Paediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of pneumonia in children

A

Commonly viral: adenovirus, rhinovirus, influenza, RSV, parainfluenza
2nd most common= Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Presentation of pneumonia in children

A

Temperature (over 38.5), rapid breathing/difficulty breathing
May have cough, vomiting, chest/abdo pain, decreased activity, loss of appetite/poor feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management of paediatric pneumonia

A

Antibiotics if indicated. CXR and bloods, sputum culture. Supportive therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is croup and its presentation

A

Infection of upper airway (often parainfluenza virus) leads to obstruction of breathing and a barking cough

Px: originally begins with typical cold then 3-5 days of loud barking cough, fever, hoarse voice, noisy/laboured breathing. Symptoms worse at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How to manage croup?

Who most commonly affected?

A

Manage at home with comfort measures

Common between 6 months and 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Presentation of asthma?

A

Cough (nocturnal and worsens with virus), SOB, wheeze/whistling, chest congestion or tightness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diagnosis of asthma in children?

A

If over 5: spirometry, PEF, allergy testing
If under 5: need to go off the history
If under 3: may use wait and see approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How to identify a viral induced wheeze?

A

No wheeze with exercise, no wheeze except when a/w viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How to manage a viral induced wheeze?

A

Reliever inhaler for the minority=SABA=salbutamol
If SABA 2-10 puffs PRN to max 4 hourly via a spacer
Otherwise, supportive/comfort care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Natural history of bronchiolitis?

A

Viral infection of bronchioles, commonly by RSV
Usually affects under 2s
Mainly in the winter and spring months
There is excess mucus, inflammation, constriction and oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Presentation of bronchiolitis?

A

Symptoms increase over 2-5 days: low grade fever, nasal congestion, rhinorrhoea, cough, feeding difficulty

Usually lasts 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Investigations for bronchiolitis?

A

Nasopharyngeal aspirate or throat swab
RSV rapid testing and viral cultures
FBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Home or hospital for bronchiolitis?

A

Hospital if severe apnoea/resp distress: grunting, RR>70, central cyanosis, sats<92%

Consider hospital if rr>70, inadequate fluids, clinical dehydration

No role for antibiotics, steroids or bronchodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pathaphysiology of cystic fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive mutation in CFTR (CF transmembrane conductane regulator gene)
DeltaF508 is commonest mutation

MUCUS

Reduced airway surface liquid impedes mucus clearance allowing excessive bacterial growth
Pancreas: duct occluded in utero leading to pancreatic insufficiency (can lead to CF-related DM)
GI: increased mucus can cause meconium ileus
Biliary tree: can have cholestasis leading to neonatal jaundice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Neonatal test to identify CF

A

Heel prick- Guthrie test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Investigations for CF:

A

Diagnosis= history and positive chloride sweat test

Sweat chloride over 60mmol/L suggestive, 40-60 is borderline

CXR, sweat test, glucose tolerance test, microbiology, LFT, coag, bone profile, PFTs- all generally involved in annual assessments

Heel prick, then genetic testing, then sweat test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are children more at risk of epiglottitis than adults?

A

Epiglottis is floppier, broader, longer and angled more obliquely to trachea and have a larger tongue
Therefore higher risk of acute airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aetiology of epiglottitis?

A

Reduced since the Hib vaccination
Normally Haemophilus infleunzae and Streptococcus pneumoniae which locally invade

V rarely due to trauma or non-infectious causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Presentation of epiglottitis

A

4Ds
Dyspnoea, dysphagia, drooling, dysphonia (muffled hot potato voice)

Typically no cough
Symptoms in less than 12 hours
Stridor is a late sign
Tripod position- leans forward on outstretched arms with neck extended and tongue out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Management of epiglottitis

A

Secure airway before further investigation
Throat swabs, bloods, lateral neck Xray (thumb print sign, thickened aryepiglottic folds, increased opacity of larynx and vocal cords)

Oxygen, nebulised adrenaline, IV antibiotics (3rd gen cephalosporins eg ceftriaxone), IV steroids, nil by mouth until airway improved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is acute otitis media

Symptoms

A

Severe pain and visible inflammation of tympanic membrane lasting days-weeks
Sxs: pain, malaise, fever, coryzal symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes otitis media

A

Infection from nasopharyngeal organisms migrating via eustachian tube (which is shorter wider and straighter in children)

Bacterial= S.pneumoniae
Viral=RSV, rhinovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Investigations for otitis media

A

ALWAYS test function of facial nerve on examination
Otoscopy
Discharge sent for microscopy and culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How to manage acute otitis media

A

Watch and wait- most spontaneously resolve within 24 hours
Simple analgesia
Complication monitoring= mastoiditis which will need IV abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What proportion of children will have had at least 1 episode of otitis media by age 3

A

more than 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is otitis media with effusion

A

glue ear
Viscous inflammatory fluid build up leading to conductive hearing impairment via chronic inflammatory changes and eustachian tube dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are risk factors for otitis media with effusion?

A

Bottle fed, paternal smoking, atopy, genetic disorders egCF and Downs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Presentation of otitis media with effusion?

A

Difficulty hearing and pressure sensation

O/E: TM will be dull and light reflex is lost, may see a bubble behind the TM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to manage otitis media with effusion?

A

Active surveillance- around 50% resolve within 3 months

If no resolution may need hearing aids or myringotomy and grommet insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Indications for grommets?

A

Small plastic tubes inserted in opening in eardrum

Relieve OME if hearing loss is 25-30dB on 2 occasions 3 months apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Causes of deafness in children (infections)

A

Temporary=OME

Meningitis, mumps and measles can cause it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Aetiology of tonsillitis

A

Viral mostly
Bacterial-group A strep most common (S.pyogenes)

Most common in age 5-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tonsillitis- bacterial vs viral assessment

A

Centor score:

Age, exudate, tender/swollen anterior cervical LNs, temp over 38, absent cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Management of tonsillitis

A

Viral is self limiting

Bacterial- should swab for culture and commence antibiotics (usually benzylpencillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the epidemiology of periorbital cellulitis?

A

Peak in under 10s
Males twice as commonly affected
Peak occurrence in later winter and early spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the causes of periorbital cellulitis?

A

Commonly from contiguous spread from sinuses with ethmoidal sinus being most common
Others= dental infection, trauma, foreign bodies, impetigo

S. pneumoniae and S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the classification used for periorbital cellulitis?

A

Chandler classification, types i-v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is type I of chandler classification?

A

Pre-septal cellulitis- inflammation and oedema anterior to orbital septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

type II of chandler classification?

A

post-septal, orbital cellulitis:
inflammation into orbital tissue but no abscess formation

Eyelids may be swollen and may have conjunctival chemosis with variable degree of proptosis and visual loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

type III chandler classification?

A

subperiosteal abscess

Pronounced eyelid oedema, conjunctival chemosis and tenderness along orbital rim with variable degree of motility/proptosis/visual acuity changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

type iv chandler classification?

A

intra-orbital abscess-pus inside or outside muscle cone

Proptosis, conjunctival chemosis, decreased motility and visual loss can be severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

type v chandler classification?

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Bilateral marked eyelid oedema and involvement of CNs III, V, VI
May have sepsis signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How to manage periorbital cellulitis?

A

If mild preseptal can do from home with broad spectrum empirical abx

If more extensive- hospital, IV abx, supportive therapy

If large abscesses, intracranial complications at px and in frontal sinusitis, need urgent drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Complications of periorbital cellulitis?

A
Visual related (vision loss is 11%)- start to lose red colour vision (sign of optic nerve compromise)
Neurological complications eg sepsis, intracranial abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the types of manifest and latent strabismus

A
Manifest:
Esotropia=eye turns in
Exotropia=eye turns out
Hypertropia=eye goes up
Hypotropia=eye goes down
Latent:
Esophoria=inwards under occluder
Exophoria=outwards under occluder
Hyperphoria=up under occluder
Hypophoria= down under occluder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what tests to identify strabismus

A
Cover test (manifest squint)
Cover/uncover test (latent squint)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are potential septal defects?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Atrial septal defect
Atrioventricular septal defect
Tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common septal defect?

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

A left to right shunt switches direction due to an increase in pressure of the low oxygen-containing side
CYANOTIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sizes of VSD and what it may cause

A

Small=restrictive VSD-generally asx
Moderate=dilatation of left atrium and ventricle, at risk of congestive heart failure and arrhythmias
Large=early HF and severe pulmonary hypertension, may develop eisenmenger’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What presentation with VSD?

A

tachypnoea
SOB, feeding problems, developmental issues
undernourished, forehead sweat, increased breathing work, cyanotic, may have down’s syndrome, clubbing, hyperactive precordium, thrill, systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Murmur for VSD and where to listen?

A
Systolic murmur (holosystolic, pansystolic or early systolic) 
Best heard over tricuspid area (lower left sternal border) with radiation to right lower sternal border
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Gold standard diagnosis of septal defect?

A

Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Management of VSD?

A

Qp/Qs (pulmonary to systemic blood flow ratio) of at least 2.0 requires surgical repair
Aim to close large VSDs within first 2 years of life
75% of small VSDs close spontaneously by age 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the second most common septal defect?

A

ASD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the 5 types of atrial septal defect?

A
patent foramen ovale (most common)
ostium secundum defet
ostium primum defect
sinus venosus defect
coronary sinus defect (least common)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Presentation of ASD?

A

Vast majority are asymptomatic

Large= tachypnoea, poor weight gain, recurrent chest infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Type of murmur in ASD, and where to auscultate?

A

Soft systolic ejection murmur

Best heard in pulmonary area (left upper sternal edge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

RFs for ASD

A

maternal smoking in first trimester, maternal diabetes, maternal rubella, maternal drug use eg cocaine/alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Management of ASD?

A

If less than 5mm, spontaneous closure within 12 months

Surgical closure required if bigger than 1cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What group of people is more likely to have an atrioventricular septal defect?

A

People with Down’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Describe the pathaphysiology of an AVSD?

