Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

4 domains for development

A

gross motor
Fine motor
Language
Personal and social

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2
Q

Milestones for gross motor

A
4 months - head support
6 months - sitting 
9 months - sit unsupported, crawl
12 months - stand and cruising
15 months - walking 
18 months - squat
2 years - run, kick a ball
3 years - climbing stairs 
4 years - hop, climb
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3
Q

Milestones for fine motor and what to test in developmental assessment

A
8 weeks - fix and track with eyes
6 months - palmar grasp 
9 months - scissor grasp
12 months - pincer grasp
14-18 months - use a spoon

In developmental assessment - test drawing skills, tower of bricks, pencil grasps

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4
Q

Milestones for language

A

3 months - recognises voices and makes cooing noises
6 months - responds to tone of voice and makes noises with consonants
9 months - listens and makes babbling noises
12 months - follows simple instructions and uses single words
18 months - understands nouns and uses 5-10 words
2 years - understands verbs and uses 2 words combined, 50+ words
3 years - understands adjectives and uses basic sentences

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5
Q

Personal and social developmental milestones

A
6 weeks - smiles
3 months - communicates pleasure
6 months - curios
9 months - cautious with strangers 
12 months - pointing and waving
18 months - imitates 
2 years - waves to strangers and parallel play 
3 years - bowel control
4 years - friends and dry by nigh t
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6
Q

Red flags in development

A
Lost developmental milestones
Not able to hold an object at 5 months
Not sitting unsupported at 12 months
Not standing independently at 18 months
Not walking independently at 2 years
Not running at 2.5 years
No words at 18 months
No interest in others at 18 months
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7
Q

What is global developmental delay?

A

a child displaying slow development in all developmental domains

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8
Q

causes of global developmental delay

A
Down’s syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome
Rett syndrome
Metabolic disorders
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9
Q

Causes of developmental delay specifically to gross motor domain

A
Cerebral palsy
Ataxia
Myopathy
Spina bifida
Visual impairment
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10
Q

Causes of developmental delay specifically to fine motor domain

A
Dyspraxia
Cerebral palsy
Muscular dystrophy
Visual impairment
Congenital ataxia (rare)
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11
Q

Causes of developmental delay specifically to language domain

A
Specific social circumstances, for example exposure to multiple languages or siblings that do all the talking
Hearing impairment
Learning disability
Neglect
Autism
Cerebral palsy
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12
Q

Causes of developmental delay specially to language domain

A

Emotional and social neglect
Parenting issues
Autism

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13
Q

Causes of joint swelling in children

A
Avascular necrosis (e.g. perthes)
Reactive (viral, strep, post gastroenteritis)
Haematological (leukaemia)
Rickets 
Idiopathic
Tumour
Infection 
Systemic (SLE, vasculitis, sarcoidosis, IBD CF)
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)
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14
Q

What is anaemia?

A

low level of haemoglobin in the blood.

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15
Q

What is the most common cause of anaemia in children?

A

Physiologic anaemia of infancy

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16
Q

causes of anaemia in children

A
Physiologic anaemia of infancy
anaemia of prematurity 
Blood loss
Haemolysis
Twin-twin transfusion (blood is unequally distributed between twins that share a placenta)
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17
Q

Causes of Haemolysis in neonates

A

Haemolytic disease of the newborn (ABO incompatibility or rhesus incompatibility)

Hereditary spherocytosis

G6PD deficiency

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18
Q

What is physiologic anaemia of infancy?

A

There’s a normal dip in Hb at 6-9 weeks old
There’s high Hb levels at birth, so lots of oxygen delivered to tissues. This causes negative feedback to the kidneys so less erythropoietin is produced = less Hb produced by bone marrow

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19
Q

What is anaemia of prematurity?

A

Premature neonates more likely to become anaemic & required blood transfusion

Reasons for this:
1 Less time in utero receiving iron from mum
2 RBC creation cannot keep up with rapid growth
3 Reduced erythropoietin levels
4 Blood tests remove significant portion of their circulating volume

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20
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Haemolysis (RBC breakdown) and jaundice in a neonate. Caused by rhesus incompatibility or ABO incompatibility

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21
Q

What happens in rhesus incompatibility?

A

The mum is rhesus D antigen negative and the baby is positive
The blood from the Cetus enters the mums bloodstream and she makes antibodies to rhesus D antigen
Mum is then sensitised to rhesus D antigens
Doesn’t usually cause problems in the first pregnancy - unless sensitisation happens early on due to antepartum haemorrhage
In subsequent pregnancies, the anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta to the foetus
If the foetus is rhesus +ve, the antibodies attach to RBCs and the fetus attacks its own blood cells = Haemolysis
Causes anaemia and high bilirubin

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22
Q

What ix to diagnose immune haemolytic anaemia in a newborn

A

Direct Coombs test (DCT)

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23
Q

Causes of anaemia in older children

A

Iron deficiency anaemia due to dietary insufficiency
Blood loss - menstruation in older girls or hookworm in developing countries

Rarer causes:
Sickle cell anaemia
Thalassaemia
Leukaemia
Hereditary spherocytosis
Hereditary eliptocytosis
Sideroblastic anaemia
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24
Q

Symptoms of anaemia

A
Tiredness
Shortness of breath
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions
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25
Q

specific symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Pica = describes dietary cravings for abnormal things such as dirt

Hair loss

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26
Q

signs of anaemia

A

Pale skin
Conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Raised respiratory rate

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27
Q

signs of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Koilonychia refers to spoon shaped nails

Angular chelitis

Atrophic glossitis is a smooth tongue due to atrophy of the papillae

Brittle hair and nails can indicate

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28
Q

signs of haemolytic anaemia

A

jaundice

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29
Q

signs of thalassaemia

A

bone deformities

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30
Q

Ix for anaemia in children

A

Full blood count for haemoglobin and MCV
Blood film
Reticulocyte count - immature RBCs. High when there’s active production of RBCs to replace what’s lost e.g. in Haemolysis or blood loss
Ferritin (low iron deficiency)
B12 and folate
Bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
Direct Coombs test (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia)
Haemoglobin electrophoresis (haemoglobinopathies)

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31
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening medical emergency.

It is caused by a severe type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) stimulates mast cells to rapidly release histamine and other pro-inflammatory chemicals. This is called mast cell degranulation.

This causes a rapid onset of symptoms, with airway, breathing and/or circulation compromise.

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32
Q

Presentation of anaphylaxis in children

A
Urticaria
Itching
Angio-oedema, with swelling around lips and eyes
Abdominal pain
Shortness of breath
Wheeze
Swelling of the larynx, causing stridor
Tachycardia
Lightheadedness
Collapse
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33
Q

Mx of anaphylaxis in children

A
call for help - need paediatrician 
ABCDE approach
a - secure airway
b - oxygen, salbutamol if wheezing 
c - IV bolus of fluids
d - lie flat for cerebral perfusion
e - look for flushing, urticaria and angio-oedema

Definitive mx:

  • IM adrenaline (repeat after 5 mins if needed)
  • Antihistamines - chlorphenamine or cetirizine
  • Steroids - IV hydrocortisone

Keep in for observation - think biphasic reaction
Do serum mast cell tryptase within 6 hours
Education and follow up for family
BLS for parents
Adrenalin auto-injector to take home

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34
Q

What is a biphasic reaction in anaphylaxis?

A

a second anaphylactic reaction after successful treatment of the first

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35
Q

What blood test in anaphylaxis to confirm diagnosis?

A

Anaphylaxis can be confirmed by measuring the serum mast cell tryptase within 6 hours of the event.

Tryptase is released during mast cell degranulation and stays in the blood for 6 hours before gradually disappearing.

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36
Q

Who gets an adrenalin auto injector?

A

all children and adolescents with anaphylactic reactions.

considered in children with generalised allergic reactions (without anaphylaxis) with certain risk factors:

  • Asthma requiring inhaled steroids
  • Poor access to medical treatment (e.g. rural locations)
  • Adolescents, who are at higher risk
  • Nut or insect sting allergies are higher risk
  • Significant co-morbidities, such as cardiovascular disease
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37
Q

What is an acute exacerbation of asthma?

A

a rapid deterioration in the symptoms of asthma. This could be triggered by any of the typical asthma triggers, such as infection, exercise or cold weather.

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38
Q

Symptoms of acute asthma exacerbation

A

Progressively worsening SOB
Signs of respiratory distress
Fast respiratory rate (tachypnoea)
Expiratory wheeze on auscultation heard throughout the chest
The chest can sound “tight” on auscultation, with reduced air entry
A silent chest is an ominous sign.

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39
Q

How is an acute asthma attack graded for severity?

A

Moderate
Severe
Life threatening

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40
Q

What means an acute asthma attack is classified as moderate?

A

Peak flow >50% predicted

Normal speech

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41
Q

What means an acute asthma attack is classified as severe?

A

Peak flow 33-50% predicted
Saturations <92%
Unable to complete sentences in one breath
Signs of respiratory distress
Respiratory rate >40 in 1-5yo or >30 in over 5 yo
HR >140 in 1-5 yo or >125 in over 5 yo

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42
Q

What means an acute asthma attack is classified as life threatening?

A
Peak flow <33% predicted
Saturations <92%
Exhaustion and poor respiratory effort
Hypotension
Silent chest
Cyanosis
Altered consciousness/confusion
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43
Q

Mx of acute asthma attack

A

O2
Bronchodilators - salbutamol inhaled/neb, ipratropium inhaled/neb, magnesium sulphate IV, aminophylline IV
Steroids - oral prednisolone or IV hydrocortisone
ABx
Intubation and ICU

Monitor K+ when using high doses of salbutamol

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44
Q

When can you discharge a child with asthma after an acute exacerbation?

A

when they are having 6 puffs of salbutamol every 4 hours - prescribe a reducing regime of salbutamol for home

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45
Q

Discharge mx plan for children after acute asthma exacerbation

A

Reducing regime of salbutamol inhaler
Finish steroid course
Safety net
Asthma action plan

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46
Q

What is asthma?

A

a chronic inflammatory airway disease leading to variable airway obstruction.

1) The smooth muscle in the airways is hypersensitive.
2) The smooth muscle responds to stimuli by constricting and causing airflow obstruction.
3) This bronchoconstriction is reversible with bronchodilators such as inhaled salbutamol.

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47
Q

Symptoms of chronic asthma

A

Episodic symptoms with intermittent exacerbations
Diurnal variability, typically worse at night and early morning
Dry cough with wheeze and shortness of breath
Typical triggers
A history of other atopic conditions such as eczema, hayfever and food allergies
Family history of asthma or atopy
Bilateral widespread “polyphonic” wheeze heard by a healthcare professional
Symptoms improve with bronchodilators

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48
Q

Triggers for asthma

A
Dust (house dust mites)
Animals
Cold air
Exercise
Smoke
Food allergens (e.g. peanuts, shellfish or eggs)
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49
Q

When are children diagnosed with asthma

A

Not diagnosed until at least 2-3 years old

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50
Q

Ix for asthma

A

Spirometry with reversibility testing (in children aged over 5 years)

Direct bronchial challenge test with histamine or methacholine

Fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO)

Peak flow variability measured by keeping a diary of peak flow measurements several times a day for 2 to 4 weeks

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51
Q

Medical therapy for chronic asthma in children under 5 years old

A
  1. SABA - salbutamol
    • low dose ICS / montelukast
    • other option from 2
  2. refer to specialist
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52
Q

Medical therapy for chronic asthma in children aged 5-12 years

A
  1. SABA - salbutamol
    • low dose ICS
    • LABA - salmeterol
  2. increase ICS to medium dose. consider adding oral montelukast or oral theophylline
  3. increase ICS to high dose
  4. refer to specialist
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53
Q

Medical therapy for chronic asthma in children aged over 12 years

A

same as adults

  1. SABA - salbutamol
    • low dose ICS
    • LABA
  2. Increased ICS to medium dose. consider Adding oral montelukast, oral theophylline or LAMA (tiotropium)
  3. Increased ICS to high dose and combine additional treatments from step 4
  4. Oral steroids at lowest possible dose and refer to specialist
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54
Q

Use of inhaled corticosteroids in children

A

inhaled steroids can slightly reduce growth velocity and can cause a small reduction in final adult height of up to 1cm when used long term (for more than 12 months)

Is dose dependent

Poorly controlled asthma can lead to a more significant impact on growth and development.

