PAEDIATRICS Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two types of keratin cysts, where at they commonly located and what is the management?

A

● Bohn’s nodules
o Remnants of dental lamina
o Buccal or labial aspect of alveolar ridge
o Sequestrate within a few months

● Epstein’s Pearls
o From epithelial rests along lines of fusion of palatal shelves
o Midline of hard palate
o Most sequestrate within a few weeks after birth

Nil treatment required

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2
Q

What concentrations of fluoride are recommended for:

  • <1.5 years
  • 1.5 - 6 years
  • > 6 years

How do these concentrations change for moderate to high risk caries?

A

<1.5yrs → Brush but no paste
<6yrs → 500ppm (only 500-1000ppm use if moderate to high risk)
>6yrs → 1000ppm (brush >2x per day if moderate to high risk)

Note: >10yrs only and high caries risk → 5000ppm

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3
Q

What concentration of daily and weekly fluoride rinses can be used? What age and types of patients is this recommended for?

A

Daily rinse = 0.05%
Weekly = 0.20%
Should rinse at a different time to brushing.

Recommended for >10 years only.

Indicated for:

  • High caries risk
  • Post-irradiation hyposalivation
  • Undergoing orthodontic tx
  • Disability/syndrome rendering mechanical brushing insufficient
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4
Q

What are the three types of fluoride gel and who are they recommended for inchair?

A
  • APF 1.23%
  • Stannous fluoride 10%
  • NaF 2% –> Recommended as non-irritating and doesn’t discolour teeth unlike other gels.

Only recommended for >10 years - no longer recommended for children due to high risk of ingestion

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5
Q

What are the indications for fluoride varnish?

A
  • Newly erupted teeth
  • WSL
  • Hypersensitive areas
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6
Q

What are the symptoms for fluoride toxicity?

A
o	Acute:
▪	Nausea and vomiting
▪	Excess salivation and sweating
▪	Headache
▪	Diarrhea

o Lethal dose:
▪ Muscles disorder – tetany, convulsions
▪ Cardiovascular failure
▪ Respiratory depression and acidosis

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7
Q

Which of the following is correct in terms of sedation for children
A) NO is considered high risk as it is difficult to titrate
B) Oral sedation indicated for long procedures
C) IV sedation is easily reversible
D) Patient is unconscious in NO sedation

A

C)

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8
Q
Dens invaginatus is most common on: 
A) Primary mandibular premolars
B) Primary maxillary lateral incisors
C) Permanent mandibular premolars
D) Permanent maxillary lateral incisors
A

D)

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9
Q

Which of the following is false regarding macro and microdontia?
A) Macrodontia is more common in males.
B) Microdontia is more common in primary teeth.
C) Macrodontia is more common in permanent teeth.
D) Microdontia is most common in females.

A

B)

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10
Q

Which is the most common supernumerary teeth in primary dentition?
A) Mesiodens, unlikely to erupt
B) Peridens, likely to erupt
C) Distodens, unlikely to erupt
D) Supplmental lateral incisor, likely to erupt

A

D) ~73% erupt

Note: Permanent dentition - most common is mesiodens and only ~25% erupt

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11
Q

Distinguish cusp of carabelli and protostylid.

A

Cusp of carabelli = Extra cusp on MP of upper first molar –> Trait in caucasians
Protostylid = Extra cusp on buccal surface of lower first molar –> Trait in mongoloid

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12
Q
Which is NOT a characteristic of any type of amelogenesis imperfecta? 
A) Pitting of enamel 
B) Amber and opalescent appearance
C) Snow capped apperance
D) Yellow translucent appearance
A

B) Referring to DI

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13
Q
On clinical examination, you notice distinct lines of enamel hypoplasia on the upper 1/3 of the 26 in your 8 year old patient. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? 
A) Molar incisor hypomineralisation 
B) Amelogenesis imperfecta
C) Chronological enamel hypoplasia 
D) Fluorosis
A

C)

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14
Q
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of any type of dentine dysplasia 
A) Scalloping of DEJ
B) Periapical radiolucency 
C) Short roots
D) Amber discolouration
A

A) Referring to DI

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15
Q

Which teeth are commonly affected by pre-eruptive and intracoronal resorptive defect? How should this be managed.

A

Md. 5, 7 and 8 most common
Rare in primary dentition

Assess in unerupted teeth:
● Small lesion = Restoration once erupted
● Large lesion close to pulp = Surgical exposure and restore

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16
Q

Where does root dilaceration commonly occur in canine/premolars vs molars?

A

Permanent > Primary
• Canine and premolars – apical third of roots
• Molars – Middle third of roots

17
Q
A patient presents to your clinic with significant horizontal bone loss, nil gingival inflammation and significant tooth mobility of lower anterior teeth. Which is the most likely diagnosis? 
A) Papillon Lefevre Syndrome
B) Leukocyte Adhesion Defect
C) Hypophosphatasia 
D) Langerhan's cell histiocytosis
18
Q
A patient with PLS presents to your clinic. What is LEAST LIKELY be seen on examination? 
A) Halitosis 
B) Severe periodontal disease
C) Alveolar bone necrosis 
D) Hyperkeratosis of palms
A

C) Referring to acrodynia and erythomelalgia