2 types

A

Failure of endocardial cushions to fuse properly
Complete AVSD: large left to right shunt causes excessive pulmonary blood flow leading to HF and pulmonary vascular resistance
Partial AVSD: left to right shunt and volume overload of RA and RV but the pulmonary artery pressure is only mildly elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Presentation of AVSD?

A

Tachypnoea, tachycardic, poor feeding, sweating, failure to thrive, all with a complete AVSD are symptomatic by 1 year
Prominent sternal heave, murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Murmur in AVSD and where to auscultate?

A

Ejection systolic murmur in pulmonary area (left upper sternal border)
Mid-diastolic murmur over tricuspid area (left lower sternal border)
Holosystolic murmur might be heard at apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Management of AVSD?

A

Surgical management as patients would die by age 2-3 without

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Describe the tetralogy of fallot?

A

Ventricular septal defect
Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta

Most common cyanotic congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Presentation of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Mild=usually asx, but as disease progresses, develops cyanosis
Mod-severe=cyanotic and resp distress
Extreme= pulmonary atresia or absent pulmonary valves
Murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

If tetralogy of fallot isn’t managed, what can occur?

A

polycythaemia, cerebral abscess, stroke, infective endocarditis, HF, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Murmur in tetralogy of fallot and where to listen?

A

Pansystolic murmur best heard over mid or upper left sternal edge
Smaller the VSD=louder the murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are tet spells?

A

Hypoxic spells in tetralogy of fallot with peak incidence between 2-4 months of life:

Paroxysm of hyperpnoea, irritability, increasing cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Management of tetralogy of fallot?

A

Medical= squatting, prostaglandin infusion, beta blockers, morphine, saline bolus
Surgical management for definitive repair or palliative management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which defects have a higher risk of HF?

A

Significant left to right shunt= VSD, ASD, PDA

Transposition of the great arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the two types of transposition of the great arteries?

A

dextro-transposition=aorta is anterior and to the right of the pulmonary artery

levo-TGA= aorta anterior and to the left of the pulmonary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

When do you get cyanotic heart disease?

A
Absent/not wide enough tricuspid/pulmonary/aortic valve
Coarctation of aorta
Ebstein anomaly
Tetralogy of fallot
TGA
Truncus arteriosus

Anywhere with a right to left shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

Systemic illness 2-4 weeks after pharyngitis due to cross reactivity to group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus (S. pyogenes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever? Describe

A

Revised Jones diagnostic criteria= positive throat culture or anti-streptolysin O/anti-DNA B titre and 2 major or 1 major+2 minor criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the major criteria in the revised jones criteria?

A

SPECS

Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, carditis, subcut nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the minor criteria in the revised jones criteria?

A
CAPE
CRP/ESR raised
Arthralgia
Pyrexia
ECG-prolonged PR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Management of acute rheumatic fever?

A

Antibiotics=benzathine benzylpenicillin
Aspirin/NSAIDs
Assess for emergency valve replacement

Secondary prevention with abx every 3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What factors lead to subacute bacterial endocariditis?

A

Endothelial damage, platelet adhesion, microbial adherence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What organisms cause IE?

A

S. aureus, S. viridans, S. pneumoniae, HACEK organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Presentation of IE?

A

persistent low grade fever, heart murmur, splenomegaly, petechiae/oslers nodes/janeway lesions/splinter haemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of IE? describe

A

Modified Dukes criteria

2 major
1 major and 3 minor
5 minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Major criteria in modified dukes?

A

positive blood cultures, evidence of endocardial involvement (echo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Minor criteria in modified dukes?

A

predisposition, fever, vascular phenomena, immunologic phenomena, microbiology evidence, other echo findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Management of IE?

A

IV antibiotics

May require surgical intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What factors aid reflux in GORD?

A

Low tone of muscular portion of lower oesophagus, short and narrow oesophagus, delayed gastric emptying, shorter lower oesophageal sphincter, liquid diet and high calorie requirement (distends stomach), significant periods recumbent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Presentation of GORD?

A

Distressed, unexplained feeding difficulties, hoarseness +/- chronic cough, single episode pneumonia, faltering growth, if able may report pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When does GORD or regurgitation (=posseting) present normally

A

Within 2 weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How to manage a breast fed baby with gord

A

Use alginate eg gaviscon mixed with water after feeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How to manage a formula fed baby with gord

A
1= do not over feed (less than 150ml/kg/day)
2= decreased feed volume by increasing frequency (2-3 hourly)
3= use feed thickener
4= stop thickener and use alginate added to formula
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What to use after alginate if no success in GORD?

A

histamine antagonists or ppi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Name 5 potential causes of poor feeding

A

Infection, metabolic disorders, genetic disorders, structural abnormalities, neurological disorders, mum and feeding technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Presentation of pyloric stenosis

A

Baby starts bringing up small amounts of milk after feeding, which gets worse over a few days
Then projectile yellow vomit (milk curdles in stomach acid)
Reduced faeces
If untreated: dehydration and not gaining weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

When does pyloric stenosis present

A

About 6 weeks after birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

How to manage pyloric stenosis

A

Pyloromyotomy (laparoscopically)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Potential presentation of IBS

A

Bloating, cramping, chronic or intermittent diarrhoea/constipation, urgency with defecation, incomplete sensation of defecation, passage of mucus in stool
May have dizziness, nausea, loss of appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How to manage IBS

A

Diet and lifestyle management eg small meals, more often, low fat and high carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How common is gastroenteritis?

A

Very!

At least one episode per year for most children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Common causes of gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus is most common infantile (NB rotarix oral vaccine at 8 and 12 weeks)
Norovirus commonest acorss all age groups
Campylobacter is most common bacterial cause
Also E.coli and adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Presentation of gastroenteritis

A

Sudden onset diarrhoea +/- vomiting, abdo pain, mild fever

bloody diarrhoea if campylobacter- generally due to undercooked meat and unpasteurised milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Management of gastroenteritis

A

Self limiting
Send a stool sample if ?septicaemia/blood or mucus in stool/immunocompromised
Encourage fluids (not carbonated drinks)
IV or oral therapy if dehydrated
Give full strength milk asap
Leave it 48 hours before returning to school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How long do sxs of gastroenteritis last?

A

Diarrhoea around 5-7 days

Vomiting around 1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Potential complications of gastroenteritis?

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome, reactive complications eg Reiter’s syndrome, toxic megacolon, acquired/secondary lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What counts as constipation in children?

A

Less than 3 complete stools/week
Hard/large stool
Rabbit droppings
Overflow soiling in children over 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Management of simple constipation in children?

A

Diet and lifestyle advice- high fibre, increase fluids
Then add Macrogol eg Movicol
Then add stimulant laxative eg Senna
Consider adding in lactulose

In secondary care can do manual evacuation, antegrade colonic enema, polyethylene glycol solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of appendicitis

A
Luminal obstruction (faecolith or lymphoid hyperplasia, impacted stool)
Decreased venous drainage and localised inflammation by commensal bacteria causes and increased pressure. This causes ischaemia which can lead to necrosis and perforation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Presentation of appendicitis

A

Dull peri-umbilical pain transfers to a sharp right iliac fossa pain
May have vomiting, anorexia, nausea, diarrhoea or constipation

MAGNET: migration of pain to RIF, anorexia, guarding, nausea, elevated temp, tenderness in RIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What can be found on examination of appendicitis

A
Rebound tenderness and percussion pain over McBurneys point and guarding
Psoas sign (pain when patient lies on left side while right thigh is flexed backward)
Rovsing's sign (pain in RLQ upon palpation of LLQ)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Management of acute appendicitis

A

Antibiotics and laparoscopic appendicectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Why are children at higher risk of appendix perforation?

A

Tend to have delayed presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Two types of childhood hernia?

A

Umbilical and epigastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How to manage hernias in children?

A

Umbilical- surgery if still present after 3 years

Epigastric- surgery only if uncomfortable or a nuisance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Describe how Crohn’s disease affects the body (microbiology and location)

A

Remitting and relapsing disease, affects anywhere between the mouth and the anus
Transmural inflammation, deep ulcers and fissures with cobblestone mucosa, skip lesions
Non-caseating granulomatous inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Presentation of Crohns disease

A

Abdominal pain and bloody/mucus containing diarrhoea
Oral aphthous ulcers, perianal disease (tags, fistulae)
Extra-intestinal features=MSK, eyes, skin, renal, hepatobiliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Investigations for IBD?

A

Faecal calprotectin, routine bloods, stool microscopy and culture, colonoscopy with biopsy (=definitive diagnosis and can distinguish between UC and CD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How to manage Crohn’s disease? Acute attack

A

In acute attack: avoid anti-motility drugs eg loperamide as it can cause toxic megacolon
In acute attack: fluid resus, nutritional support, prophylactic heparin, corticosteroid and immunosuppressant eg mesalazine or azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How to manage Crohn’s disease? Maintenance

A

Azathioprine, smoking cessation

Surgery can be used- ileocaecal resection, stricturoplasty, small/large bowel resections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Course and pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis?

A

Relapsing/remitting
Diffuse continual mucosal inflammation of large bowel only. Begins in the rectum and spreads proximally.
Mucosal and submucosal inflammation only, crypt abscesses and goblet cell hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is a protective factor against UC?

A

Smoking!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Presentation of UC?

A

Bloody diarrhoea, PR bleeding and mucus discharge, increased faecal frequency, urgency and tenesmus

Extra-intestinal: MSK, skin, eyes, hepatobiliary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How to induce remission in UC?

A

Corticosteroid and immunosuppressant eg mesalazine or azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Maintenance management of UC?

A

Immunomodulators- mesalazine or sulfasalazine
Next line=infliximab
Surgery= ileostomy and complete resection= curative, but many have sub-total colectomy to begin with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Pathophysiology of Coeliac disease

A

T cell mediated autoimmune response.
Response to gliadin and genetic (HLA-DQ2/DQ8)
Anti-gluten CD4 t cell response, with anti-gluten antibodies, anti-tissue transglutaminase, endomysin antibodies and intraepithelial lymphocytes activated

Causes epithelial cell destruction and villous atrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are the forms of coeliac disease?