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55
Q

What is eczema?

A

chronic atopic condition caused by defects in the normal continuity of the skin barrier, leading to inflammation in the skin

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56
Q

Risk factors for eczema

A

family hx

atopy

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57
Q

Symptoms of eczema

A

Presents in infancy
Dry red itchy sore patches of skin over flexor surfaces (inside elbows and knees) and one face/neck

Flares
Can range from mild to severe

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58
Q

Pathology of eczema

A

Defects in the skin barrier
Gaps in skin barrier allow for entrance of irritants, microbes and allergens that create an immune response = inflammation

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59
Q

Mx of eczema

A

Maintenance and flare management

Maintenance =

  1. Emollients
  2. Soap substitutes
  3. lifestyle - use emollients often, after washing and before bed. Avoid things that break down skin barrier e.g. hot baths, scratching or scrubbing skin. Don’t use soaps and body washes.
  4. avoid environmental triggers - changes in temp, dietary products, washing powders, cleaning products and emotional stress

Flares

  1. thicker emollients
  2. topical steroids
  3. wet wraps
  4. treat bacterial/viral infections
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60
Q

specialist treatments for severe eczema

A
  • zinc impregnanted bandages
  • topical tacrolimus
  • phototherapy
  • systemic immunosuppressants
  • oral corticosteroids
  • methotrexate
  • azathioprine
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61
Q

Examples of thin creams used as emollients in eczema

A
E45
Dirpobase cream
Oilatum cream
Aveeno cream
Cetraben cream
Epaderm cream
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62
Q

Examples of thick greasy emollients used in severe eczema

A
50:50 ointment (50% liquid paraffin)
Hydromol ointment
Diprobase ointment
Cetraben ointment
Epaderm ointment
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63
Q

Name the steroids in the steroid ladder from weakest to most potent

A

(Hug Every Budding Dermatologist)

Mild: Hydrocortisone 0.5%, 1% and 2.5%

Moderate: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%)

Potent: Betnovate (betamethasone 0.1%)

Very potent: Dermovate (clobetasol propionate 0.05%)

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64
Q

Side effects of topical steroids

A

Thinning of the skin

Skin more prone to flares, bruising, tearing, stretch marks and telangiectasia

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65
Q

Most common organism to cause opportunistic bacterial infection in eczema

A

staphylococcus aureus (mx = flucloxacillin)

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66
Q

What is eczema herpeticum?

A

viral skin infection in patients with eczema caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV). Patients can be very unwell.

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67
Q

Presentation of eczema herpeticum

A
Eczema + Widespread painful vesicular rash 
Vesicles contain pus 
Fever
Lethargy 
Irritability 
Reduced oral intake 
Lymphadenopathy
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68
Q

Ix for eczema herpeticum

A

Viral swabs/clinical diagnosis

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69
Q

Mx for eczema herpeticum

A

Acyclovir (may need to be IV)

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70
Q

What is ADHD?

A

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is at the extreme end of “hyperactivity” and inability to concentrate (“attention deficit“).

It affects the person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks, develop normal skills and perform well in school.

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71
Q

Symptoms of ADHD

A

symptoms must be persistent, across various settings and negatively affecting the child

Very short attention span
Quickly moving from one activity to another
Quickly losing interest in a task and not being able to persist with challenging tasks
Constantly moving or fidgeting
Impulsive behaviour
Disruptive or rule breaking

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72
Q

mx of ADHD

A
  • parent and child education
  • Healthy diet and exercise
  • 10 week watch and wait period
  • medication (last resort and must be >5yo): central nervous system stimulants e.g. methylphenidate (Ritalin), lisdexamfetamine, dexamfetamine, atomoxetine
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73
Q

Diagnosis of ADHA

A

Persistent features - 6+ in children under 16yo and 5+ in children over 17 yo

Must be an element of developmental delay

INATTENTION features:

  • Doesn’t follow through on instructions
  • Reluctance to engage in mentally intense tasks
  • Easily distracted
  • finds it difficult to sustain tasks
  • finds it difficult to organise tasks or activities
  • often forgetful in daily activities
  • often loses things necessary for tasks or activities
  • often doesn’t seem to listen when spoken to directly

HYPERACTIVITY/IMPULSIVITY features:

  • Unable to play quietly
  • Talks excessively
  • Doesn’t wait their turn easily
  • Spontaneously leaves their seat
  • Is often ‘on the go’
  • Often interrupts or intrusive
  • Will answer prematurely - before a question has been finished
  • Will run and climb when its not appropriate
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74
Q

Side effects of methylphenidate

A

Abdominal pain
Nausea
Dyspepsia

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75
Q

Monitoring for methylphenidate

A
Weight and height every 6 months 
Baseline ECG (its cardio toxic)
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76
Q

What is autistic spectrum disorder?

A

Neuro-developmental disorder
the full range of people affected by a deficit in social interaction, communication and flexible behaviour.

The autistic spectrum has a significant range. On one end patients have normal intelligence and ability to function in everyday life but displaying difficulties with reading emotions and responding to others. This was previously known as Asperger syndrome. On the other end, patients can be severely affected and unable to function in normal environments.

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77
Q

Features of autistic spectrum disorder

A

Deficits in social interaction, communication and behaviour:

SOCIAL INTERACTION - 
Lack of eye contact
Delay in smiling
Avoids physical contact
Unable to read non-verbal cues
Difficulty establishing friendships
Not displaying a desire to share attention (i.e. not playing with others)

COMMUNICATION -
Delay, absence or regression in language development
Lack of appropriate non-verbal communication such as smiling, eye contact, responding to others and sharing interest
Difficulty with imaginative or imitative behaviour
Repetitive use of words or phrases

BEHAVIOUR -
Greater interest in objects, numbers or patterns than people
Stereotypical repetitive movements. There may be self-stimulating movements that are used to comfort themselves, such as hand-flapping or rocking.
Intensive and deep interests that are persistent and rigid
Repetitive behaviour and fixed routines
Anxiety and distress with experiences outside their normal routine
Extremely restricted food preferences

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78
Q

diagnosis of autistic spectrum disorder

A

Should be made by a specialist
Diagnosis can be made before the age of 3
Detailed history of the child’s behaviour and communication
Assessment in school

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79
Q

Mx of autistic spectrum disorder

A

MDT:
Child psychology and child and adolescent psychiatry (CAMHS)
Speech and language specialists
Dietician
Paediatrician
Social workers
Specially trained educators and special school environments
Charities such as the national autistic society

Early educational and behavioural interventions

SSRIs - for repetitive stereotyped behaviour, anxiety and aggression
Antipsychotic drugs - for aggression and self injury
Methylphenidate - for ADHD

family support and counselling

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80
Q

Conditions associated with autism spectrum disorder

A

ADHD
Epilepsy
Higher head circumference to brain volume ratio

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81
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

a congenital condition where a section of the bile duct is either narrowed or absent. This results in cholestasis (bile isn’t transported from the liver to bowel).

Conjugated bilirubin is usually excreted in the bile therefore biliary atresia prevents the excretion of conjugated bilirubin

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82
Q

Presentation of biliary atresia

A

Significant jaundice shortly after birth (high conjugated bilirubin levels)

Persistent jaundice (>14 days in term babies and >21 days in premature babies)

Dark urine and pale stools
Apetite and growth disturbance
Hepatomegaly & splenomegaly

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83
Q

Ix for biliary atresia

A

Conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin - high proportion of conjugated bilirubin

US of biliary tree and liver

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84
Q

Mx of biliary atresia

A

Surgery = kasai portoenterostomy

attach section of small intestine to opening of liver where bile duct normally attaches

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85
Q

causes of biliary atresia

A
pathogenesis is unclear, is a congenital illness
contributing factors =
- infection
- congenital malformations
- retained toxins within bile
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86
Q

Who gets biliary atresia

A

More common in females

Ssen in neonates

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87
Q

Complications of Kasai portoenterostomy for biliary atresia

A

Unsuccessful anastomosis
Progressive liver disease
Cirrhosis with eventual hepatocellular carcinoma

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88
Q

Prognosis of biliary atresia

A
  • Prognosis good if surgery successful

- Unsuccessful surgery = liver transplant in first 2 years of life

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89
Q

Paediatric BLS guidelines for arrest

A
Unresponsive child?
Call for help
Open airway
If not breathing:
- 5 rescue breaths 
- Check for signs of circulation - in infants use brachial or femoral pulse and in children use femoral pulse 
- Chest compressions - 15 compressions: 2 breaths 
- Attach ECG monitor/defibrillator
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90
Q

Rules for chest compressions in children

A

Chest compressions should be 100-120 /min
Depth of compression = 4cm in infant and 5cm in child (depresses the lower half of the sternum by at least 1/3rd)

In children compress the lower half of the sternum
In infants use a two thumb encircling technique for chest compression

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91
Q

What is the APGAR score?

A

Measured out of 10
Used to assess the health of a newborn baby
0-3 low score, 4-6 moderate low, 7-10 normal baby

1) Appearance - 0 blue/pale, 1 blue extremities and 2 pink
2) Pulse - 0 absent, 1 <100 and 2 >100
3) Grimace (response to stimulation) - 0 no response, 1 little response, 2 good response
4) Activity (muscle tone) - 0 floppy, 1 flexed arms/legs, 2 active
5) Respiration - 0 absent, 1 slow/irregular, 2 strong/crying

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92
Q

What are the 3 scenarios in which IV fluids are prescribed for children?

A

1) Resuscitation fluids - if the child is shocked/haemodynamically compromised
2) Replacement fluids - if the child is dehydrated and is in a fluid deficit e.g. from vomiting/diarrhoea/DKA/burns
3) Maintenance fluids - if there’s no dehydration but the child can’t meet their fluid requirements enterally

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93
Q

What monitoring should be done for children receiving IV fluids?

A

Monitor U&Es and plasma glucose every 24 hours at least

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94
Q

Signs of dehydration in children

A
  • Appears unwell
  • Altered responsiveness
  • Sunken eyes
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnoea
  • Reduced skin turgor
  • Dry mucous membranes
  • Decreased urine output
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95
Q

How to calculate routine maintenance fluids for children >28 days old

A

100ml/kg/day for first 10kg of weight
50ml/kg/day for next 10kg of weight
20ml/kg/day for weight over 20kg

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96
Q

Name of formula used to calculate maintenance fluids for children >28 days old

A

Holliday-Segar formula

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97
Q

Choice of maintenance fluids for children >28 days old

A

Isotonic crystalloids (0.9% NaCl) + 5% glucose

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98
Q

How to calculate maintenance fluids for term neonates (<28 days old)

A

Birth to day 1 = 50-60ml/kg/day

Day 2 = 70-80ml/kg/day

Day 3 = 80-100 ml/kg/day

Day 4 = 100-120 ml/kg/day

Day 5-28 = 120-150 ml/kg/day

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99
Q

How to calculate fluid deficit

A

Calculate the percentage dehydration:

  • 5% dehydrated if signs of dehydration but no red flags
  • 10% dehydrated if signs of shock
  • Can use formula to calculate it accurately: (well weight - current weight) / well weight x100

Fluid deficit = % dehydration x weight (kg) x 10

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100
Q

How to calculate replacement fluids

A

Maintenance fluids + fluid deficit

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101
Q

Resuscitation fluid calculation for children AND WHEN TO USE A SMALLER BOLUS

A

0.9% NaCl 10ml/kg bolus over <10 mins

Use smaller bolus if:

  • Neonatal period
  • DKA
  • Septic chock
  • Trauma
  • Cardiac pathology
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102
Q

What are the Fraser Guidelines?

