta, spina bifida cystica

signs
- lower back pain
- dysesthesia below lesion
- hip dysplasia
- leg weakness
- nystagmus
- clubfoot
- scoliosis

complications: meningitis, neurogenic bladder/bowel, seizures, hydrocephalus, nerve damage paralysis

182
Q

describe diastasis recti

A

weakness of fascia between rectus abdominis muscles

not a hernia

spontaneously resolves

183
Q

describe ophthalmia neonatorum

A

conjunctivitis in first 28 days of life

exclude Neisseria gonorrhoea (first few days) and Chlamydia trachomatis (5-14 days)

> urgent swab and treatment with IV antibiotics

> > IV cefotaxime - gonorrhoea
oral erythromycin - chlamydia
saline eye washouts
urgent ophthalmology review

184
Q

list complications of chickenpox

A
  • secondary bacterial infection of lesions

> chicken pox is a risk factor for invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections

> > necrotising fasciitis
toxic shock syndrome

  • rare: pneumonia, meningoencephalitis, cerebellitis (ataxia), disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, pancreatitis
185
Q

describe androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

X-linked recessive disorder: phenotypically female genitalia in a genetic male

features
- breast bud development, sparse pubic hair
- primary amenorrhea due to inherent absence of ovaries/uterus
- inguinal hernia (immature testes)

diagnosis
- high LH
- normal/high testosterone
- buccal smear/chromosomal analysis: 46XY genotype

management
- counselling
- bilateral orchidectomy due to testicular cancer risk
- oestrogen therapy

186
Q

describe neonatal resuscitation guidelines

A
  • birth: dry baby, remove wet towels, cover and start clock
  • within 30s: assess tone, breathing and heart rate
  • within 60s: gasping/not breathing then open airway and give 5 inflation breaths
  • re-assess: if no increase in heart rate look for chest wall movement
  • if chest not moving: airway manoeuvres, repeat inflation breaths
  • if chest is moving and heart rate not detectable/slow: chest compressions at rate of 3:1
187
Q

describe idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura

A

immune-mediated reduction in the platelet count: antibodies against the glycoprotein IIb-IIIa or Ib complex, usually children <10y

features
- recent viral illness
- bleeding: gums, epistaxis, menorrhagia
- bruising
- petechial/purpuric rash (non-blanching)

investigations
- isolated thrombocytopaenia
- antiplatelet autoantibodies (IgG)
- bone marrow aspiration if atypical features (lymph node enlargement / splenomegaly): megakaryocytes in marrow

management
- usually no treatment required and self-resolves within 6m
- avoid contact sports
- if platelets <10
> oral/IV steroids
> IV immunoglobulins
> platelet transfusion if bleeding

188
Q

describe exomphalos

A

aka omphalocoele

abdominal contents protrude through the anterior abdominal wall, defect in UMBILICUS

abdominal contents are covered in amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum

associations: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, Down’s syndrome, cardiac/kidney malformations

management
- C-section to reduce risk of sac rupture
- staged repair as primary closure may be difficult due to lack of space / high intra-abdominal pressure

189
Q

describe gastroschisis

A

congenital defect in anterior abdominal wall, LATERAL to umbilicus

abdominal contents NOT covered in peritoneum

associated with socioeconomic deprivation (maternal age <20, alcohol/tobacco use)

management
- attempt vaginal delivery
- newborns should go to theatre asap after delivery (within 4h)

190
Q

describe the classical triad of shaken baby syndrome

A

features
- retinal haemorrhages
> other features may include subconjunctival haemorrhage, signs of increased ICP
- subdural haematomas
- encephalopathy

191
Q

describe cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy

A

present in first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants, rarely breastfed babies

features
- regurgitation/vomiting
- diarrhoea, blood in stool
- urticaria, atopic eczema
- “colic” symptoms: irritability, crying
- wheeze, chronic cough
- rarely angioedema/anaphylaxis

diagnosis
> clinical: improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination
> skin prick/patch testing
> total IgE and specific IgE for cow’s milk protein

management
> formula fed
- trial of extensively hydrolysed formula (eHF) if mild-moderate
- amino acid-based formula (AAF) in infants with severe CMPA / no response to eHF

> breastfed
- continue breastfeeding
- eliminate cow’s milk protein from maternal diet, use eHF when breastfeeding stops
- maternal calcium supplements

192
Q

describe fetal alcohol syndrome

A

features
- microcephaly
- thin upper lip
- smooth flat philtrum
- short palpebral fissure
- learning disability
- behavioural difficulties
- hearing/vision problems
- cerebral palsy