A

Classical, atypical, latent, silent, potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe the classical form of coeliac disease

A

Arises between 9 and 24 months
Crypt hyperplasia and villous atrophy
Features of malabsorption eg steatorrhoea, failure to thrive, anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe the atypical form of coeliac disease?

A

No intestinal symptoms

Extra-intestinal symptoms eg osteoporosis, anaemia, peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe the latent form of coeliac disease

A

HLA DQ2/8 positive but normal mucosa present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Describe the silent form of coeliac disease

A

Damaged mucosa, positive serology, no symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is potential coeliac disease

A

Genetically predisposed people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What are potential extra-intestinal features of coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis, osteoporosis, short, delayed puberty, arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How to investigate for coeliac disease?

A

Serology
Must have had gluten in diet for at least 6 weeks prior to testing
IgA and IgAtTG, IgAEMA
Duodenal biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Common causes of failure to thrive

A

Down syndrome, cerebral palsy, heart disease, infections, milk allergy, CF, coeliac disease, GORD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is marasmus

A

Protein and energy malnutrition.
Loss of fat mass especially buttocks
Chronic diarrhoea and emaciated body type
There is NO oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is marasmus usually a sign of?

A

Poor socioeconomic status, child abuse+neglect, lack of food resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How to manage marasmus?

A

Similarly to kwashiorkor and reintroduce food slowly and correct any electrolyte imbalances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is kwashiorkor

A

Inadequate protein with a reasonable calorie intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Presentation of kwashiorkor

A

Fatigue, irritability, lethargy, failure to thrive, loss of muscle mass, generalised oedema, pot belly, fatty liver, prone to infections, hair and skin changes (erythematous, exfoliation, pigment, dry hair, thin nails)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is seen in bloods for kwashiorkor?

A

low glucose, low protein, high cortisol and GH, low salt, iron deficiency anaemia, metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Management of kwashiorkor?

A

Correct fluids/electrolytes- needs to be done in about 48 hours
Reintroduce foods slowly afterwards using RUTF (ready to use therapeutic foods eg peanut butter, milk powder, sugar, vegetable oil, minerals and vitamins)
Treatment takes around 2-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Pathophysiology of Hirschprung’s disease

A
Congenital aganglionic megacolon disease 
Aganglionic segment (short/long/total) remains in tonic state so there is a failure in peristalsis 
Functional obstruction due to accumulated faeces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Presentation of Hirschprung’s disease

A

Abdominal distension, bilious vomiting, failure to pass meconium within 48 hours after birth
Males 4 times more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is a big complication of Hirschprung’s disease

A

Hirschprung’s enterocolitis: stasis allows bacterial proliferation, which can cause sepsis and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

How to investigate for Hirschprungs

A

Initially a plain X ray

Gold standard=rectal suction biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Management of Hirschprungs

A

IV antibiotics, NG tube, bowel decompression initially

Definitive= surgery to resect aganglionic section and connect unaffected bowel to dentate line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What is intussusception?

Who does it happen to?

A

Movement/telescoping of one part of bowel into another
Peak at 5-7 months, rare after 2 years, males twice as likely
Most cases are ileo-colic type (distal ileum passes into caecum through ileo-caecal valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Presentation of intussusception

A

Sudden onset, inconsolable crying episodes, pallor, child may draw knees up to chest
Later stages= red-currant consistency stools (blood and mucus), sausage shaped mass in RUQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How to diagnose intussusception?

A

abdominal uss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How to manage intussusception?

A

Nonoperative=air or contrast enema

Surgical reduction if contraindication to enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is meckel diverticulum?

A

Outpouching of lower part of small intestine- a remnant of umbilical cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Presentation of meckel diverticulum?

A

Most asx
In minority: pouch releases acid causing bleeding ulcers
In serious complications, can lead to peritonitis
Pouch can twist causing volvulus or intussusception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is malrotation with volvulus?

A

Occurs during embryonic development at about the 10th week

Bowel twists so blood supply is cut off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Presentation of malrotation with volvulus?

A

Bouts of crying, pull legs into body, not passing faeces, cramps, green vomit, may become dehydrated

Most diagnosed by age of 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How to manage malrotation with volvulus

A

Dx by Xray

Tx= operation- stop necrosis of bowel and may need bowel resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is toddler diarrhoea

A

Chronic nonspecific diarrhoea, at least 3 loose watery stools/day
Some alternate with constipation
Self limiting at about age 5-6
NOT due to malabsorption or serious bowel problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are the 4Fs for diet consideration in toddler diarrhoea

A

Fat, fluid, fruit juices and fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is colic

A

Self-limiting repeated episodes of excessive and inconsolable crying for at least 3hrs a day, at least 3 days a week for at least 1 week
Occurs in up to 4 months of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Presentation of colic

A

Often crying in late afternoon or evening, draws knees up and arches back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Management of colic?

A

REASSURANCE
Soothing strategies, parental wellbeing aids
Discourage simeticone (infracol) or lactase drops, probiotics, herbal supplements and maternal diet modification
Exclude other possible causes of distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Describe the three types of biliary atresia

A

Type I= common bile duct atresia with patent proximal ducts
Type II= common hepatic duct atresia with cystic structures in porta hepatis
Type III= R and L hepatic duct atresia to level of porta hepatis (most common)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is biliary atresia?

A

Extrahepatic bile ducts obliterated by inflammation and subsequent fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Presentation of biliary atresia?

A

Presentation shortly after birth
Persistent jaundice
Pale stools and dark urine in term infants with normal birth weights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What investigations are required in biliary atresia and what results shown?

A

LFTs: increased GGT, TGs normal
USS
Liver histology from percutaneous biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Management of biliary atresia?

A

Surgery, liver transplant needed before 8 weeks

Prognosis without treatment is 18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Complications of biliary atresia?

A

Ascending cholangitis, cirrhosis, portal hypertension, liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Pathophysiology of cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Immune-mediated allergic response to casein and whey

IgE mediated type 1 hypersensitivity or non-IgE(T cell activation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Presentation of cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Acute and rapid onset (less than 2 hrs after ingestion), pruritus, erythema, acute urticaria, angio-oedema, oral pruritus, colicky abdo pain, vomiting, diarrhoea, may have resp signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Management of cow’s milk protein allergy

A

Elimination diet for at least 6 months or until 9-12 months old, then reevaluate every 6-12 months
Replace formula with hypoallergenic: extensively hydrolysed or amino acid formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is wilson’s disease?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder of hepatic copper deposition
Mutations in gene ATP7B
Typical onset in 2nd-3rd decade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Presentation of wilson’s disease

A

HEPATIC features: acute liver failure, chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, fulminant hepatic failure+/- haemolytic anaemia
PSYCH features: severe depression, neuroses
NEURO features: asymmetrical tremor, speaking difficulty, hypersalivation, clumsiness with hands
Kayser-fleischer rings, sunflower cataracts

May be a/w rheumatoid-osteopenia, cardiac arrhythmias, hypoparathyroidism, pamcreatitis, infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What investigations for wilson’s disease

A

Low serum caeruloplasmin
Increased urinary copper
Liver biopsy
Assay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Management of wilson’s disease

A

Avoid high copper food, penicillamine or zinc/trientine (chelating agents), may need liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Choledochal cysts pathophysiology?

A

Usually in extrahepatic ducts (CBD and HDs), sometimes in intrahepatic ducts
Type I cysts are most common-lower end of CBD joins up with pancreatic duct: pancreatic juice and bile mix leading to a weakening of bile duct wall and ballooning- can lead to pancreatitis and cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Management of choledochal cyst

A

USS to identify
Commonly incidental finding
Surgery for removal of cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Presentation of choledochal cyst

A

May have jaundice, intermittent abdo pain, cholangitis, peritonitis, lump, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Aetiology of neonatal hepatitis syndrome

A

in 20%- viral (cytomegalovirus, rubella, hep a/b/c)

80%- nonspecific virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Presentation of neonatal hepatitis syndrome

A

Usually at 1-2 months

Jaundice, not gaining wt/ht, hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Management of neonatal hepatitis syndrome

A

Ix: liver biopsy and bloods
Mx: none specific, may need vitamins, potentially a liver transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Presentation of liver failure in children

A

Increased AST and ALT with prolonged clotting +/- jaundice +/- encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Causes of liver failure

A

Viruses eg HSV, EBV, CMV, Hep A/B/E
Inherited metabolic disorders eg Wilsons, mitochondrial
Toxins
Medication eg erythromycin
Autoimmune
Low blood flow eg HF
Chronic: hep C, autoimmune, haemochromatitis, alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency, CF, biliary atresia, sclerosing cholangitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Common causes of UTI in children

A

E coli, Klebsiella, S. saprolyticus

Nb/ pseudomonas suggests structural abnormality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Management of UTI in children

A

In under 3 months: IV cefuroxime for 7 days and USS renal tract
In over 3 months: oral abx for 3/7 (trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, amoxicillin)
If pyelonephritis: 7-10 days abx, ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Presentation of pyelonephritis

A

At least 38 degrees and bacteriuria
or
Less than 38 degrees and loin pain/tenderness and bacteriuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

When would you expect children to be dry overnight

A

Age 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Factors contributing to nocturnal enuresis

A

Small bladder, inability to recognise full bladder, hormones, UTI, sleep apnoea, diabetes, chronic constipation, structural problem in urinary tract or nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Management of nocturnal enuresis

A

<5= reassurance and advice
Non drug treatment: fluid intake, diet, toilet behaviour, rewards system then enuresis alarm if not responding (still more than 1-2 bed wets in a week)
Drug= desmopressin if over 5 +/- enuresis alarm
Imipramine hydrochloride is last line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Causes of acute renal failure

A

Hypoperfusion (blood loss, surgery, shock)
Blockage of urinary tract
Nephrotoxic drugs
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (e.coli usually)
Glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Symptoms of acute renal failure

A

Haemorrhage, fever, rash, bloody diarrhoea, vomiting, anuria or polyuria, pallor, oedema, eye inflammation, stomach mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Treatment of acute renal failure?