A

Used to assess if a patient who is younger than 16 is competent to consent to treatment, for example contraception

Need to fulfil following:

  • Understand the professionals advice
  • Cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or allow the professional to contact the parents on their behalf
  • They are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptives
  • Unless they receive contraceptives, their physical or mental health is likely to suffer
  • The young persons best interests requires them to receive contraceptive advice or tx without parental consent
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103
Q

What are the types of constipation seen in children?

A

Idiopathic/functional constipation = no underlying cause

Secondary constipation

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104
Q

causes of secondary constipation in children?

A
Hirschsprungs
Cystic fibrosis
Hypothyroidism 
Spinal cord lesions
Sexual abuse
Intestinal obstruction
Anal stenosis
Cows milk intolerance
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105
Q

Symptoms of constipation

A

Breast fed babies can open their bowels as little as once per week

Less than 3 stools a week
Hard stools that are difficult to pass
Rabbit dropping stools
Straining and painful passages of stools
Abdominal pain
Holding an abnormal posture, referred to as retentive posturing
Rectal bleeding associated with hard stools
Faecal impaction causing overflow soiling, with incontinence of particularly loose smelly stools
Hard stools may be palpable in abdomen
Loss of the sensation of the need to open the bowels

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106
Q

what is encopresis?

A

Faecal incontinence
Not pathological until 4 yo
Sign of chronic constipation - rectum becomes stretched and loses sensation

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107
Q

Causes of encopresis

A
Chronic constipation
Spina bifida
Hirschprung’s disease
Cerebral palsy
Learning disability
Psychosocial stress
Abuse
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108
Q

Lifestyle factors that contribute to constipation

A
Habitually not opening the bowels
Low fibre diet
Poor fluid intake and dehydration
Sedentary lifestyle
Psychosocial problems such as a difficult home or school environment (always keep safeguarding in mind)
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109
Q

Red flags in constipation hx that should prompt further ix

A

Not passing meconium within 48 hours of birth (cystic fibrosis or Hirschsprung’s disease)
Neurological signs or symptoms, particularly in the lower limbs (cerebral palsy or spinal cord lesion)
Vomiting (intestinal obstruction or Hirschsprung’s disease)
Ribbon stool (anal stenosis)
Abnormal anus (anal stenosis, inflammatory bowel disease or sexual abuse)
Abnormal lower back or buttocks (spina bifida, spinal cord lesion or sacral agenesis)
Failure to thrive (coeliac disease, hypothyroidism or safeguarding)
Acute severe abdominal pain and bloating (obstruction or intussusception)

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110
Q

mx of idiopathic constipation

A

correct reversible factors
high fibre diet
good hydration
start laxatives - movicol
faecal impaction = disimpaction regime with high dose of laxatives at first
praise after visiting toilet, schedule toilet visits, bowel diary and star charts

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111
Q

What is hirschsprung’s disease

A

a congenital condition where nerve cells of the myenteric plexus (Auerbach’s plexus) are absent in the distant bowel and rectum.

Auerbach’s plexus is responsible for stimulating peristalsis of the large bowel -without it the bowel loses its motility and stops being able to pass food along its length

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112
Q

Pathophysiology of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the Auerbach’s plexus at the distal colon and rectum

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113
Q

What is it called when the entire colon is affected by Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Total colonic aganglionosis

The aganglionic section of the colon doesn’t relax = it becomes constricted - loss of movement of faeces and obstruction of bowel

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114
Q

Risk factors for hirschsprungs disease

A
Family hx 
downs syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Waardenburg syndrome - pale blue eyes, hearing loss, and patches of white skin and hair 
Multiple endocrine neoplasia type II
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115
Q

Presentation of hirschsprungs disease

A
acute intestinal obstruction after birth 
delay in passing meconium (>24 hrs)
chronic constipation since birth 
abdominal pain and distention 
vomiting 
poor weight gain and failure to thrive
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116
Q

What is an important complication of hirschsprungs disease?

A

Hirschsprung associated enterocolitis

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117
Q

What is Hirschsprung associated enterocolitis?

A

Inflammation and obstruction of the intestine occurring in around 20% of neonates with hirschsprungs disease

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118
Q

presentation of Hirschsprung associated enterocolitis

A
2-4 weeks old
fever
abdominal distention 
diarrhoea (often bloody)
features of sepsis 
can lead to toxic megacolon and perforation of the bowel
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119
Q

tx for Hirschsprung associated enterocolitis

A

abx
fluid resuscitation
decompression of the obstructed bowel

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120
Q

ix for hirschsprungs disease

A

abdominal xray - look for intestinal obstruction and HAEC

Rectal biopsy - for diagnosis. Absence of ganglionic cells on histology

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121
Q

Mx of hirschsprungs disease

A

surgical removal of ganglionic section of bowel

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122
Q

What is croup?

A

acute infective respiratory disease affecting young children.

URTI causing oedema in the larynx = stridor

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123
Q

What age group is croup most common in?

A

6 months to 2 years (can be in older children)

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124
Q

Causes of croup

A

PARAINFLUENZA VIRUS
influenza
adenovirus
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

diphtheria - leads to epiglottitis

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125
Q

Presentation of croup

A
Increased work of breathing
“Barking” cough, occurring in clusters of coughing episodes - worse at night 
Hoarse voice
Stridor
Low grade fever
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126
Q

Mx of croup

A
Oral dexamethasone - single dose for all children regardless of severity (can give prednisolone alternatively)
Oxygen
Nebulised budesonide
Nebulised adrenalin
Intubation and ventilation

Very responsive to steroids
children can be cared for at home

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127
Q

When is croup most common

A

more common in autumn

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128
Q

How can croup be classified based on severity?

A

Mild
Moderate
Severe

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129
Q

What is mild croup?

A

Occasional barking cough
No audible stridor at rest
No or mild suprasternal +/- intercostal recessions
Child is happy and eating/playing

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130
Q

What is moderate croup?

A
Frequent barking cough
Easily audible stridor at rest
suprasternal and sternal wall retraction at rest
no or little distress/agitation 
child can be placated
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131
Q

what is severe croup?

A
frequent barking cough
prominent inspiratory stridor at rest 
marked sternal wall retractions
significant distress and agitation or lethargy 
tachycardia
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132
Q

When should you admit a child with croup?

A
if its moderate or severe 
or:
- <6 months old
- known upper airway abnormalities 
- uncertain about diagnosis
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133
Q

ix for croup

A

clinical diagnosis

CXR - PA view shows steeple sign (subglottilc narrowing) and lateral view shows thumb sign (epiglottis swelling)

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134
Q

signs of croup on CXR

A

a posterior-anterior view will show subglottic narrowing, commonly called the ‘steeple sign’

a lateral view in acute epiglottis will show swelling of the epiglottis - the ‘thumb sign’

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135
Q

What is DKA?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis
Medical emergency
Common way that children with new diagnosis of T1DM present

There is extreme hyperglycaemic ketosis, resulting in metabolic acidosis

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136
Q

Pathogenesis of DKA

A

1) ketoacidosis - ketogenesis occurs (fatty acids converted to ketones when there’s insufficient glucose & glycogen stores). Kidneys initially produce bicarb to buffer ketone acids, then can’t compensate = ketoacidosis
2) Dehydration - hyperglycaemia overwhelms the kidneys & glucose is filtered into the urine. Glucose draws water out with it = osmotic diuresis = polyuria = dehydration = polydipsia
3) Potassium imbalance = insulin drives K into cells = hyperkalaemia. Total body K is low as no K is stored in cells. When tx with insulin starts = severe hypokalaemia as K is drawn into cells = arrhythmias

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137
Q

Serious complication of DKA in children

A

cerebral oedema.

Dehydration & hyperglycaemia = water moves from intracellular to extracellular space in the brain so cells are dehydrated and shrink.

When dehydration & hyperglycaemia is corrected rapidly = rapid shift of water intracellularly in the brain = brain cells swell & brain becomes oedematous

Monitor GCS in children with DKA

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138
Q

Signs to monitor for cerebral oedema in DKA

A

headaches
altered behaviour
bradycardia
changes to consciousness

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139
Q

mx of cerebral oedema in DKA

A

slow IV fluids
IV mannitol
IV hypertonic saline

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140
Q

Presentation of DKA

A
Polyuria
Polydipsia
Nausea and vomiting
Weight loss
Acetone smell to their breath
Dehydration and subsequent hypotension
Altered consciousness
Symptoms of an underlying trigger (i.e. sepsis)
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141
Q

Diagnosis of DKA

A
Hyperglycaemia = BM >11
Ketosis = blood ketones >3
Acidosis = ph <7.3
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142
Q

DKA management in children

A
  1. Correct dehydration over 48 hrs
  2. Fixed rate insulin infusion
  3. Avoid fluid boluses
  4. Treat underlying triggers
  5. Prevent hypoglycaemia with IV dextrose once BM <14
    • K to IV fluids and monitor serum K
  6. Monitor for signs of cerebral oedema
  7. Monitor glucose, ketones and pH
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143
Q

What is T1DM?

A

a disease where the pancreas stops being able to produce insulin. What causes the pancreas to stop producing insulin is unclear.

When the pancreas is not producing insulin, the cells of the body cannot take glucose from the blood and use it for fuel. The cells cannot use glucose, so the level of glucose in the blood keeps rising, causing hyperglycaemia.

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144
Q

What is the normal range for BMs

A

4.4 to 6.1

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145
Q

Presentation of T1DM

A

25-50% of new T1DM children present in DKA

Polyuria
Polydipsia
Weight loss

Secondary enuresis
Recurrent infections

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146
Q

Ix for new presentation of T1DM

A
FBC
U&E
Lab glucose
Blood cultures 
HbA1C
TFTs
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPO for autoimmune thyroid disease)
anti-TTG (coeliacs)
Insulin antibodies, anti-GAD antibodies and islet cell antibodies (antibodies associated with T1DM)
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147
Q

Mx of T1DM in children

A
  1. Patient and family education
  2. Subcut insulin regime
  3. Monitor dietary carbohydrate intake
  4. Monitor BMs - waking, at each meal and before bed
  5. Monitoring and mx for complications
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148
Q

short term complications of T1DM

A

Hypoglycaemia

Hyperglycaemia and DKA

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149
Q

Causes of hypoglycaemia in T1DM

A
Too much insulin 
Not enough carbs
Malabsorption
Diarrhoea
vomiting
sepsis
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150
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycaemia in T1DM

A
Hunger
tremor
sweating
irritability
dizziness
pallor
reduced consciousness
coma
death
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151
Q

mx of hypoglycaemia in T1DM

A

rapid acting glucose - lucozade
slower acting carb - biscuit or toast
IV 10% dextrose
IM glucagon

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152
Q

Long term complications of T1DM

A

Macrovascular complications:

  • CAD
  • Stroke
  • HTN

Microvascular complications

  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Retinopathy
  • Glomerulosclerosis

Infection related complications

  • UTI
  • Pneumonia
  • Skin and soft tissue infections particularly in feet
  • Cadidiasis
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153
Q

Monitoring of T1DM

A

HbA1C
Capillary blood glucose
Flash glucose monitoring (5 minute lag behind BM)

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154
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation?