193
Q

describe the following congenital varicella syndrome

A

congenital varicella syndrome

  • mother: varicella pneumonitis, hepatitis or encephalitis
  • fetal varicella syndrome: fetal growth restriction, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, learning disability, scars, limb hypoplasia, cataracts and chorioretinitis
  • severe neonatal varicella infection if mum is infected around delivery
194
Q

describe features for the following congenital syndromes
- congenital cytomegalovirus
- congenital toxoplasmosis
- congenital zika syndrome

A

congenital cytomegalovirus
- fetal growth restriction
- microcephaly
- hearing loss, vision loss
- learning disability, seizures

congenital toxoplasmosis
- intracranial calcification, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis

congenital zika syndrome (spread by Aedes mosquito)
- microcephaly, fetal growth restriction, intracranial abnormalities

195
Q

describe sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

A

aka cot death, usually in first 6 months of life

risk factors: prematurity, low birth weight, smoking during pregnancy, male baby

minimising risk
- put baby on back, keep head uncovered
- avoid co-sleeping, maintain comfortable room temp
- avoid smoking

support: lullaby trust

196
Q

describe Angelman syndrome

A

features
- fascination with water
- happy demeanour
- widely spaced teeth
- inappropriate laughter
- delayed development/learning disability

197
Q

describe cerebral palsy

A

causes: maternal infections, birth asphyxia, meningitis

features
- abnormal tone early infancy
- delayed milestones
- abnormal gait
- feeding difficulties

types:
- spastic
> hemiplegia, diplegia or quadriplegia
> increased tone from UMN damage

  • dyskinetic: damage to basal ganglia/substantia nigra
    > abnormal, involuntary movements
    > dystonia: twisting movements
    > athetosis: slow, writhing movements
  • ataxic: damage to cerebellum
  • mixed

neurological examination
- hemiplegic/diplegic gait
- broad based gait/ataxic gait
- high stepping gait
- waddling gait
- antalgic gait

management: MDT
> spasticity: diazepam, baclofen, botulinum toxin, surgery
> anticonvulsants, analgesia

198
Q

describe Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy (DMD)

A

X-linked recessive condition, defective dystrophin gene

boys present around 3-5 years, life expectancy of 25-35 years

features
- progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years
- calf pseudohypertrophy
- Gower’s sign: hands on legs to help them stand up
- intellectual impairment

diagnosis
- raised creatinine kinase (CK)
- genetic testing: confirm diagnosis

management
- supportive

199
Q

describe severe combined immunodeficiency

A

aka SCID - due to absent/dysfunctioning T and B cells

presentation within first few months of life
- persistent severe diarrhoea
- failure to thrive
- opportunistic infections
- unwell after live vaccinations
- Omenn syndrome

management
- immunoglobulin therapy
- sterile environment
- haematopoietic stem cell transplantation

200
Q

describe reflex anoxic seizures

A

common non-epileptic paroxysmal event in infants/children

due to vagal-induced brief cardiac asystole

provoked by sudden distressing stimulus which causes LOC
> followed by stiffening and brief clonic movements affecting some or all limbs

management: exclude cardiac arrhythmia, reassure

201
Q

describe growing pains

A

common cause of MSK pain in children

features
- intermittent symptoms usually worse after vigorous activity
- typically affect legs
- occur at night, never present at the start of day
- usually bilateral and self-limiting
- no other associated symptoms/signs: no limp, no limitation of physical activity

unremarkable clinical examination, motor milestones normal

202
Q

describe the management of cystic fibrosis

A
  • lumacaftor/ivacaftor: homozygous delta F508 mutation
  • chest physio and postural drainage: twice daily
  • high calorie and high fat diet + CREON
  • prophylactic flucloxacillin
  • bronchodilators e.g. salbutamol
  • nebulised DNAase (dornase alfa): clear secretions
  • nebulised hypertonic saline
  • vaccinations: pneumococcal, influenza, varicella
  • pseudomonas colonisation: nebulised antibiotics e.g. tobramycin, or oral ciprofloxacin

OTHER
- lung transplantation in end-stage respiratory failure
> Burkholderia cepacia colonisation is a contraindication