A
Treat underlying cause
U+Es
Dietary changes
Antihypertensives
Iv fluids
Diuretics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

How long for it to be classed as chronic renal failure?

Potential causes?

A

Over 3 months

Causes: long term blockage, alport syndrome, nephrotic syndrome, PKD, cystinosis, chronic conditions eg diabetes, untreated acute kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What is alport syndrome

A

Inherited condition- X-linked most common, but can be autosomal recessive/dominant
Deafness, renal damage and eye defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Treatment of chronic renal failure

A

Diuretics
Dialysis and transplant
Diet changes (limit protein, potassium, phosphorus, sodium)
Growth promoters/bisphosphonates/iron tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What defines nephrotic syndrome

A

Generalised oedema, heavy proteinuria (>200mg/mmol) and hypoalbuminaemia (<25g/L)
(Flattened podocytes allow protein leakage)
(Normal protein less than 20mg/mmol, normal albumin 35-45g/L)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Causes of nephrotic syndrome

Which is most common?

A

Minimal change disease=most common

Others= congenital nephrotic syndromes, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, mesangiocapillary glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Management of nephrotic syndrome

A

High dose steroids- most respond well but some will have relapse (=steroid-resistant nephrotic syndrome)- in which case may need maintenance low dose steroids or immunomodulatory drugs eg cyclophosphamide
Low salt diet, prophylactic abx (as they leak Igs and steroids!), immunisations

Prednisolone for first episode 60mg/m2 for 4-6 weeks then wean down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What is minimal change disease

A

Microscopically damage not evident. Idiopathic

Develop nephrotic syndrome more quickly but much more responsive to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

What is congenital nephrotic syndrome

What is needed in management

A

Genetic condition (parents need 1 faulty and 1 healthy gene each to pass on)
Requires frequent albumin infusions to aid growth and development
Typically leads to renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Causes of nephritic syndrome

A

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, henoch schnolein purpura, alport syndrome, sle/lupus nephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Describe post-strep glomerulonephritis

A

10-14 days after skin/throat infection with group A strep
Haematuria, oedema, decreased urine output, htn, proteinuria, tired
Normally self limiting so needs supportive tx only
If strep infection persisting= penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What is henoch schnolein purpura

A

IgA vasculitis

Rash of raised red or purple spots usually on legs and bottom (extensor surfaces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Px of henoch schonlein purpura

A

Rash, arthritis, abdo pain, kidney impairment (self limiting and mild usually), may get PR bleeding and intussusception
Usually all preceded by 2-3 weeks of fever, headache, arthralgia/myalgia, abdo pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Mx of Alport syndrome

A

ACEi/ARB, diuretics, limit sodium

Monitor for potential renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Mx of Lupus nephritis

A

Immunosuppressants eg cyclophosphamide or hydroxychloroquine, antihypertensives, may need steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Types of hypospadias

When does it form

A

Subcoronal (near head of penis)
Midshaft
Penoscrotal (where penis and scrotum meet)

Weeks 8-14 of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Management of hypospadias

A

Surgery between 3 and 18 months, may need to be done in stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Types of renal malformation?

A

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease
Duplication (single renal unit with more than one collecting system)
Fusion (kidneys joined, but ureters enter bladder on each side)- most common= horseshoe
Malrotation (little clinical significance)
Multicystic dysplastic kidney (nonfunctioning renal unit but contralateral kidney normally fine)
Renal agenesis (bilat=fatal, unilateral)
Renal ectopia=kidney fails to ascend from true pelvis
Renal hypoplasia (underdeveloped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Pathophysiology of vescioureteral reflux

A

Urine flows from bladder back into ureters, potentially causing infection
Shorter than normal attachment between ureter and bladder and incompetent valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Describe the different grades of vesicoureteral reflux

A

I=into ureter
II=into ureter and renal pelvis without distension
III=into ureter and renal pelvis with mild swelling
IV= mod swelling
V=severe swelling and twisting or ureter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Management of vesicoureteral reflux

A

Can go away by itself (junction gets longer with age)
Encourage frequent voiding
May need surgery to stop reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Triad of haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Coombs test negative, thrombocytopenia, AKI

Typically a/w e.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Toxins bind from e.coli causing thrombin and fibrin to be deposited in microvasculature
RBCs damaged while passing through occluded small vessels causing haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Px haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Profuse diarrhoea turning bloody 1-3 days later, fever, abdo pain and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Mx of HUS

A

Supportive- fluid and electrolyte mx, dialysis PRN, antihypertensive, keep circulating volume up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Where abouts are babies usually affected with atopic dermatitis?

A

Face, neck, scalp, elbow and knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Where abouts are children usually affected with atopic dermatitis?

A

Inside elbows, back of knees, sides of neck, around mouth, wrists, ankles and hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

General management of eczema?

A

Avoid triggers, keep nails short, emollients
Rest of treatment depends on severity: may include corticosteroids, abx, antihistamines, calcineurin inhibitors, phototherapy, immunomodulators or biologic medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What steroid would you give for mild eczema?

A

Hydrocortisone 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What steroid for moderate eczema?

A

Betamethasone valerate 0.025% or clobetasone butyrate 0.05%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What steroid for severe eczema?

A

Betamethasone valerate 0.1%

May need maintenance steroids or topical calcineurin inhibitors eg tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What is Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis. Rare, acute and potentially fatal skin reaction with sheet-like skin and mucosal loss
Nearly always caused by medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What medications commonly cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

Cotrimoxazole, penicillin, cephalosporins, anti-convulsants, allopurinol, paracetamol, NSAIDs

Usually within the first week of abx therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Presentation of Stevens-Johnson syndrome

A

Initially a flu-like illness
Then, tender/painful red skin rash on trunk. extending to face and limbs over a course of hours-days

(Skin lesions: macules/diffuse erythema/targetoid/blisters)

The blisters merge to form sheets of skin detachment
At least 2 mucosal surfaces affected eg conjunctivitis/mouth ulcers/cough/diarrhoea

Acute phase lasts 8-12 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Management of Stevens Johnson syndrome

A

Skin biopsy shows keratinocyte necrosis
SCORTEN illness severity score to predict mortality
Cessation of suspected causative drug, admission, analgesia, temp maintenance, nutrition and fluids
General care of affected mucosal surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Classification of allergic rhinitis?

A

Seasonal (if due to grass and tree pollens=hay fever)
Perennial (throughout year, due to dust mites and animal dander)
Intermittent (less than 4 days/week or less than 4 consecutive weeks)
Persistent (more than 4 days/week or more than 4 consecutive weeks)
Occupational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Management allergic rhinitis? Mild-mod

A

Nasal irrigation with saline
Allergen avoidance
PRN antihistamine- intranasal as first line eg azelastine
Can use 2nd generation non sedating oral eg loratidine or cetirizine for mild-mod symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What can be used in mod-severe allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal corticosteroid during periods of allergen exposure eg mometasone fluroate or fluticasone propionate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

For hayfever, what pollens affect you when?

A

Tree=early-late spring
Grass=late spring-early summer
Weed=early spring-late autumn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

What causes urticaria?

A

Histamine release

Due to: allergens, bee and wasp stings, autoimmune/idiopathic (chronic), physical triggers eg cold/friction, medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Types of antihistamine

A

Non sedating, sedating, short and long acting=H1 antihistamine
H2 antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

What is angio-oedema?

A

Swelling deep to the skin, commonly soft areas of skin eg eyelids and lips, more painful than weals/hives and takes longer to clear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Presentation of anaphylaxis

A

Skin features-urticaria, erythema, flushing, angio-oedema

Involves at least 1 of Resp/CV/GI system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

How to manage anaphylaxis

A

ABCDE, high flow oxygen, IM adrenaline, repeat 3-5 mins if required, treat a drop in BP with fluid bolus, consider salbutamol if wheeze, antihistamines for itch(cetirizine)
Prescribe an epipen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What are the most common vascular birth marks?

A

Macular stains or salmon patches: Angel’s kisses (forehead/nose/upper lip/eyelids- disappear with age) or Stork Bites (back of neck, disappear with age)

Hemangioma (grow rapidly 6-9 months then shrink and lose red colour)

Port-wine stain/nervus flammeus (grows with the child, often face/arms/legs, flat pink/red/purple mark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What are the most common pigmented birth marks?

A

Moles/congenital naevi, cafe au lait spots, mongolian spots (blue-grey spots on lower back or buttocks, common on darker skin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Causes of infectious rash in children

A

Meningococcal, steven-johnsons syndrome, impetigo, kawasaki, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, eczema herpeticum, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, measles, glandular fever, hand foot and mouth disease, erythema infectiosum, chicken pox, nappy rash, scabies, tinea corporis, tinea capitis, mollusucm contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

What are the three phases in Kawasaki disease?

A

Acute phase=weeks 1-2
Subacute phase= weeks 2-4
Convalescent phase=weeks 4-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Presentation of kawaski disease in acute phase?

A

Fever for at least 5 days (over 38), rash, red or hard fingers or toes, hand/foot swelling, conjunctival infection, dry/cracked lips, strawberry tongue, swollen lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What happens in subacute phase of kawasaki disease?

A

Symptoms less severe. Fever subsides, may have diarrhoea, vomiting, abdo pain, pyuria, lethargy, headache, malaise, jaundice and peeling skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What happens in the convalescent phase of kawasaki disease?

A

Begin to recover, symptoms start to go away, residual lethargy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Pathophysiology of kawasaki disease?

A

Idiopathic. Not contagious.
Also known as mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome.
Mainly affects under 5s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What are NICE criteria for diagnosis of kawasaki?

A

Over 38 degrees for at least 5 days and at least 4 key symptoms:
Bilateral conjunctival infection, mouth/throat changes, hand and feet changes, rash, swollen glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

How to manage kawasaki disease?