A

an acquired syndrome characterised by activation of coagulation pathways, resulting in formation of intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors

Tendency for both bleeding and thrombosis simultaneously

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155
Q

Triggers for DIC

A
  • Infection (sepsis)
  • Malignancy
  • Severe burns
  • Trauma
  • Shock
  • Obstetric emergencies
  • Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction
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156
Q

Pathophysiology of DIC

A

Activation of the coagulation cascade intravascularly
Causes microvascular thrombosis
Small thrombi can lead to multi-organ failure
At the same time, widespread activation of coagulation leads to reduction in the concentration of circulating coagulation factors = consumptive coagulopathy = risk of bleeding increases = thrombocytopenia

Simultaneous bleeding and thrombosis

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157
Q

Clinical features of DIC

A
  • Evidence of precipitating factor
  • bleeding from unusual sites: ears, nose, GI, GU, Respiratory, venipuncture site (bleeding from 3 unrelated sites = highly suggestive)
  • Widespread unexpected bruising
  • new confusion or disorientation
  • petechiae or purpura
  • Lived reticularis - mottled lace like patterning of the skin
  • Purpura fulminans: widespread skin necrosis
  • Localised infarction and gangrene (e.g. of fingers)
  • Oliguria, hypotension or tachycardia
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158
Q

Ix for DIC

A

ISTH scoring system

  • platelet count low
  • d dimer. raised
  • PTT prolonged
  • fibrinogen levels decreased
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159
Q

mx of DIC

A

treat underlying cause

platelet transfusion if bleeding
concentrated solutions of clotting factors
cryoprecipitate or fibrinogen concentrate for low fibrinogen

If thrombosis is prominent factor - LMWH - unfractionated heparin has shorter 1/2 life so good for this

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160
Q

complications of DIC

A
multi organ failure
life threatening haemorrhage
cardiac tamponade (becks triad)
Haemothorax 
Intracranial haemorrhage
Gangrene and loss of digits
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161
Q

What is the genetic abnormality in downs syndrome?

A

3 copies of chromosome 21 = trisomy 21

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162
Q

What dysmorphic features are seen in downs syndrome?

A
Hypotonia (reduced muscle tone)
Brachycephaly (small head with a flat back)
Short neck
Short stature
Flattened face and nose
Prominent epicanthic folds
Upward sloping palpebral fissures (gap between upper and lower eyelid)
Single palmar crease
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163
Q

complications of downs syndrome

A

Learning disability
Recurrent otitis media
Deafness. Eustachian tube abnormalities lead to glue ear and conductive hearing loss.
Visual problems such myopia, strabismus and cataracts
Hypothyroidism occurs in 10 – 20%
Cardiac defects affect 1 in 3, particularly ASD, VSD, patent ductus arteriosus and tetralogy of Fallot
Atlantoaxial instability
Leukaemia is more common in children with Down’s
Dementia is more common in adults with Down’s
Duodenal atresia
sub fertility

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164
Q

When is antenatal screening done for downs syndrome?

A

offered to all women - they can refuse

combined test is done between 11 and 14 weeks

triple test/quadruple test (just maternal blood tests) done between 14 and 20 weeks

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165
Q

What is involved in the combined screening test for downs syndrome?

A

USS - measure nuchal translucency (>6mm = downs)

Maternal blood tests - beta-HCG increased and pregnancy associated plasma protein A (PAPPA) is low

+ mothers age

Done at 11-14 weeks

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166
Q

What is involved in the triple test for downs syndrome screening?

A

b-HCG (increased)
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (low)
Serum estriol (low)

Done at 14-20 weeks

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167
Q

What is involved in the quadruple test for downs syndrome screening?

A

b-HCG (increased)
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) (low)
Serum estriol (low)
inhibin A (high)

Done at 14-20 weeks

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168
Q

When are women offered antenatal testing for downs syndrome?

A

If the risk of Downs syndrome is greater than 1 in 150, calculated by screening tests

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169
Q

How is antenatal testing for downs syndrome done?

A

Chorionic villus sampling - US guided biopsy of placental tissue (before 15 weeks)

Amniocentesis - US guided aspiration of amniotic fluid using a needle (done later in pregnancy)

non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) - maternal blood test to detect fetal DNA

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170
Q

Risks of amniocentesis

A

miscarriage - 1 in 200 women
infection in uterus
cramping, spotting or leaking amniotic fluid
rh problems

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171
Q

mx of downs syndrome

A

MDT management

Regular thyroid checks (2 yearly)
Echocardiogram to diagnose cardiac defects
Regular audiometry for hearing impairment
Regular eye checks

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172
Q

prognosis of downs syndrome

A

Prognosis varies depending on the severity of the associate complications. The average life expectancy is 60 years.

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173
Q

risks of chorionic villus sampling

A

cramping, bleeding or leaking of amniotic fluid
infection
miscarriage
preterm labour
limb defects in infants - if done before 9 weeks

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174
Q

PAPP-A in downs compared to Edwards and patau

A

PAPP-A is lower in Edwards and patau

PAPP-A = pregnancy associated plasma protein A

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175
Q

Risk factors for eating disorders

A

Associated with - personality disorders, OCD and anxiety

Female

Genetic component

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176
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A

the person feel they are overweight despite evidence of normal or low body weight. It involves obsessively restricting calorie intake with the intention of losing weight. Often the person exercises excessively and may use diet pills or laxatives to restrict absorption of food.

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177
Q

Symptoms of anorexia nervosa

A
Excessive weight loss
Amenorrhoea
Lanugo hair is fine, soft hair across most of the body
Hypokalaemia
Hypotension
Hypothermia
Changes in mood, anxiety and depression
Solitude
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178
Q

Cardiac complications associated with anorexia nervosa

A

Arrhythmias
Cardiac atrophy
Sudden cardiac death

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179
Q

What is bulimia nervosa?

A

Unlike with anorexia, people with bulimia often have a normal body weight. Their body weight tends to fluctuate. The condition involves binge eating, followed by “purging” by inducing vomiting or taking laxatives to prevent the calories being absorbed.

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180
Q

Symptoms of bulimia nervosa

A

Alkalosis, due to vomiting hydrochloric acid from the stomach
Hypokalaemia
Erosion of teeth
Swollen salivary glands
Mouth ulcers
Gastro-oesophageal reflux and irritation
Calluses on the knuckles where they have been scraped across the teeth = Russell’s sign.

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181
Q

What is binge eating disorder

A

Binge eating disorder is characterised by episodes where the person excessively overeats, often as an expression of underlying psychological distress. This is not a restrictive condition like anorexia or bulimia, and patients are likely to be overweight.

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182
Q

Symptoms of binge eating disorder

A
A planned binge involving “binge foods”
Eating very quickly
Unrelated to whether they are hungry or not
Becoming uncomfortably full
Eating in a “dazed state”
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183
Q

Mx of eating disorders

A
Self help resources
Counselling 
CBT
Admission in severe cases for observed refeeding and monitoring of refeeding syndrome
SSRI
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184
Q

What are the 3 electrolyte disturbances seen in refeeding syndrome?

A

Hypomagnesaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypophosphataemia

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185
Q

What is refeeding syndrome?

A

occurs in people that have been in a severe nutritional deficit for an extended period, when they start to eat again.

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186
Q

who is at risk of refeeding syndrome?

A

BMI <20
Little to eat for past 5 days
Long period of malnutrition

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187
Q

What are the complications of refeeding syndrome?

A

Cardiac arrhythmias
HF
Fluid overload

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188
Q

Pathology behind refeeding syndrome

A

Metabolism in cells/organs slows dramatically while malnourished
When food is introduced again, cells start to process glucose, protein and fats = uses up magnesium, potassium and phosphorus

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189
Q

Mx for refeeding syndrome

A

Slowly reintroduce food with restricted calories
Monitor magnesium, potassium and phosphate
Monitor glucose
Fluid balance monitoring
ECG monitoring
Supplementation with electrolytes, vitamins (especially B12 and thiamine)

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190
Q

what is epiglottitis?

A

Epiglottitis is inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis

haemophilus influenza type B

Can completely block airway in hours = life threatening emergency

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191
Q

who should you suspect epiglottitis in?

A

children who haven’t had their vaccines

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192
Q

presentation of epiglottitis

A
Patient presenting with a sore throat and stridor
Drooling
Tripod position, sat forward with a hand on each knee
High fever
Difficulty or painful swallowing
Muffled voice
Scared and quiet child
Septic and unwell appearance
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193
Q

Ix for epiglottitis

A

lateral xray neck = thumb print sign

don’t do if patient is acutely unwell

194
Q

mx for epiglottitis

A
don't distress the child
get senior paediatrician and anaesthetist 
secure airway if necessary 
IV ceftriaxone
Dexamethasone
195
Q

common complication of epiglottitis

A

epiglottic abscess

196
Q

Description of tonic clonic seizure

A
LOC
 tonic (muscle tensing) movements 
 clonic (muscle jerking) movements
Typically the tonic phase comes before the clonic phase.
tongue biting
incontinence
groaning
 irregular breathing
Post ictal period
197
Q

mx of tonic clonic seizures in children

A
1st = sodium valproate 
2nd = lamotrigine or carbamazepine
198
Q

description of focal seizures

A

start in temporal lobe
affects hearing speech memory and emotions

present with:

  • hallucinations
  • memory flashbacks
  • deja vu
  • strange behaviours
199
Q

mx of focal seizures in children

A

(reverse of mx for tonic clonic seizures)
1st = carbamazepine or lamotrigine
2nd = sodium valproate or levetiracetam

200
Q

description of absence seizures

A

typical in children
blank, stare into space then abruptly returns to normal
unaware during seizure
10-20 seconds
most patient grow out of absence seizures

201
Q

mx of absence seizures

A

1st = sodium valproate or ethosuximide

202
Q

description of atonic seizures

A

drop attacks
brief lapse in muscle tone
3 minutes in length
begin in childhood

203
Q

what syndrome is associated with atonic seizures?

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome.

204
Q

mx for atonic seizures

A
1st = sodium valproate
2nd = lamotrigine
205
Q

description of myoclonic seizures

A

sudden brief muscle contractions
sudden jump/shock like seizures
remains awake

206
Q

what syndrome is associated with myoclonic seizures?

A

juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (Janz syndrome)

207
Q

mx of myoclonic seizures

A
1st = sodium valproate
2nd = lamotrigine, levetiracetam or topiramate
208
Q

what are infantile spasms also known as?

A

West syndrome

209
Q

What is west syndrome/infantile spasms?

A

starts at 6 months old
clusters of full body spasms

  1. Flexion of head, trunk, limbs → extension of arms (Salaam attack); last 1-2 secs, repeat up to 50 times
  2. Progressive mental handicap
  3. EEG: hypsarrhythmia
210
Q

what is the prognosis for west syndrome?

A

1/3 die by 25 yo

1/3 seizure free

211
Q

mx for west syndrome/infantile spasms?

A

prednisolone

vigabatrin

212
Q

What are febrile convulsions?

A

Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in children whilst they have a fever.

They are not caused by epilepsy or other underlying neurological pathology (such as meningitis or tumours).