  • liver transplant in liver failure
  • fertility treatment + genetic counselling

monitoring: diabetes, osteoporosis, vitamin D deficiency, liver failure

203
Q

describe infantile spasms

A

aka West syndrome, type of childhood epilepsy

features
- characteristic “salaam” attacks: flexion of the head, trunk and arms followed by extension of arms
- lasts 1-2 seconds but may be repeated up to 50 times
- progressive mental handicap

child is distressed between spasms

investigations:
- EEG: hypsarrhythmia
- MRI head: abnormal

management (poor prognosis)
- vigabatrin first-line
- ACTH

204
Q

list the top 5 causes of respiratory distress and cyanosis in the newborn

A

respiratory distress
- transient tachypnoea of the newborn
- respiratory distress syndrome (surfactant deficiency)
- meconium aspiration syndrome (association with post-term delivery)
- pneumothorax
- infection

cyanosis
- any cause of respiratory distress
- persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn
- congenital cyanotic heart disease
- tracheo-oesophageal fistula
- congenital diaphragmatic hernia

205
Q

list causes of bilious vomiting in neonates

A
  • meconium plug / ileus
  • duodenal atresia
    > management: duodenoduodenostomy
  • oesophageal atresia
  • Hirschprung’s disease
  • malrotation with volvulus
206
Q

describe tracheo-oesophageal fistula

A

features
- coughing/choking during feeds
- inability to pass NG tube / coiling of NG on CXR
- recurrent chest infections
- abdominal distension

diagnosis: bronchoscopy, contrast studies of oesophagus

management: surgical correction

207
Q

describe diGeorge syndrome

A

CATCH-22
- congenital heart disease: tetralogy of fallot
- abnormal facies
- thymus gland not developed
- cleft palate
- hypoparathyroidism / hypocalcaemia

22q11 deletion syndrome

208
Q

describe malrotation with volvulus

A

features
- bilious vomiting
- abdominal pain and cramping
- lethargy
- poor appetite
- infrequent bowel movements
- swollen, firm abdomen

associated with exomphalos and diaphragmatic hernia

diagnosis: upper GI contrast showing corkscrew / whirlpool appearance

management: Ladd’s procedure

209
Q

describe benign rolandic epilepsy

A

childhood epilepsy occurring between 4-12 years

features
- nighttime seizures
- partial seizures with potential for secondary generalisation
- child is otherwise normal

EEG: centrotemporal spikes

excellent prognosis, seizures stop by adolescence

210
Q

describe the clinical features and management of meconium ileus

A

abnormal bulky and viscid meconium, usually due to CF

clinical features
- gross abdominal distension
- bilious vomiting
- failure to pass meconium in first days of life

diagnosis:
- AXR: distended loops of bowel, mottled ground glass appearance
> fluid levels are scarce as meconium is viscid

management:
- NG decompression
- IVF
- antibiotics

> daily washouts
surgical management in some cases (temporary stoma)

211
Q

describe UTI management of children

A

infant <3 months: immediate referral to paediatrician

children >3 months with
- upper UTI: consider hospital admission
- lower UTI: oral antibiotics for 3 days e.g. trimethoprim

consider antibiotic prophylaxis in recurrent UTIs

212
Q

describe a retinoblastoma

A

AD condition caused by loss of function of retinoblastoma tumour suppressor gene

features
- absence of red reflex, replaced by a white pupil (leukocoria)
- strabismus
- visual problems

management
- external beam radiation therapy, chemotherapy, photocoagulation
- enucleation if salvage not possible

excellent prognosis

213
Q

describe constipation and its management in children

A

features
- <3 complete stools per week
- hard large stool “rabbit droppings / pellets”
- distress on passing stool / straining
- bleeding / anal fissure
- abdominal pain

  • faecal impaction
    > overflow soiling
    > faecal mass palpable in the abdomen

management
- first-line: advice on diet/ fluid intake + macrogols (e.g. Movicol)
> stimulant + osmotic laxative if not tolerated

214
Q

describe the management of choking in infants / children

A

if cough effective, encourage coughing

if not
- unconscious: initiate basic life support

  • conscious:
    > infant: alternate between 5 back blows and 5 chest thrusts

> child: alternate between 5 back blows and 5 abdominal thrusts

once obstruction is relieved, urgent medical follow-up

215
Q

list complications found in babies of diabetic mothers

A
  • macrosomia
    > shoulder dystocia
    > Erb / Klumpke palsy
  • jaundice
  • polycythaemia
  • hypoglycaemia
  • TTN
216
Q

describe fluid prescription for maintenance fluids correcting for dehydration

A

% dehydration x 10 x weight (kg) / 2

> split over 48h, divide by 2 for daily requirement

e.g. 10kg child, 5% dehydration

maintenance fluids: 10 x 100 = 1000mL/24h

5 x 10 x 10 = 500/2 = 250mL

total = 1250mL/24 = 52ml/h

217
Q

describe juvenile polyps

A

usually hamartomas

may occur as part of the familial polyposis coli syndromes

clinical features
- rectal bleeding
- cherry red lesion at anal verge

218
Q
A
219
Q
A