A

High dose aspirin initially then move onto low dose
IVIg-Gamma globulin (after which symptoms will improve after 36 hours)
If IVIg failure, consider steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What should you be aware of when giving children aspirin?

A

Reyes syndrome: persistent vomiting, lethargy, liver and brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Presentation of measles

A

Initially coryzal sxs, fever, small grey-white spots in mouth (Koplik spots) lasting a few days
2-4 days later= maculopapular rash on head/neck and spreads to rest of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Management of measles

A

Self limiting viral illness and usually clears in about 7-10 days
Mx: stay at home for at least 4 days from when rash first appears, antipyretic, fluids, gently clear crust from eyes, hot steam

PREVENTION: MMR vaccination at 12-13 months and 3 years 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What are some complications of measles?

A
Common= dehydration, otitis media, conjunctivitis, laryngitis, airway infections, febrile seizures
Uncommon= hepatitis, squint, meningitis encephalitis
Rare= optic neuritis, heart and nerve problems, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis several years after
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

What causes chicken pox?

A

Varicella zoster virus- commonly before age 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Presentation of chicken pox?

A

Fever aches and headache for about a day before the rash: spots in crops become small itchy blisters and then scab over
May lose appetite and have feeding problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Management of chickenpox?

A
AVOID aspirin (reye's syndrome)
Antipyretic, emollient, sedating antihistamine at night, keep nails short, dress comfortably, fluids 
Stay off school until all blisters crusted over 

If an at risk group eg under 1 month, immunocompromised, severe heart/lung disease=aciclovir or vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

When are you infectious with chickenpox?

A

7-21 day incubation

Infectious from 2 days before spots appear until all blisters crusted over

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What type of infection is rubella? When is peak incidence?

A

Viral. Mainly in spring and early summer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Presentation of rubella?

A

Prodromal phase: low grade fever, headache, mild conjunctivitis, anorexia, rhinorrhoea
Rash occurs 14-17 days after exposure: pink discrete macules that coalesce behind ears and on face, spreads to trunk then extremities
Lymphadenopathy-cervical, suboccipital, post auricular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Management of rubella?

A

PCR is gold standard diagnosis
Keep out of school for 4 days after rash appears, antipyretics, ask re contact with pregnant women

PREVENTION: MMR vaccination at 12-13 months and 3 years 4 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

What causes diphtheria?

A

Gram positive aerobic bacillus Corynebacterium diphtheriae causing acute upper resp tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Presentation of diphtheria?

A

Early sxs=coryzal
Nasal discharge- watery then purulent and bloody

Membranous pharyngitis with fever, enlarged cervical LNs, oedema of soft tissues= bull neck appearance

Cutaneous infection: pustules rupture causing punched out ulcers often on lower legs, feet and hands, with surrounding oedematous pink/purple skin. Takes 2-3 months to heal leaving a depressed scar

May cause difficulty swallowing, paralysis and HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Management of diphtheria?

A

PREVENTION: 6-in-1 vaccination at 2, 3 and 4 months

Antibiotics (eyrtho/azithro/clarithro/penicillin), reinforcing vaccine dose, manage contacts with abx prophylaxis

Booster vaccinations: first between 3.5 and 5 years, second between 13-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Pathophysiology of scalded skin syndrome?

A

Staphylococcal disease. Also known as Ritter disease and Lyell disease
Affects under 5s, especially neonates normally

Exotoxins from S. aureus bind to desmosomes, causing skin cells to become unstuck- causes red blistering skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Presentation of scalded skin syndrome?

A

Fever irritability and widespread erythema, then 24-48 hours later=fluid filled blisters form and rupture easily
Nikolsky sign positive= gentle strokes causes exfoliation

259
Q

Investigations for scalded skin syndrome?

A

Tzanck smear, skin biopsy, bacterial culture

260
Q

Management of scalded skin syndrome?

A

Admit to hospital
IV antibiotics eg flucloxacillin
Supportive -antipyretic, fluids, petroleum jelly

Healing usually complete within 5-7 days of starting treatment

261
Q

Pathophysiology of whooping cough?

A

Bordetella pertussis bacterial infection

Gram negative bacillus. Toxins paralyse cilia and promote inflammation

262
Q

Describe the first phase of whooping cough?

A

1st phase=catarrhal phase for 1-2 weeks

Coryzal sxs: rhinitis, conjunctivitis, irritability, sore throat, low grade fever, dry cough

263
Q

Describe the second phase of whooping cough?

A

2nd phase=paroxysmal for 2-8 weeks
Severe paroxysms of coughing followed by inspiratory gasp (whoop)

NB/ in infants under 3 months the whoop is less common and apnoea is more common. Paroxysms more common at night and often followed by vomiting

264
Q

Describe the third phase of whooping cough?

A

Convalescent phase=up to 3 months

265
Q

Investigations for whooping cough?

A

If cough for less than 2 weeks: nasopharyngeal aspiratr
If cough for more than 2 weeks: anti pertussis toxin IgG serology in under 5s or toxin detection in oral fluid for 5-17year olds
FBC=lymphocytosis

266
Q

Management of whooping cough?

A

Hospital if under 6 months and acutely unwell, sig breathing difficulties, feeding difficulties, complications eg pneumonia
Macrolide antibiotic if cough for less than 21 days= clarithromycin (under 1 month), azithromycin otherwise
Supportive

NB/ abx don’t alter course once disease established

PREVENTION= vaccination at 2,3,4 months and booster at 3 years 4 months

267
Q

Presentation of polio?

A

Fever, tiredness, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness and arm/leg pain
In 1 in 200 cases, affects NS leading to temporary or permanent paralysis

268
Q

Management of polio?

A

No treatment; need physio and OT

PREVENTION= vaccination at 2,3,4 months, 3years 4 months and 13-18 years

269
Q

How to diagnose TB in children?

A

Mantoux test= positive tuberculin skin test
IGRA
CXR
History of contact
Lab cultures very difficult to do in kids

270
Q

TB drugs?

A

RIPE

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

271
Q

Who gets BCG vaccination?

A

If born in areas of UK where rates are high

If a parent/grandparent born in a country with high TB rates

272
Q

Causes of meningitis in children?

A

Bacterial: Mainly N. meningitidis and S. pneumoniae
In neonates= GBS (group B strep from mum’s vagina)

Viral: HSV, enterovirus and VZV

273
Q

What is the presentation of meningitis in neonates and babies?

A

Non-specific!

Eg Hypotonia, poor feeding, lethargy, hypothermia, bulging fontanelle

274
Q

How to investigate for meningitis?

A

Kernigs and brudzinski’s signs
LP if under 1 month and fever, 1-3 months fever and unwell, under 1 year with unexplained fever and other features of serious illness

275
Q

Management of meningitis?

A

Primary care: benzylpenicillin

Secondary care bacterial:
If under 3 months: cefotaxime and amoxicillin (to cover listeria)
Over 3 months=ceftriaxone
Dexamethasone QDS for 4/7 if LP suggestive bacterial meningitis
PEP for contacts: ciprofloxacin

Viral=aciclovir

276
Q

What CSF findings are suggestive of bacterial meningitis?

A

Cloudy, high protein, low glucose, high neutrophils, cultured for bacteria

277
Q

What CSF findings are suggestive of viral menigitis?

A

Clear, normal protein, normal glucose, lymphocytosis, negative culture

278
Q

Causes of encephalitis?

A

Most common=HSV 1(children) and HSV 2(neonates- from genital warts)

Others= VZV, CMV, EBV, enterovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus

279
Q

Presentation of encephalitis?

A

Altered consciousness, altered cognition, unusual behaviour, acute onset focal seizures and focal neurological symptoms, fever

280
Q

Management of suspected encephalitis?

A

Ix: LP (CSF and PCR) or CT if LP CI. MRI after LP, swabs, HIV testing
Mx: aciclovir for HSV/VZV or ganciclovir (CMV)
Repeat LP to ensure successful tx

281
Q

How does HSV1 affect children?

A

Infectious for 7-12 days
Commonly gingivostomatitis: fever, restless, dribbling, swollen gums which bleed easily, foul breath, ulcers on tongue/throat/palate/inside cheeks, enlarged LNs

282
Q

Management of HSV?

A

Can use antivirals eg aciclovir/valaciclovir but for mild/uncomplicated eruptions require no treatment

283
Q

What is slapped cheek syndrome caused by?

A

Also known as fifth disease/erythema infectiosum

Parvovirus B19

284
Q

When are the peak incidences for slapped cheek syndrome?

A

april and may

285
Q

Presentation of slapped cheek syndrome?

A

Commonly 3-15 years old
Rash=bright red scald-like on 1 or both cheeks, painless
May have mild coryzal symptoms
1 in 4 will be asx
By time rash develops, no longer infectious

286
Q

Management of slapped cheek syndrome?

A

None needed. Caution around pregnant women

287
Q

Types of impetigo and what caused by?

A

Non-bullous (about 70% cases)= S.aureus, S.pyogenes or both

Bullous= S.aureus

288
Q

Presentation of impetigo?

A

Non-bullous= golden/brown crusts from vesicles/pustules, commonly on face, limbs and flexures, may be mildly itchy
Bullous-more common in infants= blisters rupture leaving flat yellow/brown crust, may have systemic features

289
Q

Management of impetigo?

A

Good hygiene, stay away from school until healed or 48 hours after abx
Localised non-bullous=hydrogen peroxide 1% cream (2nd line=fusidic acid 2%)
Widespread non-bullous or bullous=oral flucloxacillin

290
Q

How to manage candida?

A

topical antifungal eg miconazole gel

If vaginal (v. uncommon before puberty)= fluconazole

291
Q

Causes of toxic shock syndrome?

A

Staph or strep- from female barrier contraceptives, tampons, injury on skin, childbirth, nasal packing, ongoing staph or strep infection

292
Q

Presentation of toxic shock syndrome?

A

Fever, flu-like sxs, N+V, diarrhoea, widespread sunburn like rash. lips/tongue/whites of eye turning bright red, dizziness and syncope, dyspnoea, confusion

293
Q

Management of toxic shock syndrome?