Occur between 6 months - 5 yo

213
Q

Ix for childhood epilepsy

A

EEG after 2nd tonic clonic seizure
MRI brain if under 2 yo, focal seizures or no response to 1st line anti epileptic

ECG
Blood electrolytes
Blood glucose
Blood cultures, urine cultures or lumbar puncture

214
Q

advice for family for child with epilepsy

A

showers instead of baths
cautious when swimming
cautious with heights
cautious with traffic

older teenagers - avoid alcohol

215
Q

when is sodium valproate used and what are the side effects

A

1st line for most forms of epilepsy apart from focal seizures

Teratogenic, so patients need careful advice about contraception
Liver damage and hepatitis
Hair loss
Tremor

216
Q

When is carbamazepine used and what are the side effects?

A

1st line for focal seizures

Agranulocytosis
Aplastic anaemia
Induces the P450 system so there are many drug interactions

217
Q

side effects of phenytoin

A
Folate and vitamin D deficiency
Megaloblastic anaemia (folate deficiency)
Osteomalacia (vitamin D deficiency)
218
Q

side effects of ethosuximide

A

Night terrors

Rashes

219
Q

Side effects of lamotrigine

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome or DRESS syndrome. These are life threatening skin rashes.
Leukopenia

220
Q

what is status epilepticus?

A

a seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or 2 or more seizures without regaining consciousness in the interim.

221
Q

mx of status epilepticus in hospital

A

ABCDE

Secure the airway
Give high-concentration oxygen
Assess cardiac and respiratory function
Check blood glucose levels
Gain intravenous access (insert a cannula)
IV lorazepam, repeated after 10 minutes if the seizure continues
IV phenobarbital/phenytoin infusion

222
Q

mx of status epilepticus in the community

A

Buccal midazolam

Rectal diazepam

223
Q

what is considered normal reflux in children?

A

normal for a baby to reflux feeds, and provided there is normal growth and the baby is otherwise well

90% of infants stop having reflux by one year old

224
Q

symptoms of problematic reflux in infants

A
Chronic cough
Hoarse cry
Distress, crying or unsettled after feeding
Reluctance to feed
Pneumonia
Poor weight gain
225
Q

causes of vomiting in babies

A
Overfeeding
Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Pyloric stenosis (projective vomiting)
Gastritis or gastroenteritis
Appendicitis
Infections such as UTI, tonsillitis or meningitis
Intestinal obstruction
Bulimia
226
Q

Red flags in vomiting children

A

Can’t keep down any feed = pyloric stenosis/intestinal obstruction

Projectile vomiting = pyloric stenosis/intestinal obstruction

Bile stained vomit = intestinal obstruction

Haematemesis / melaena = peptic ulcer / oesophagitis / varices

Abdominal distention = intestinal obstruction

Reduced LOC / bulging fontanelle / near signs = meningitis / raised ICP

Respiratory symptoms = aspiration / infection

Blood in stools = gastroenteritis / cows milk protein allergy

Signs of infection

Rash / angioedema / allergy = cows milk protein allergy

Apnoeas

227
Q

mx of simple reflux in infants

A

Small, frequent meals
Burping regularly to help milk settle
Not over-feeding
Keep the baby upright after feeding (i.e. not lying flat)

228
Q

mx of more severe reflux in infants

A

Gaviscon mixed with feeds
Thickened milk or formula (specific anti-reflux formulas are available)
Ranitidine
Omeprazole where ranitidine is inadequate

barium meal and endoscopy to ix
surgical fundoplication

229
Q

what is sandifer’s syndrome?

A

rare condition

brief episodes of abnormal movements associated with GORD in infants.
The infants are usually neurologically normal.

The key features are:

1) Torticollis: forceful contraction of the neck muscles causing twisting of the neck
2) Dystonia: abnormal muscle contractions causing twisting movements, arching of the back or unusual postures

Resolves as reflux is treated

230
Q

why should children with sandifer’s syndrome be referred to a paediatrician?

A

to rule out infantile spasms (west syndrome) and seizures

231
Q

What is Henoch-Schönlein purpura

A

an IgA vasculitis that presents with a purpuric rash affecting the lower limbs and buttocks in children.

232
Q

what is the pathology behind HSP?

A

Triggered by an URTI or gastroenteritis

leads to IgA deposits in blood vessels in affected organs

organs involved = skin, kidneys, GI tract

233
Q

who gets HSP?

A

children under 10 years old

234
Q

what are the 4 classic features of HSP?

A

Purpura (red purple rash, palpable under the skin, start on legs and spreads to buttocks)
Joint pain (knees and ankles)
Abdominal pain
Renal involvement

235
Q

complications of HSP

A

purpura can lead to skin ulceration and necrosis

abdominal pain can lead lead GI haemorrhage, intussusception & bowel infarction

IgA nephritis

236
Q

what happens to the kidneys in HSP and what are the symptoms/signs?

A

IgA nephritis

Macroscopic/microscopic haematuria & proteinuria

Nephrotic syndrome = haematuria, proteinuria and oedema

237
Q

Ix for HSP

A

Need to exclude meningococcal septicaemia and leukaemia

FBC & blood film 
Renal profile
Serum albumin (nephrotic syndrome)
CRP
Blood cultures
urine dipstick
Urine protein:creatinine ratio
BP
238
Q

Differentials for HSP

A

meningococcal septicaemia
leukaemia
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
haemolytic uraemic syndrome

239
Q

criteria for diagnosing HSP

A

Palpable purpura + one of:

  • diffuse abdo pain
  • arthritis / arthralgia
  • IgA deposits on histology (biopsy)
  • proteinuria / haematuria
240
Q

mx for HSP

A
simple analgesia
rest
hydration 
steroids 
monitor with urine dipstick and BP
241
Q

prognosis for HSP

A

abdo pain settles in days
no kidney involvement = recover in 4-6 weeks
1/3 have disease recurrence in 6 months
small chance of developing end stage renal failure

242
Q

what is congenital hypothyroidism?

A

the child is born with an underactive thyroid gland

243
Q

causes of congenital hypothyroidism

A

dysgenesis = underdeveloped thyroid gland

dyshormonogenesis = a fully developed thyroid gland that doesn’t produce enough hormone

244
Q

how is congenital hypothyroidism diagnosed?

A

newborn blood spot screening test

245
Q

if congenital hypothyroidism isn’t detected at birth, how do children present?

A
Prolonged neonatal jaundice
Poor feeding
Constipation
Increased sleeping
Reduced activity
Slow growth and development
246
Q

cause of acquired hypothyroidism

A

autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s thyroiditis)

247
Q

What antibodies are associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A
antithyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies
 antithyroglobulin antibodies.
248
Q

What conditions are associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

T1DM

Coeliac disease

249
Q

symptoms of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis in children

A
Fatigue and low energy
Poor growth
Weight gain
Poor school performance
Constipation
Dry skin and hair loss
250
Q

Ix for children with hypothyroidism

A

TFTs - TSH, T3 and T4
thyroid US
Thyroid antibodies - anti-TPO and antithyroglobulin antibodies

251
Q

Tx for hypothyroidism

A

Levothyroxine

252
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

autoimmune inflammation occurs in the joints.

diagnosed where there is arthritis without any other cause, lasting more than 6 weeks in a patient under the age of 16.

253
Q

What are the subtypes of JIA?

A
Systemic JIA
Polyarticular JIA
Oligoarticular JIA
Enthesitis related arthritis
Juvenile psoriatic arthritis
254
Q

What is systemic JIA also called?

A

Still’s disease

255
Q

Symptoms of systemic JIA

A
Subtle salmon-pink rash
High swinging fevers
Enlarged lymph nodes
Weight loss
Joint inflammation and pain
Splenomegaly
Muscle pain
Pleuritis and pericarditis
256
Q

Ix for systemic JIA

A

Negative ANA and RF

raised CRP, ESR, platelets and ferritin

257
Q

Differentials for fevers in children that last more than 5 days

A

systemic JIA (still’s disease)
Kawasaki disease
rheumatic fever
Leukaemia

258
Q

Key complication of systemic JIA (stills disease)

A

Macrophage activation syndrome (MAS) = severe activation of immune system with a massive inflammatory response

259
Q

symptoms of macrophage activation syndrome (MAS) and key finding on Ix

A
Caused by systemic JIA
Unwell child
DIC
Anaemia
Thrombocytopenia. 
Bleeding
Non blanching rash 

LOW ESR

260
Q

symptoms of polyarticular JIA

A

inflammatory arthritis of 5+ joints, symmetrical, small joints of hands & feet + large joints

Mild fever
Anaemia
Reduced growth

261
Q

What is oligoarticular JIA

A

4 joints or less

Larger joint involvement - knee/ankle

262
Q

Who gets oligoarticular JIA?

A

Girl <6 yo

263
Q

what is a key association with oligoarticular JIA

A

Anterior uveitis = refer to opthalmologist

264
Q

ix for oligoarticular JIA

A

Normal/mildly elevated inflammatory markers

ANA often positive

RF usually negative

265
Q

what is enthesitis related arthritis?

A

paediatric version of seronegative spondyloarthropathy

inflammatory arthritis of joints and enthesitis

266
Q

who gets enthesitis related arthritis?

A

males >6 yo

267
Q

Ix for enthesitis related arthritis

A

MRI scan - enthesitis

HLA-B27 gene

268
Q

Conditions associated with enthesitis related arthritis

A

Psoriasis
IBD
Anterior uveitis - refer to ophthalmologist for screening even if asymptomatic

269
Q

What is juvenile psoriatic arthritis?

A

seronegative inflammatory arthritis associated with psoriasis

symmetrical polyarthritis affecting the small joints similar to rheumatoid, or an asymmetrical arthritis affecting the large joints in the lower limb.

270
Q

signs of juvenile psoriatic arthritis

A

Plaques of psoriasis on the skin
Pitting of the nails (nail pitting)
Onycholysis, separation of the nail from the nail bed
Dactylitis, inflammation of the full finger
Enthesitis, inflammation of the entheses, which are the points of insertion of tendons into bone

271
Q

Mx of JIA

A

NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen
Steroids, either oral, intramuscular or intra-artricular in oligoarthritis
Disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs), such as methotrexate, sulfasalazine and leflunomide
Biologic therapy, such as the tumour necrosis factor inhibitors etanercept, infliximab and adalimumab

272
Q

what is impetigo

A

superficial bacterial skin infection, usually caused by the staphylococcus aureus bacteria.

A “golden crust” is characteristic of a staphylococcus skin infection

273
Q

Causes of impetigo

A

staph aureus

streptococcus pyogenes

274
Q

advice for children with impetigo

A

contagious = keep off school until lesions have healed or they’ve been on abx for 48 hrs

don’t scratch lesion

hand hygiene and don’t share towels

275
Q

classification of impetigo

A

non-bullous

bullous

276
Q

what is non-bullous impetigo

A

typically occurs around the nose or mouth.

The exudate from the lesions dries to form a “golden crust”.

They are unsightly but do not usually cause systemic symptoms or make the person unwell.

277
Q

mx for non-bulbous impetigo

A

1st line = antiseptic cream - hydrogen peroxide 1% cream
2nd line = topical fusidic acid
3rd line = oral flucloxacillin

278
Q

what is bullous impetigo?

A

is always caused by the staphylococcus aureus bacteria

bacteria can produce epidermolytic toxins that break down the proteins that hold skin cells together.

This causes 1 – 2 cm fluid filled vesicles to form on the skin.

These vesicles grow in size and then burst, forming a “golden crust”.

Eventually they heal without scarring. These lesions can be painful and itchy

279
Q

What is the name of the condition when bullous impetigo lesions become widespread?

A

Staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome

280
Q

mx for bullous impetigo

A

flucloxacillin - oral or IV

281
Q

complications of impetigo

A
Cellulitis if the infection gets deeper in the skin
Sepsis
Scarring
Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Staphylococcus scalded skin syndrome
Scarlet fever
282
Q

causes of intestinal obstruction in children

A
Meconium ileus
Hirschsprung’s disease
Oesophageal atresia
Duodenal atresia
Intussusception
Imperforate anus
Malrotation of the intestines with a volvulus
Strangulated hernia
283
Q

presentation of intestinal obstruction in children

A
persistent bilious vomiting 
abdo pain and distention
failure to pass stools/wind
high pitched tinkling bowel sounds in early obstruction 
absent bowel sounds in late obstruction
284
Q

diagnosis of intestinal obstruction

A

abdo xray = dilated loops of bowel proximal to lesion and collapsed bowel distal to obstruction

285
Q

mx of intestinal obstruction

A

NBM - NG tube to drain stomach
IV fluids
Refer to paediatric surgical unit for emergency surgery

286
Q

what is ileus?

A

a condition affecting the small bowel, where the normal peristalsis that pushes the contents along the length of the intestines, temporarily stops.

287
Q

what is intussusception?

A

condition where the bowel “invaginates” or “telescopes” into itself.

288
Q

who gets intussusception?

A

more common in boys

6 months - 2 years old

289
Q

what conditions are associated with intussusception?

A
Concurrent viral illness
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
Cystic fibrosis
Intestinal polyps
Meckel diverticulum
290
Q

Presentation of intussusception

A

Redcurrant jelly stool
Severe, colicky abdominal pain
Pale, lethargic and unwell child
Right upper quadrant mass = sausage shaped mass
Vomiting
Intestinal obstruction - vomiting, constipation and abdo distention

291
Q

Ix for intussusception

A

US abdomen

contrast enema

292
Q

mx of intussusception

A

therapeutic enema - contrast, water or air enemas are pumped into the colon to force the folded bowel out of the bowel

Surgical resection - if enemas don’t work or the bowel becomes gangrenous/perforation

293
Q

complications of intussusception

A

Obstruction
Gangrenous bowel
Perforation
Death

294
Q

What is Kawasaki disease?

A

also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome

It is a systemic, medium-sized vessel vasculitis

295
Q

Who gets Kawasaki disease?

A

<5 yo
Males
Asian - Japanese/Korean children

296
Q

Clinical features of Kawasaki disease

A

Persistent high fever >39 for more than 5 days
Widespread erythematous maculopapular rash
desquamation (skin peeling) on palms and soles
strawberry tongue with large papillae
Cracked lips
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Bilateral conjunctivitis

297
Q

Ix for Kawasaki disease

A

FBC - anaemia, leukocytosis and thrombocytosis
LFTs - hypoalbuminaemia and elevated liver enzymes
Raised ESR
Urinalysis - raised white cells
Echo - coronary artery pathology

298
Q

what is the disease course of Kawasaki disease?

A

Acute phase: The child is most unwell with the fever, rash and lymphadenopathy. This lasts 1 – 2 weeks.

Subacute phase: The acute symptoms settle, the desquamation and arthralgia occur and there is a risk of coronary artery aneurysms forming. This lasts 2 – 4 weeks.

Convalescent stage: The remaining symptoms settle, the blood tests slowly return to normal and the coronary aneurysms may regress. This last 2 – 4 weeks.

299
Q

Mx of Kawasaki disease

A
High dose aspirin (reduces the risk of thrombosis)
IV immunoglobulins (reduces the risk of coronary artery aneurysms)
300
Q

Why is aspirin usually avoided in children?

A

Risk of Reyes syndrome (swelling of liver and brain)

301
Q

Key complication of Kawasaki disease?

A

coronary artery aneurysm - so follow up with echocardiograms

302
Q

What is leukaemia?

A

cancer of a particular line of the stem cells in the bone marrow. This causes unregulated production of certain types of blood cells.

303
Q

How can leukaemia be classified?

A

can be classified depending on how rapidly they progress (chronic is slow and acute is fast)

and the cell line that is affected (myeloid or lymphoid).

304
Q

What are the types of leukaemia that affect children the most?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is the most common in children

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the next most common

Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is rare

305
Q

When is the peak age for ALL and AML?

A

ALL peaks aged 2 – 3 years

AML peaks aged under 2 years

306
Q

Pathophysiology of leukaemia

A

A genetic mutation in one of the precursor cells in the bone marrow leads to excessive production of a single type of abnormal white blood cell.

Excessive production of a single type of cell = suppression of other cell lines = pancytopenia

Anaemia
Leukopenia
Thrombocytopenia

307
Q

Risk factors for leukaemia

A
Radiation exposure
Downs
Kleinfelter syndrome
Noonan syndrome
Fanconi's syndrome
308
Q

Presentation of leukaemia

A
Persistent fatigue
Unexplained fever
Failure to thrive
Weight loss
Night sweats
Pallor (anaemia)
Petechiae and abnormal bruising (thrombocytopenia)
Unexplained bleeding (thrombocytopenia)
Abdominal pain
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Unexplained or persistent bone or joint pain
Hepatosplenomegaly
309
Q

Diagnosis of leukaemia

A

FBC - anaemia. leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and high numbers of the abnormal WBCs

Blood film = BLAST CELLS

bone marrow biopsy
lymph node biopsy

For staging =

  • CXR
  • CT scan
  • LP
  • genetic analysis and immunophenotyping of the abnormal cells
310
Q

When should you refer a child that you suspect has leukaemia?

A

Unexplained petechiae or hepatomegaly in any child

Do urgent FBC and refer

311
Q

Mx of leukaemia

A
MDT
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Bone marrow transplant 
Surgery
312
Q

complications of chemotherapy in children who have leukaemia

A
Failure to treat the leukaemia
Stunted growth and development
Immunodeficiency and infections
Neurotoxicity
Infertility
Secondary malignancy
Cardiotoxicity
313
Q

Prognosis of leukaemia in children

A

Cure rate for ALL is 80%

Less positive outcomes for AML

314
Q

what is meningitis?

A

inflammation of the meninges. The meninges are the lining of the brain and spinal cord. This inflammation is usually due to a bacterial or viral infection.

315
Q

what are the common causes of bacterial meningitis in children?

A

children =

  • neisseria meningitidis
  • streptococcus pneumonia

Neonates =
- group b strep

316
Q

what is meningococcal septicaemia?

A

the meningococcus* bacterial infection in the bloodstream

*neisseria meningitidis

317
Q

What type of bacteria is neisseria meningitidis?

A

gram negative diplococcus

318
Q

what is the classic sign of meningococcal septicaemia

A

non blanching rash

the neisseria meningitidis bacteria causes DIC and subcutaneous haemorrhages

319
Q

Presentation of meningitis in children

A
fever
neck stiffness
vomiting 
headache
photophobia 
altered consciousness
seizures
320
Q

presentation of meningitis in neonates

A
hypotonia
poor feeding
lethargy
hypothermia
bulging fontanelle
321
Q

When should you do a lumbar puncture in children that you suspect have meningitis?

A

Under 1 month presenting with fever
1 to 3 months with fever and are unwell
Under 1 year with unexplained fever and other features of serious illness

322
Q

what special tests on examination are used to test for meningitis?

A

Kernigs test - lie on back, flex hip to 90 d then slowly straighten the knee to stretch the meninges and cause spinal pain in meningitis

Brudzinski’s test - lie on back, gently lift head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest. Positive if they involuntarily flex their hips and knees

323
Q

Mx of bacterial meningitis in the community

A

If they have suspected meningitis + non blanching rash = IM benzylpenicillin STAT & transfer to hospital

324
Q

Mx of bacterial meningitis in hospital

A

Blood culture and LP before abx
- Do meningococcal PCR on blood cultures

Under 3 months old = cefotaxime + amoxicillin

Older than 3 months = ceftriaxone

Steroids (dexamethasone) - to reduce risk of hearing loss and neurological damage

325
Q

Who gets post exposure prophylaxis if they’ve been in contact with someone who has meningococcal infection?

A

Significant exposure to person with meningococcal meningitis/septicaemia within the 7 days prior to the onset of illness = need prophylaxis

326
Q

What is the prophylaxis given to people exposed to meningococcal disease?

A
single dose of ciprofloxacin 
Give ASAP (ideally within 24 hrs of initial diagnosis)
327
Q

mx of viral meningitis

A

acyclovir

supportive treatment

328
Q

cause of viral meningitis

A

herpes simplex virus
enterovirus
varicella zoster virus

329
Q

ix for viral meningitis

A

Viral PCR testing on CSF from LP

330
Q

How is a lumbar puncture done?

A

Needle inserted into lower back between L3 and L4 (spinal cord ends at L1-2). A sample of CSF is collected.

331
Q

What is done to samples of CSF taken on LP?

A
Bacterial culture
Viral PCR
Cell count 
Protein 
glucose
332
Q

What do you see in the CSF when there’s a bacterial infection?

A
Cloudy appearance
High protein
Low glucose
High WCC (neutrophils)
Culture = bacteria
333
Q

What do you see in the CSF when there’s a viral infection?

A
Clear appearance]
Mildly raised or normal protein 
Normal glucose
High WCC (lymphocytes)
Culture = negative
334
Q

Complications of meningitis

A

Hearing loss is a key complication

Seizures and epilepsy

Cognitive impairment and learning disability

Memory loss

Cerebral palsy, with focal neurological deficits such as limb weakness or spasticity

335
Q

What is mumps?

A

a viral infection spread by respiratory droplets

336
Q

what is the incubation period of mumps?

A

14-25 days

337
Q

What vaccine is given to protect against mumps and how successful is it?

A

MMR

80% protective against mumps

338
Q

What is the presentation of mumps?

A

Flu like prodrome:

  • fever
  • muscle aches
  • lethargy
  • reduced appetite
  • headache
  • dry mouth

Parotid gland swelling:

  • unilateral or bilateral
  • associated pain

Other symptoms:

  • Abdo pain (pancreatitis)
  • Testicular pain and swelling (orchitis)
  • Confusion, neck stiffness and headache (meningitis/encephalitis)
339
Q

How long does mumps last?

A

is usually a self limiting condition that lasts around 1 week.

340
Q

Ix for mumps

A

Viral saliva swab for PCR testing

Can test the swab or blood for antibodies to mumps virus

341
Q

Mx of mumps

A

Notifiable disease - talk to public health

Supportive mx - fluids, rest, analgesia

342
Q

Complications of mumps

A

Pancreatitis
Orchitis
Meningitis
Sensorineural hearing loss

343
Q

Causes of joint pain in children (divided into age)

A

0-4 yo

  • septic arthritis
  • developmental dysplasia of hip
  • transient synovitis

5-10 yo

  • septic arthritis
  • transient synovitis
  • perches disease

10-16 yo

  • septic arthritis
  • slipped upper femoral epiphysis
  • JIA
344
Q

What is infectious mononucleosis?

A

infection with Epstein Barr virus
found in the saliva of infected individuals.

Infection may be spread by kissing or by sharing cups, toothbrushes and other equipment that transmits saliva.

Infected as child = few symptoms, infections as teenager/young adult = severe symptoms

345
Q

What happens when someone with infectious mononucleosis takes amoxicillin?

A

intensely itchy maculopapular rash

346
Q

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis

A
Fever
Sore throat
Fatigue
Lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes)
Tonsillar enlargement
Splenomegaly and in rare cases splenic rupture
347
Q

Ix for heterophile antibodies

A

Test for heterophile antibodies - general antibodies made that are not specific to EBV antigens but the test is almost 100% specific for EBV. Can take 6 weeks to produce antibodies and not everyone produces them so is 70-80% sensitive.