A

Antibiotics and fluids

294
Q

What causes scarlet fever?

A

Group A strep- affects people with recent strep throat or impetigo. Children over 3 at risk

295
Q

Symptoms of scarlet fever?

A

Sudden fever a/w sore throat, lymphadenopathy, headache, N+V, loss of appetite, swollen and red strawberry tongue, abdo pain, malaise

12-48 hours after fever=rash: starts below ears/neck/chest/armpit/groin)- scarlet blotches (boiled lobster appearance). Then looks like sunburn with goose pimples, pastia lines (red streaks from ruptured capillaries)

296
Q

Management of scarlet fever?

A

Penicillin

Mostly follows benign course

297
Q

What is Coxsackie’s disease?

A

Hand foot and mouth disease, generally affects under 10s.

Group A coxsackie virus- faecal-oral transmission

298
Q

Presentation of coxsackie’s disease?

A

Prodromal phase then tender oral ulcerative lesions and maculopapular lesions on hands and feet

299
Q

Management of coxsackie’s disease?

A

Supportive mx-fluids, soft diet, antipyretic analgesics, don’t need to isolate the child
Symptoms improve within 3-6 days with full resolution within 7-10 days

300
Q

Red flags for primary immunodeficiency in kids?

A

faltering growth, need IV abx for infections, FH, at least 4 infections a year, at least 2 sinus infections a year, at least 2 pneumonias in past 3 years, frequent deep tissue abscesses, persistent fungal infections (over 6 months), at least 2 deep seated infections over 3 years, at least 2 months on at least 2 abx with little effect

301
Q

What makes you think about developmental delay in children?

A

Global delay= sig delays in at least 2 areas: motor function, speech, language, cognitive, play, social skills
Generally only noticeable once at school age

302
Q

Potential causes of developmental delay?

A
Genetic/hereditary eg Down syndrome
Metabolic eg PKU
Trauma eg shaken baby syndrome
Psychosocial eg PTSD
Toxic eg prenatal alcohol exposure or lead poisoning
Deprivation of food or environment
Infections
May be idiopathic
303
Q

What are febrile convulsions?

A

Commonly in 6months-3 years, when a child has a fever.
Usually benign
NB/ 1 in 3 will have another seizure during subsequent infection

304
Q

Px of febrile convulsion?

A

Last less than 5 mins, child becomes stiff, then limbs twitch, lose consciousness and may wet/soil themselves

May be sick, foam at mouth and eyes may roll back
Sleepy for up to an hour after event

305
Q

What warrants a complex febrile seizure?

A

Lasting over 15 mins, may only affect one side of body

306
Q

Types of epilepsy in childhood?

A

Absence seizures
Childhood epilepsy syndrome (‘benign’ if can predict from EEG that will stop by certain age)
Infantile spasms=West syndrome
Bects: Rolandic epilepsy (benign epilepsy with centro-temporal spikes)
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

307
Q

What warrants a floppy infant?

A

Hypotonia, weakness, ligamentous laxity, increased range of joint mobility

308
Q

What features suggest central hypotonia/UMN in children?

A

Normal strength, dysmorphic features, normal/brisk tendon reflexes, irritability +/- loud cry, history suggestive of HIE (hypoxic-ischaemic encephalopathy)/birth trauma/sxs hypoglycaemia,seizures

Central=2/3 cases, commonly HIE

309
Q

What are indicators of peripheral hypotonia/LMN in children?

A

Decreased strength, reduced/absent reflexes, fasciculation, myopathic face, weak cry

310
Q

Causes of floppy infant?

A

Central hypotonia=acute encephalopathies (HIE, hypoglycaemia, intracranial haemorrhage), chronic encephalopathies (cerebral malformations, metabolism errors, chromosomal disorders, endocrine disorders, metabolic disorders), connective tissue disorders (Ehler-Dahlos, OI)

Peripheral hypotonia= spinal cord (syringomyelia), anterior horn cell (spinal muscular atrophy), NMJ (MG), muscular disorders (dystrophies, myopathies), peripheral nerves, metabolic myopathies

311
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Non progressive interference/lesion/abnormality leading to a disorder of movement and/or posture and of motor function

Damage to immature brain (most between 24 weeks and term)

312
Q

Classification of cerebral palsy?

A

Spastic, athetoid (hyperkinesia, ‘stormy movement’), ataxic, mixed

313
Q

Presentation of cerebral palsy?

A

Motor features- mono/hemi/para/quadriplegia
Don’t meet developmental milestones eg not sitting by 8 months, not walking by 18 months, early hand preference before 1 year
GORD, epilepsy, vomiting, constipation, bladder issues, drooling, orthopaedic problems all common

314
Q

How to diagnose cerebral palsy?

A

Definitive dx may not come until 12-18 months

Clinical observation and parental observation

315
Q

Fits, faints and funny turns causes?

A

In sleep: benign neonatal sleep myoclonus and parasomnias
On feeding: GORD and sandifer syndrome
Fever: febrile seziures, vaso-vagal syncope
Pain/shock/startle: reflex asystolic syncope, cyanotic breath holding, hyperekplexia
Tired/bored/stress: self gratification behaviour, tics, daydreaming
Excitement: shuddering spells, cataplexy

316
Q

Potential childhood motor disease?

A

Tourette syndrome and tics, tremor, dystonia, ataxia, restless legs syndrome, myoclonus, juvenile huntington disease

317
Q

DSM-V criteria for ADHD

A

Symptoms must be present before age 12, and present in at least 2 settings, affect functioning.

At least 6 symptoms of inattention for at least 6 months
or
At least 6 symptoms of hyperactivity for at least 6 months

318
Q

Non drug management of ADHD

A

parent education and training
CBT can be offered
Meds not advised for pre-school children

Advice: plan day, clear boundaries, brief and specific instructions, incentive schemes, kep social situations short and sweet, exercise, healthy diet, bedtime routine, help at school

319
Q

Medical management of ADHD

A

Stimulant drugs (increase dopamine):
Short acting methylphenidate eg ritalin
Long acting methylphenidate eg delmosart
Lisdexamfetamine

Non stimulant drugs (reduced breakdown of noradrenaline):
Atomoxetine (SNRI), guanfacine

320
Q

Describe autism spectrum disorders

A

Abnormal development from under 3 years old
Abnormal functioning in reciprocal social interaction, communication and restricted, stereotyped and repetitive behaviour

Diagnosis requires at least 6 symptoms across 3 core areas

321
Q

Management of autism spectrum disorders

A

Non-pharm management
behavioural therapies, social skills groups, OT, communication interventions, input from dietician if needed, specialised educational programs and structured support

322
Q

ICD-10 for anorexia nervosa

A
Deliberately keeping weight below 85% of expected via restricted diet choice, excessive exercise, induced vomiting, use of appetite suppressants and diuretics
Dread of fatness-intrusive overvalued idea
Endocrine effects (menstruation stops/puberty delayed if menarche not yet achieved, loss of sexual interest in men)
323
Q

How to screen for eating disorders?

A

SCOFF

Do you make yourself sick because you’re uncomfortably full?
Do you worry that you’ve lost control over how much you eat?
Have you recently lost more than one stone (about 6kg) in 3 months?
Do you believe you are fat when others say you are thin?
Would you say that food dominates your life?

324
Q

Potential clinical signs of anorexia nervosa?

A

Dry skin, lanugo hair, orange skin and palms, cold hands and feet, bradycardia, drop in BP on standing, oedema, weak proximal muscles (squat test)

325
Q

Management of anorexia nervosa?

A

Anorexia nervosa focused family therapy

326
Q

Define bulimia nervosa

A

Binges followed by compensatory weight loss behaviours eg self induced vomiting, fasting, intensive exercise, abuse of medication
BMI maintained at over 17.5

327
Q

Presentation of diabetes in children?

A

Tiredness, toilet, thirsty, thinner

328
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes in children?

A

Random plasma glucose > 11.1 mmol/L if symptomatic

329
Q

Normal fasting blood glucose? post prandial glucose? ketones?

A

Fasting: 3.5-5.6mmol/L
Post prandial: <7.8
Ketones: <0.6

330
Q

DKA management?

A

Fluid, insulin, monitor glucose hourly, monitor electrolytes especially potassium and ketones 2-4 hourly, hourly neuro obs

331
Q

Fluids in DKA?

A

0.9% NaCl 20ml/kg bolus if shocked, 10ml/kg if not shocked
Maintenance and deficit fluids

5% fluid deficit in mild DKA
7% deficit in moderate
10% deficit in severe
Do no subtract boluses given for shock

332
Q

Initial management of type I diabetes mellitus in kids?

A

Aim for glucose 4-7: need to be able to check this
Give insulin (pump or injection): basal bolus regime most common
Carb counting
Advice for hypos
Lifestyle advice

333
Q

Carb counting in DMT1?

A

Insulin:carb ratio= 1 unit for every 15 grams of carb
Correction factor= 1 unit insulin brings blood glucose down by 8
Aim for glucose of 6

334
Q

Presentation of hypoglycaemia?

A

Autonomic fxs: irritable, hungry, nauseous, shaky, anxious, sweaty
Neuroglycopenic fxs: confused, drowsy, headache, coma, seizures

335
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia?

A

Check levels to confirm
Glucose tablets/gel/containing food or drink first
Check glucose in 15 mins
Follow up with longer acting carb (bread or biscuit)

Severe hypo (requiring additional assistance from another person)= IM glucagon

336
Q

Long term management of diabetes?

A

Aim for HbA1c less than 48mmol/mol

Monitoring at least annually: eyes, urine, feet, BP, injection sites, bloods

337
Q

Types of cryptorchidism?

A

True undescended= lies along normal path of descent but never present in scrotum
Ectopic testis= lies outside normal path and outside of scrotum
Ascending testis=previously in scrotum but higher now
Absent/atrophic testis=non palpable testis was in scrotum at birth but later disappears

338
Q

How to manage ?cryptorchidism?