Test for them with:

  • Monospot test - RBCs from patients introduced to RBCs from horses. Heterophile antibodies present if the RBCs react to the horses
  • Paul-Bunnell test - same but blood from sheep
348
Q

Ix for infectious mononucleosis

A

Heterophile antibodies (monospot or paul-bunnell test)

EBV antibodies that target viral capsid antigen (IgM in early infection & IgG after infection)

349
Q

mx of infectious mononucleosis

A

self limiting
supportive mx
Avoid alcohol
avoid contact sports - splenic rupture risk

350
Q

prognosis of infectious mononucleosis

A

The acute illness lasts around 2 – 3 weeks, however it can leave the patient with fatigue for several months once the infection is cleared.

351
Q

complications of infectious mononucleosis

A
Splenic rupture
Glomerulonephritis
Haemolytic anaemia
Thrombocytopenia
Chronic fatigue

Is associated with Bursitis lymphoma

352
Q

Name inactivated vaccines

A

Polio
Flu vaccine
Hepatitis A
Rabies

353
Q

name subunit and conjugate vaccines

A
Pneumococcus
Meningococcus
Hepatitis B
Pertussis (whooping cough)
Haemophilus influenza type B
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Shingles (herpes-zoster virus)
354
Q

name live attenuated vaccines

A

Measles, mumps and rubella vaccine: contains all three weakened viruses
BCG: contains a weakened version of tuberculosis
Chickenpox: contains a weakened varicella-zoster virus
Nasal influenza vaccine (not the injection)
Rotavirus vaccine

355
Q

name toxin vaccines

A

diphtheria

tetanus

356
Q

what type of vaccine can’t be given to immunocompromised patients?

A

live attenuated vaccines

357
Q

What vaccines are given at 8 weeks?

A

6 in 1 vaccine (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, haemophilus influenzae type B (Hib) and hepatitis B)

Meningococcal type B

Rotavirus (oral vaccine)

358
Q

What vaccines are given at 12 weeks?

A

6 in 1 vaccine (again)

Pneumococcal (13 different serotypes)

Rotavirus (again)

359
Q

What vaccines are given at 16 weeks?

A

6 in 1 vaccine (again)

Meningococcal type B (again)

360
Q

What vaccines are given at 1 year

A
2 in 1 (haemophilus influenza type B and meningococcal type C)
Pneumococcal (again)
MMR vaccine (measles, mumps and rubella)
Meningococcal type B (again)
361
Q

What vaccines are given yearly from 2-8 yo

A

Influenza vaccine (nasal vaccine)

362
Q

What vaccines are given at 3 years 4 months old?

A
4 in 1 (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis and polio)
MMR vaccine (again)
363
Q

What vaccines are given at 12-13 year old

A

HPV (2 doses given 6 to 24 months apart)

364
Q

What vaccines are given at 14 years old

A

3 in 1 (tetanus, diphtheria and polio)

Meningococcal groups A, C, W and Y

365
Q

What is the current NHS vaccine for HPV?

A

Gardasil (protects from strains 6, 11, 16 and 18)

366
Q

Who gets the BCG vaccine?

A

Children at risk of TB infection - relatives from countries with high TB prevalence
Offered from birth

367
Q

what is sepsis?

A

a syndrome that occurs when an infection causes the child to become systemically unwell. It is the result of a severe systemic inflammatory response. It is a life threatening condition

368
Q

signs of sepsis in children

A
Deranged physical observations
Prolonged CRT
Fever / hypothermia
Deranged behaviour
Poor feeding
Inconsolable or high pitched crying
High pitched or weak cry
Reduced consciousness
Reduced body tone (floppy)
Skin colour changes (cyanosis, mottled pale or ashen)
Shock involves circulatory collapse and hypoperfusion of organs.
369
Q

Pathology of sepsis

A

macrophages, lymphocytes and mast cells release cytokines, interleukins and TNF

Causes the release of nitrous oxide = vasodilation

cytokines cause endothelial lining of blood vessels to become more permeable = oedema & reduction in intravasc vol

Get DIC as the coagulation system is activated = consumption of platelets and clotting factors to create blood clots = thrombocytopenia and haemorrhages

Blood lactate rises due to anaerobic respiration

370
Q

What is septic shock?

A

when sepsis has lead to cardiovascular dysfunction.

Arterial BP falls = organ hypo perfusion

Rise in blood lactate due to anaerobic respiration by organs

371
Q

Mx of septic shock

A

IV fluids

If that fails - ICU for inotropes e.g. noradrenalin

372
Q

immediate management of sepsis in children

A
Give O2
Get IV access
Take bloods - FBC, U&E, CRP, INR, blood gas (lactate & acidosis)
Take blood cultures
Urine dipstick 
Give Abx within 1 hour of presentation 
IV fluids - 20ml/kg IV bolus of saline
373
Q

additional management for sepsis in children

A
CXR
Abdo and pelvic USS
LP for meningitis 
Meningococcal PCR blood test 
Serum cortisol (if adrenal crisis suspected)

Continue abx for 5-7 days if bacterial infection suspected

374
Q

What is spinal muscular atrophy?

A

a rare autosomal recessive condition that causes a progressive loss of motor neurones, leading to progressive muscular weakness.

375
Q

Which neurones are affected in SMA?

A

the lower motor neurones in the spinal cord.

376
Q

Types of SMA

A

SMA type 1 has an onset in the first few months of life, usually progressing to death within 2 years.

SMA type 2 (most common) has an onset within the first 18 months. Most never walk, but survive into adulthood.

SMA type 3 has an onset after the first year of life. Most walk without support, but subsequently loose that ability. Respiratory muscles are less affected and life expectancy is close to normal.

SMA type 4 has an onset in the 20s. Most will retain the ability to walk short distances but require a wheelchair for mobility. Everyday tasks can lead to significant fatigue. Respiratory muscles and life expectancy are not affected.

377
Q

symptoms of SMA

A
Fasiculations
Reduced muscle bulk
Reduced tone
Reduced power
Reduced/absent reflexes
378
Q

mx of SMA

A
MDT
physio
NIV
SMA 1 - tracheostomy and ventilation may be required
PEG feeding
379
Q

types of acyanotic heart disease

A
VSD
ASD
PDA
Coarctation of the aorta
Aortic valve stenosis
380
Q

types of cyanotic heart disease

A

tetralogy of Fallot
transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
tricuspid atresia
ebsteins anomaly

381
Q

cause of ebstein’s anomaly

A

lithium use in pregnancy

382
Q

What is ebsteins anomaly?

A

a congenital heart condition where the tricuspid valve is set lower in the right side of the heart (towards the apex), causing a bigger right atrium and a smaller right ventricle

poor flow to r ventricle

383
Q

what direction is the shunt in ebsteins anomaly

A

right to left via an atrial septal defect = cyanosis

384
Q

what syndrome is ebsteins anomaly associated with?

A

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

385
Q

signs of ebsteins anomaly

A

tricuspid regurgitation (pan-systolic murmur) and tricuspid stenosis (mid-diastolic murmur)

Evidence of heart failure (e.g. oedema)
Gallop rhythm heard on auscultation characterised by the addition of the third and fourth heart sounds
Cyanosis
Shortness of breath and tachypnoea
Poor feeding
Collapse or cardiac arrest
386
Q

ix ebsteins anomaly

A

echo

cxr - box shaped heart due to R atrium hypertrophy

387
Q

mx ebsteins anomaly

A

tx arrhythmias and HF
prophylactic abx (IE)
surgical correction

388
Q

in children < 3 months wha tax are given for meningitis?

A

IV amoxicillin + cefotaxime (to cover for listeria)

389
Q

what is Duchenne muscular atrophy

A

an X-linked recessive inherited disorder in the dystrophin genes required for normal muscular function.

390
Q

symptoms of Duchenne muscular atrophy

A

progressive proximal muscle weakness from 5 years
calf pseudohypertrophy
Gower’s sign: child uses arms to stand up from a squatted position
30% of patients have intellectual impairment

391
Q

ix for Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

raised creatinine kinase

genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the way to obtain a definitive diagnosis

392
Q

mx of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

supportive

MDT

393
Q

prognosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

most children cannot walk by the age of 12 years

patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years

394
Q

associated complication with Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

395
Q

causes of neonatal hypotonia

A

neonatal sepsis
Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscular atrophy type 1)
hypothyroidism
Prader-Willi

maternal drugs e.g. benzodiazepines
maternal myasthenia gravis

396
Q

tx for threadworms

A

single dose mebendazole for whole household and hygiene advice

397
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

hypertrophy and narrowing of the pylorus (exit of the stomach)

398
Q

symptoms of pyloric stenosis

A
Present in the first few weeks of life
hungry, thin pale baby
failure to thrive
PROJECTILE VOMITING 
Mass in upper abdomen - LARGE OLIVE 
after feeding, can observe peristalsis in the abdomen
399
Q

Blood gas results for pyloric stenosis

A

hypochloric metabolic alkalosis

low chloride & alkalotic from vomiting hydrochloric acid

400
Q

Ix for pyloric stenosis

A

Abdo USS - visualise thickened pylorus

401
Q

Mx of pyloric stenosis

A

Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy = ramstedt’s operation

Incision is made in the smooth muscle of the pylorus to widen the canal

402
Q

What causes rubella

A

togavirus

403
Q

What vaccine protects against rubella

A

MMR

404
Q

symptoms of rubella

A

prodrome, e.g. low-grade fever

rash: maculopapular, initially on the face before spreading to the whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day
lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular

405
Q

complications of rubella

A

arthritis
thrombocytopaenia
encephalitis
myocarditis

406
Q

How is sickle cell anaemia inherited?

A

autosomal recessive condition

abnormal gene for beta-globing on chromosome 11

one copy of the gene = sickle cell trait (asymptomatic)

two copies of the gene = sickle cell disease

407
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

a genetic condition that causes sickle (crescent) shaped red blood cells.

This makes the red blood cells fragile and more easily destroyed, leading to a haemolytic anaemia.

Patients with sickle cell anaemia are prone to various types of sickle cell crises.

408
Q

Pathology of sickle cell anaemia

A

normal haemoglobin: HbAA

sickle cell trait: HbAS

homozygous sickle cell disease: HbSS. Some patients inherit one HbS and another abnormal haemoglobin (HbC) resulting in a milder form of sickle cell disease (HbSC)

sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse; they block small blood vessels and cause infarction

409
Q

Ix for sickle cell anaemia

A

women at risk of being carrier are offered testing during pregnancy

tested on newborn screening heel prick on day 5

diagnosis = haemoglobin electrophesis

410
Q

things tested for on the day 5 newborn heel prick

A

sickle cell disease
cystic fibrosis
congenital hypothyroidism

6 inherited metabolic disease -
phenylketonuria
medium chain acyl-coA dehydrogenase deficiency
maple syrup urine disease
isovaleric academia
glutamic acuduria type 1
homocytinuria
411
Q

symptoms of sickle cell anaemia

A
anaemia
increased infection risk
stroke
avascular necrosis of large joints e.g. hip
pulmonary HTN
painful and persistent penile erectile (priapism)
CKD
Sickle cell crises
acute chest syndrome
412
Q

mx of sickle cell disease

A

Avoid dehydration and other triggers of crises
Ensure vaccines are up to date
Antibiotic prophylaxis to protect against infection, usually with penicillin V (phenoxymethypenicillin)
Hydroxycarbamide can be used to stimulate production of fetal haemoglobin (HbF). Fetal haemoglobin does not lead to sickling of red blood cells. This has a protective effect against sickle cell crises and acute chest syndrome.
Blood transfusion for severe anaemia
Bone marrow transplant can be curative

413
Q

What is a sickle cell crisis

A

an umbrella term for a spectrum of acute crises related to the condition. These range from mild to life threatening.