A

6-8 week baby check exam
If not descended, re examine at 4-5 months to see if spontaneous descent
If not surgical treatment (orchodexy) before 12 months of age

339
Q

Pathophysiology of testicular torsion?

A

Testis twists around spermatic cord and cuts off the blood supply to the testicle

340
Q

Presentation of testicular torsion?

A

Sudden severe pain on one side of the scrotum, scrotal skin swells and turns red
Nausea and vomiting potential
May have just abdominal pain

341
Q

Management of testicular torsion?

A

Surgical emergency: blood supply must be restored within 6 hours or the testicle will infarct
If surgery delayed past 12 hours, 75% will need orchidectomy
Newborns with torsion- testes almost always infarcted so need orchidectomy

342
Q

What is a bell clapper deformity?

A

No tissue holding the testes to the scrotum so testes swing inside the scrotum= higher risk of torsion

343
Q

Cut offs for precocious puberty?

A

Girls under 8

Boys under 9

344
Q

2 types of precocious puberty?

A

Gonadotrophin dependent/ central precocious puberty= true precocious puberty with premature activation of the HPG axis

Gonadotrophin independent/precocious pseudopuberty= due to increased production of sex hormones

345
Q

Causes of central precocious puberty?

A

Mainly idiopathic or abnormalities of CNS

346
Q

Causes of precocious pseudopuberty?

A

CAH, tumours (HCG secreting), McCune- Albright syndrome, silver-russell syndrome, testotoxicosis, exogenous androgen exposure, severe hypothyroidism

347
Q

What can you give for true precocious puberty?

A

GnRH agonists

348
Q

Define delayed puberty

A
Girls= absence of breast development by 13 or primary amenorrhoea with normal breast development by 15
Boys= absence of testicular development by age 14
349
Q

Causes of delayed puberty

A

Most common= constitutional delay in growth and puberty (CDGP)

Central causes= CDGP, chronic illness, malnutrition, excessive exercise, psychosocial deprivation, steroids, hypothyroid, tumours, congential anomalies, irradiation treatment, trauma, idiopathic hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

Peripheral causes= bilat testicular damage, syndromes eg Prader-Willi, Klinefelter, rugs. irradation, Turner syndrome, intersex disorders, PCOS

350
Q

How to manage delayed puberty?

A

Most are CDGP so need reassurance and monitoring

Can start course of sex hormones (low dose testosterone or gradual increase of oestrogen then cyclical progestogen)

351
Q

Causes of congenital hypothyroidism

A

Thyroid dysgenesis, thyroid hormone metabolism disorders, hypothalamic/pituitary dysfunction,

352
Q

What happens in congenital hypothyroidism isn’t treated?

A

cretinism: long term irreversible neurological problems and poor growth with intellectual disability

spasticity, gait problems, dysarthria, profound mental disability

353
Q

How to treat congenital hypothyroidism?

A

levothyroxine titrated to TFTs

354
Q

Define gonadotrophin deficiency/hypogonadotrophinism

A

Low serum concentrations of LH and FSH in presence of low circulating concentrations of sex steroids

355
Q

How to manage gonadotrophin deficiency?

A

Induce and maintain secondary sexual characteristics- testosterone and hCG or oestrogen and progestogen

356
Q

What is Kallmann syndrome?

A

Hypothalamic gonadotrophin releasing hormone deficiency (GnRH) and deficient olfactory sense (hyposmia or anosmia)

X linked recessive or autosomal recessive
Greater penetrance in males

357
Q

Presentation of Kallmann syndrome?

A
Females= primary amenorrhoea
Males= cryptorchidism, micropenis

Most are normal stature
Lots have associated stigmata- nerve deafness, colour blind, cleft palate, renal abnormalities

358
Q

How to manage Kallmann syndrome?

A

Exogenous sex steroids to induce and maintain secondary sexual characteristics

359
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

Group of autosomal recessive disorders of cortisol biosynthesis+/- aldosterone +androgen excess

21-hydroxylase deficiency

360
Q

What is the classic form of CAH?

A

Ambiguous external genitalia in girls

Boys have no signs at birth

361
Q

What is the salt-losing form of CAH?

A

Boys present at 7-14 days with vomiting weight loss, lethargy, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia and dehydration
Girls will be identified before a crisis due to genitalia

362
Q

How to manage classic CAH?

A

Glucocorticoid replacement= hydrocortisone
+/- Mineralcorticoids= fludrocortisone
Salt losing form need NaCl
Consider surgery for genitalia

363
Q

Types of androgen insensitivity syndrome? describe

A

Complete=testosterone has no effect so genitals are entirely female
Partial= testosterone has some effect so genitals not as expected eg penis underdeveloped, fully/partial cryptorchidism, some female genitalia.

364
Q

How will females with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome present? and partial?

A

Complete=Develop breasts but amenorrhoea, no pubic or axillary hair, no womb or ovaries

Partial=enlarged clitoris, undescended testicles, hypospadias, often raised as boys

365
Q

Causes of childhood obesity?

A

Diet, exercise lack, sleep deprivation (low leptin and high ghrelin), genetics, socio-economics, medication, endocrine eg PCOS/hypothyroid/Cushings/Prader-Willi

366
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

Low MCV: iron deficiency, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, lead toxicity, inflammation, haemoglobinopathy

367
Q

Presentation of anaemia?

A

Pallor, pale conjuctivae, tachycardia, murmur, irritability, lethargy, poor growth, weakness, sob, signs of haemolysis eg splenomegaly

368
Q

Risk factors for iron deficiency anaemia in infants and children?

A

Infants= maternal iron deficiency, premature, low birth weight, multiple pregnancy, exclusively breastfed after 6 months, excess cow’s milk consumption, aboriginal

Children=veggie/vegan, GI disorders, chronic blood loss, heavy menstrual bleeding, extreme athletes

369
Q

Why are kids more susceptible to iron deficiency anaemia than adults?

A

30% of their iron comes from diet and 70% from recycled rbcs (whereas adults have 5% from diet and 95% from recycling)
Have higher expenditure

370
Q

Management of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Diet advice and iron supplementation (generally oral)

371
Q

Which type of thalassaemia is generally incompatible with life?

A

alpha major (4/4 genes missing to make alpha chain)

372
Q

What may carriers of thalassaemia have?

A

Mild microcytic hypochromic anaemia

373
Q

Presentation of beta thalassaemia major?

A

Progressive severe anaemia if left untreated

Try to compensate with bone marrow expansion (deformity) and extramedullary haematopoiesis

374
Q

How to manage beta thalassaemia major?

A

Genetic counselling and antenatal diagnosis
Regular transfusion with iron chelation therapy to prevent iron overload
May need bone marrow transplantation

375
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

transplacental maternal antibodies causing alloimmune haemolysis of foetal rbcs
Most commonly due to rhesus alloimmunisation (Rh + rbcs from foetus enter rh - maternal blood circulation)

376
Q

Why does haemolytic disease of newborn occur then and not in utero?

A

In utero, bilirubin cleared by placenta

In neonate, liver does clearing and can’t handle high bilirubin load

377
Q

Presentation of haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Jaundice
Pallor
Hepatosplenomegaly
Severe= oedema, ascites, petechiae

378
Q

What anaemia will haemolytic disease of newborn present as?

A

Normocytic. Increased reticulocyte count

379
Q

Management of haemolytic disease of newborn?

A
50%= normal Hb and bilirubin and need monitoring for late onset anaemia at 6-8 weeks 
25%= mod disease and may require transfusion
25%= severe disease= stillborn or have hydrops fetalis- require immediate resus, temp stabilisation, exchange transfusion.
380
Q

Pathophysiology of sickle cell disease?

A

Autosomal recessive condition
Adenine to thymine base change causes glutamic acid to become valine
HbS
Sickling causes deformed and easily destroyed rbcs= occlusion of microcirculation and chronic haemolytic anaemia

381
Q

When do symptoms of sickle cell disease start to present? WHy?

A

Between 3 and 6 months as HbF levels fall

382
Q

Complications of sickle cell disease?

A

Life expectancy 20 years younger

Stroke, aplastic crisis, painful crises, splenic sequestration, acute chest syndrome

383
Q

How to manage sickle cell disease?

A

Most complications require urgent blood transfusions
Long term: hydroxycarbamide, prevent infection (influenza, pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines, penicillin), transfusion programmes, stem cell transplants, gene therapies, prevent crises (eg dehydration precipitates sickling)

384
Q

How does hydroxycarbamide help in sickle cell disease?

A

Increases foetal haemoglobin production

385
Q

What is fanconi anaemia?

A

X-linked/autosomal recessive condition

Bone marrow failure, solid tumours, leukaemia

386
Q

How to manage fanconi anaemia?

A

Treat specific symptoms in each patient
Only curative= stem cell transplant
Cancer treatment
Surgery for skeletal malformations

387
Q

what factor is deficient in haemophilia a

A

clotting factor VIII (classic haemophilia, most common)

388
Q

what factor is deficient in haemophilia b

A

clotting factor IX (also known as christmas disease)

389
Q

how does severe haemophilia present?

A

Increased APTT

Prolonged bleeding, muscle and joint bleeds

390
Q

how does mild/mod haemophilia present?

A

Delayed presentation until following trauma or bleeds with surgery/dental extractions

391
Q

Management of haemohpilia?

A

Factor VIII for haemophilia a

Factor IX for haemophilia b

392
Q

How does von willebrand factor work?

A

Assists in platelet plug formation by attracting circulating platelets and binds to CF VIII, preventing its clearance from the plasma

393
Q

Presentation of von willebrand disease?

A

NB more severe in patients with blood group O

Bleeding tendency from mucosa eg epistaxis/menorrhagia, spontaneous bleeding

394
Q

Describe the types of von willebrand disease?

A

Type 1=quantitative- mild
Type 2= qualitative- variable
Type 3=quantitative- very low undetectable levels, most severe form, has low factor VIII

395
Q

How to manage von willebrand disease?