414
Q

triggers for sickle cell crises

A
occur spontaneously
infection
dehydration
cold
significant life events
415
Q

mx for sickle cell crises

A

Have a low threshold for admission to hospital
Treat any infection
Keep warm
Keep well hydrated (IV fluids may be required)
Simple analgesia such as paracetamol and ibuprofen (NSAIDs should be avoided where there is renal impairment)
Penile aspiration is used to treat priapism

416
Q

what is a vaso-occulsive crisis in sickle cell anaemia?

A

caused by the sickle shaped blood cells clogging capillaries and causing distal ischaemia

417
Q

causes of vaso-occulsive crisis in sickle cell anaemia?

A

dehydration

raised haematocrit

418
Q

symptoms of vaso-occulsive crisis in sickle cell anaemia

A

pain
fever
priapism

419
Q

what is a splenic sequestration crisis in sickle cell anaemia?

A

Splenic sequestration crisis is caused by red blood cells blocking blood flow within the spleen.

= acutely enlarged and painful spleen.

The pooling of blood in the spleen can lead to severe anaemia and circulatory collapse (hypovolaemic shock).

420
Q

mx for splenic sequestration crisis in sickle cell anaemia?

A

emergency

  • supportive
  • blood transfusions
  • fluid resuscitation

need splenectomy if recurrent crises

421
Q

what is an aplastic crisis in sickle cell anaemia and what is the most common trigger?

A

a situation where there is temporary loss of the creation of new blood cells.

This is most commonly triggered by infection with parvovirus B19.

= significant anaemia

422
Q

How do you diagnose acute chest syndrome in sickle cell anaemia?

A

fever or respiratory symptoms with new infiltrates seen on CXR

423
Q

causes of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell anaemia?

A

infection - pneumonia or bronchiolitis

non infective - pulmonary vaso occlusion or fat emboli

424
Q

mx of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell anaemia

A

medical emergency

Antibiotics or antivirals for infections
Blood transfusions for anaemia
Incentive spirometry using a machine that encourages effective and deep breathing
Artificial ventilation with NIV or intubation may be required

425
Q

UTI symptoms in children

A

FEVER

Babies:
Fever
Lethargy
Irritability
Vomiting
Poor feeding
Urinary frequency
Children:
Fever
Abdominal pain, particularly suprapubic pain
Vomiting
Dysuria (painful urination)
Urinary frequency
Incontinence
426
Q

When can pyelonephritis be diagnosed?

A

A temperature greater than 38°C

Loin pain or tenderness

427
Q

Ix for UTI

A

clean catch urine sample for:

  • urine dip - nitrates, leukocytes
  • MC&S
428
Q

Mx of UTI

A

All children under 3 months with a fever should start immediate IV antibiotics (e.g. ceftriaxone) and have a full septic screen = blood cultures, bloods, lactate + consider LP

Oral abx if >3 months if otherwise well:

  • trimethoprim
  • nitrofurantoin
  • cefalexin
  • amoxicillin
429
Q

Ix for recurrent/atypical UTIs

A

abdo USS for:

  • children <6 months with first UTI have USS within 6 weeks
  • Children with recurrent UTIs have USS within 6 weeks
  • Children with atypical UTI have USS during illness

DMSA scan :
- used to ix 4-6 months after illness to assess for damage from recurrent/atypical UTIs

Micturating cystourethrogram:
Used to assess for vesico-ureteric reflux

430
Q

what is a viral exanthem?

A

an eruptive widespread rash

There are 6 underlying causes

431
Q

What are the 6 underlying causes of viral exanthema?

A
Measles (measles virus)
Scarlet fever (strep pyogenes)
Rubella (rubella virus)
Duke's disease (non specific)
Parvovirus B19 - slapped cheek disease
Roseola infantum
432
Q

Symptoms of measles

A

Start with fever, coryza and conjunctivitis
Koplik spots on buccal mucosa
rash that starts on face and behind ears, then spreads to the rest of the body - red macular rash with flat lesions

433
Q

Public health measures for measles

A

Report to public health - notifiable disease

isolate for 4 days after symptoms resolve

434
Q

Complications of measles

A
Pneumonia
Diarrhoea
Dehydration
Encephalitis
Meningitis
Hearing loss
Vision loss
Death
435
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

Group A streptococcus - strep pyogenes

associated with tonsillitis

436
Q

Symptoms of scarlet fever

A
red-pink blotchy macular rash with rough 'sandpaper' skin that starts on the trunk and spreads outwards 
red flushed cheeks
fever
lethargy
sore throat 
strawberry tongue 
cervical lymphadenopathy
437
Q

Mx of scarlet fever

A

penicillin V for 10 days

438
Q

Public health measures for scarlet fever

A

notifiable disease

stay off school until 24 hours after starting abx

439
Q

symptoms of rubella

A

erythematous macular rash on face and spreads to rest of body (not as bad as measles)

mild fever
joint pain
sore throat
lymphadenopathy - behind ears and back of neck)

440
Q

Public health measure for rubella

A

notifiable disease
stay off school for 5 days after rash appears
avoid pregnant women

441
Q

complications of rubella

A

thrombocytopenia
encephalitis
dangerous in pregnancy - congenital rubella syndrome: deafness, blindness, congenital heart disease

442
Q

What is Duke’s disease?

A

non-specific ‘viral rash’

443
Q

what is the disease called that is caused by parvovirus B19?

A

slapped cheek disease / erythema infectiosum

444
Q

symptoms of parvovirus B19

A

mild fever
coryza
muscle aches
lethargy
bright red rash on both cheeks - slapped cheeks
spreads to give reticular erythematous rash on trunk and limbs that’s itchy

445
Q

what causes roseola infantum?

A

human herpes virus 6 / 7

446
Q

what is volvulus?

A

torsion of the colon around it’s mesenteric axis resulting in compromised blood flow and closed loop obstruction

447
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

a genetic condition that results in brittle bones that are prone to fractures

genetic mutations that affect collagen formation

448
Q

presentation of osteogenesis imperfecta

A
blue sclera
hyper mobility 
unusual/recurrent fractures
triangular face
short stature
deafness from early adulthood
dental problems - formation of teeth
bone deformities - bowed legs and scoliosis 
joint and bone pain
449
Q

mx for osteogenesis imperfecta

A

bisphosphonates
vitamin D supplements
MDT

450
Q

What is osgood-schlatter disease?

A

inflammation at the tibial tuberosity where the patella ligament inserts

anterior knee pain in teenagers
more common in males
unilateral usually

451
Q

presentation of osgood schlatter disease

A

a gradual onset of symptoms:

Visible or palpable hard and tender lump at the tibial tuberosity
Pain in the anterior aspect of the knee
The pain is exacerbated by physical activity, kneeling and on extension of the knee

452
Q

pathology of osgood schlatters disease

A

stress from running/jumping at the time of growth in the epiphyseal plate = inflammation on the tibial epiphyseal plate

get small multiple avulsion fractures as the patella ligament pulls away tiny pieces of bone

leads to growth of the tibial tuberosity = visible lump below the knee

453
Q

mx of osgood schlatters disease

A

reduction in physical activity
Ice
NSAIDs

454
Q

prognosis of osgood schlatters disease

A

fully resolves over time

rare complication = avulsion fracture

455
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

most common cause of disproportionate short stature (dwarfism).

It is a type of skeletal dysplasia.

456
Q

Genetic mutations in achondroplasia

A

autosomal dominant inheritance

mutation in FGFR3 gene on chromosome 4

homozygous gene mutations = fatal in the neonatal period

therefore patients have one normal and one abnormal gene

457
Q

Symptoms of achondroplasia

A
disproportionate short stature
average height = 4 feet 
limbs mostly affected by reduced bone length, spine length less affected 
intelligence and life expectancy not affected
short digits
genu varum 
disproportionate skull
foramen magnum stenosis
458
Q

Associated condition with achondroplasia

A

Recurrent otitis media, due to cranial abnormalities
Kyphoscoliosis
Spinal stenosis
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Obesity
Foramen magnum stenosis can lead to cervical cord compression and hydrocephalus

459
Q

mx of achondroplasia

A

MDT

leg lengthening surgery - not done very much

460
Q

What is developmental dysplasia of the hips

A

A condition where there is a structural abnormality in the hips due to abnormal development of bones during pregnancy.

Instability in the hips - tendency for subluxation or dislocation

461
Q

Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hips

A

First degree family history
Breech presentation from 36 weeks onwards
Breech presentation at birth if 28 weeks onwards
Multiple pregnancy

462
Q

Screening for developmental dysplasia of the hips

A

Done during the neonatal examination (at birth then 6-8 weeks old)

Ortolani test
Barlow test

463
Q

Findings on examination that suggest developmental dysplasia of the hips

A

Different leg lengths
Restricted hip abduction on one side
Significant bilateral restriction in abduction
Difference in the knee level when the hips are flexed
Clunking of the hips on special tests

464
Q

what is the ortolani test

A

done to look for developmental dysplasia of the hips

lie baby on back, flex hips and knees, abduct the hips and apply pressure behind the legs - see if the hips will dislocate anteriorly

465
Q

what is the Barlow test

A

done to look for developmental dysplasia of the hips

lie baby on back, with hips and knees flexed and knees together, put gentle downward pressure on the knee to see if the femoral head will dislocate posteriorly

466
Q

Diagnosis of developmental dysplasia of the hips

A

If its suspected do an USS of the hips

x-rays helpful in older infants

467
Q

Mx of developmental dysplasia of the hips

A

Pavlik harness (<6 months old) - keeps the hips flexed and abducted to hold femoral head in the correct position while the acetabulum develops to a normal shape

surgery if the harness fails / >6 months - then need hip spica cast

468
Q

What is talipes?

A

a fixed abnormal ankle position that presents at birth.

clubfoot

469
Q

What are the 2 types of talipes?

A

Talipes equinovarus describes the ankle in plantar flexion and supination.

Talipes calcaneovalgus describes the ankle in dorsiflexion and pronation.

470
Q

mx of talipes

A

Ponseti Method

  • foot is manipulated into a normal position and cast appleid
  • this is repeated until the foot is in the correct position
  • need achilles tenotomy
  • brace to hold feet in correct position afterwards
471
Q

What is slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

the head of the femur is displaced (“slips”) along the growth plate.

472
Q

Who gets slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

Boys 8-15 yo

more common in obese children

473
Q

Presentation of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A
growth spurt
minor trauma 
hip, groin, thigh or knee pain 
restricted range of hip movement 
painful limp
restricted movement in hip 

prefer their hip in external rotation

474
Q

diagnosis of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

xray
inflammatory markers to exclude other causes
technetium bone scan
CT/MRI scan

475
Q

Mx of slipped upper femoral epiphysis

A

surgery to return femoral head to correct position

476
Q

What is perthes disease?

A

disruption of blood flow to the femoral head, causing avascular necrosis of the bone.

477
Q

who gets perthes disease

A

4-12 yo

more common in body

478
Q

cause of perthes disease

A

idiopathic

479
Q

presentation of perthes disease

A

a slow onset of:

Pain in the hip or groin
Limp
Restricted hip movements
There may be referred pain to the knee
There will be no history of trauma
480
Q

Ix for perthes disease

A

xray can be normal
technetium bone scan
MRI scan

481
Q

mx of perthes disease

A
mild = 
bed rest
traction 
crutches
analgesia 
physio 
regular xrays to assess healing

more severe/older children = surgery to improve the alignment of the femoral head and hip