A

tranexamic acid and desmopressin
or
concetrates with vwf or factor VIII-vwf

Testing for 1st degree relatives

396
Q

When does immune thrombocytopenia occur?

A

Commonly after viral infection or sometimes after immunisation

397
Q

Presentation of ITP?

A

Usually self limiting and recovers in 6-8 weeks
Some asx
Most- petechiae or bruising, epistaxis
Less common= GI bleeds, haematuria, menorrhagia

398
Q

Management of ITP?

A

For most- not treatment, avoids NSAIDs and aspirin, advice and support
If bleeding actively may need prednisolone, IVIg and Iv anti-D Ig in rhesus positive babies

399
Q

Commonest cancer in children?

A

Leukaemia- ALL and then AML

400
Q

Pathophysiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

Disruption of lymphoid precursor cells in the bone marrow leading to excessive production of immature blast cells: causes drop in functional RBCs/WBCs/platelets

401
Q

Presentation of leukaemia in children?

A
Anaemia (lethargy, pallor)
Thrombocytopenia (easy bruising/bleeding)
Leukopenia (fevers, infections)
May complain of bone pain
Non specific sxs (weight loss, malaise)
402
Q

Investigations for leukaemia?

A
FBC (pancytopenia, thrombocytopenia with significant lymphocytosis), serum biochemistry 
Blood films (blast cells)
CXR (exclude mediastinal mass)
Bone marrow aspirate confirms diagnosis
LP
403
Q

Management of leukaemia in children?

A

Chemo, supportive care with blood products, prophylactic anti-fungals
Chemo in 5 phases (induction, consolidation, interim maintenance, delayed intensification, maintenance)
Maintenance= 2 years for girls and 3 years for boys

Stem cell transplants in high risk patients in 1st remission or relapsed patients

404
Q

Name 5 different types of primary brain tumour?

A

Astrocytoma, medulloblastoma, diffuse midline glioma, ependymoma, craniopharyngioma, embryonal tumours, pineoblastoma, brainstem glioma, choroid plexus carcinoma, germ cell tumour

405
Q

What is the most common brain and spinal cord tumour in children (apart from mets)?

A

Astrocytoma

406
Q

Presentation of brain tumour?

A

morning headaches, nausea/vomiting, diplopia, seizure, increased head circumference, bulging fontanelle, signs of raised intracranial pressure

407
Q

4 main types of astrocytoma?

A

Grade 1=pilocytic astrocytoma
Grade 2=diffuse (fibrillary) astrocytoma
Grade 3=anaplastic astrocytoma
Grade 4=glioblastoma multiforme

80% are low grade (1 or 2)

408
Q

What is the most common high grade brain tumour in children?

A

Medulloblastoma (2nd most common overall)

Most commonly found in cerebellum

409
Q

What is Wilm’s tumour? How presents?

A

Most common paediatric renal mass= nephroblastoma
Painless upper quadrant abdominal mass, haematuria in 20%, hypertension in 25%, ,may have acquired von willebrand disease

410
Q

how to manage wilm’s tumour?

A

Nephrectomy and chemo

Cure in about 90% cases

411
Q

How does neuroblastoma present?

A

Presents late- majority of symptoms due to mass effect or mets.

Systemic fxs, bruising, weakness/paralysis/BB dysfunction, bone pain, abdominal distension, htn, horner’s syndrome

Almost all are stage 3 or 4 at diagnosis

412
Q

Where does neuroblastoma arise from?

A

Adrenal or paraspinal sites most common

arises from developing sympathetic nervous system

413
Q

Investigating neuroblastoma?

A

FBC, esr, pt, catecholamine by products in urine, CT, MRI for paraspinal lesions, biopsy

414
Q

Presentation of retinoblastoma?

A

Leukocoria (abnormal appearance of pupil), visual deterioration, red and irritated eye, faltering growth, squint, absent red reflex

415
Q

Management of retinoblastoma?

A

Eye conserving treatments eg cryo/thermotherapy, photocoagulation, chemo
Enucleation for all unilateral tumours filling over half of the eye or invading eye structures and subsequent fitting of prosthesis
V sensitive to radiotherapy

416
Q

Which childhood cancer has the best overall survival?

A

Retinoblastoma (about 99%)

417
Q

What are the 2 main types of primary bone tumour in in children?

A

Osteosarcoma (more common) or ewing’s sarcoma (v rare)

418
Q

Presentation of hepatoblastoma?

A

Abdominal mass +/- poor appetite, weight loss, lethargy, fever, vomiting, jaundice

419
Q

Investigating hepatoblastoma?

A

Raised alpha fetoprotein

420
Q

What immunisations at 8 weeks?

A

6 in 1
rotavirus
men B

421
Q

What is contained in the 6 in 1 vaccination?

A

diphtheria, hepatitis b, Hib, polio, tetanus, whooping cough

422
Q

What immunisations at 12 weeks?

A

6 in 1, PCV (pneumococcal), rotavirus

423
Q

What immunisations at 16 weeks?

A

6 in 1, Men B

424
Q

What immunisations at 1 year?

A

Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, MenB

425
Q

What immunisations at 3 years 4 months?

A

MMR, 4 in 1 pre school booster (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio)

426
Q

What immunisations at 12-13 years?

A

HPV

427
Q

What immunisations at 14 years?

A

3 in 1 teenage booster (tetanus, diphtheria, polio), MenACWY

428
Q

What is klinefelter’s syndrome?

A

Extra X chromosome (commonly 47XXY)

429
Q

How does klinefelter’s syndrome present in kids?

A

Delayed speech or learning difficulties, rapid growth in mid-childhood or truncal obesity, hypogonadism

Small firm testes, decreased facial and pubic hair, loss of libido, impotence, gynaecomastia, history undescened testes

Infertility

430
Q

Diagnosis of klinefelter’s? Management?

A

Low/low-normal testosterone, elevated FSH and LH, chromosomal analysis

Testosterone replacement

431
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome?

A

Loss or abnormality of 2nd X chromosome in phenotypic girls

45X

432
Q

Different age presentations of Turners syndrome?

A

Newborns: borderline small, lymphoedema of hands/feet, excessive skin at nape of neck, cardiac abnormalities

Infants: close to third centile, feeding difficulties, poor weight gain, poor sleeping

Preschool: short stature, recurrent middle ear infections, behavioural difficulties, high activity levels

Adolescence: ovarian failure, impaired pubertal growth spurt, obesity, htn, higher prevalence immune disorders, foot problems, learning disabilities

Can have dysmorphic features eg webbed neck, short fingers, lymphoedema, high palate

Can have renal and heart problems

433
Q

how to diagnose turner’s syndrome?

A

Via amniocentesis
Chromosomal analysis
Measure gondatrophins, TFTs, renal and heart tests, bone age

434
Q

Management of turner’s syndrome?

A

MDT
Short stature- GH therapy
May supplement with oestrogen
Gonadal failure-combined oestrogen and progestogen

435
Q

Neonatal features of down’s syndrome?

A

Hyperflexibility, muscular hypotonia, transient myelodysplasia, bradycephaly, oblique palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, ring or iris speckles (brushfield spots), low set/folded ears, stenotic meatus, flat nasal bridge, protruding tongue, high arched palate, loose skin on nape of neck, single palmar crease, short little finger, short broad hands, gap between hallux and second toes, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia

436
Q

What is down’s syndrome? Biggest risk factor?

A

trisomy 21

maternal age

437
Q

Management of down’s syndrome?

A

Annual health checks-hearing, resp (OSA), eyes, heart, neurological, GI, hip, thyroid. Extra support in academia and help with living.

438
Q

What is edward’s syndrome?

A

Trisomy 18

439
Q

Presentation of edward’s syndrome?

A

More likely to be female
Low birth weight, craniofacial abnormalities (low set and malformed ears, micrognathia, prominent occiput, small facial features, microcephaly, cleft lip), skeletal abnormalities, congenital heart defects, GI abnormalities, GU abnormalities (horse shoe kidney), neurological problems, pulmonary hypoplasia

440
Q

Management of edward’s syndrome? What to take into account when making decisions?

A

Feeding difficulties common, 38.5% foetuses die during labour
Chance of survival to 3 months is 20% and to 1 year=8%

May decide to not give life sustaining treatment.

Otherwise manage cardiac failure and resp insufficiency

441
Q

What is patau syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13

442
Q

Presentation of patau syndrome?

A

Many never survive until term and are stillborn or spontaneously abort
Low birth weight, congenital heart defects, holoprosencephaly causing midline facial defects, brain and cns abnormalities, GI and GU malformations

443
Q

Life expectancy of patau syndrome?

A

median is 2.5 days. About 50% live over a week, 5-10% live over a year

444
Q

What is fragile x syndrome?

A

Most common cause of sex linked general learning disability. Delayed milestones and typical features eg high forehead, large testicles, facial asymmetry, large jaw and long ears.

445
Q

Potential diagnoses coming under fragile x syndrome?

A

ADHD, ASD, obsessive compulsive behaviours, emotional lability, aggressive behaviours, specific speech disorders eg echolalia and perseveration

446
Q

Management of fragile x patients?

A

MDT approach and manage each syptom
No cure
Most diagnosed by age 3 usually

447
Q

Name 4 types of muscular dystrophy?

A

duchenne muscular dystrophy ( most common and one of most severe) , myotonic dystrophy, facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy, becker muscular dystrophy, limb girdle muscular dystrophy, emery-dreifuss muscular dystrophy

448
Q

Male infant not walking by 18 months- concern? what test?

A

Concerned about duchenne muscular dystrophy

measure creatine kinase

449
Q

Presentation of ?muscular dystrophy?

A

Gower’s maneouvre (stands up by facing floor, wide feet, lift bottom first then hands walked up legs)
Waddling gait, lordosis/scoliosis, large calves and leg muscles compared to other muscles

450
Q

Management of muscular dystrophy?

A

Depends on type and severity eg mobility and breathing assistance
Steroids
Ataluren if has DMD, is over 5 and can still walk
Creatine supplements
Treat swallow and heart complications

451
Q

What features would make you suspect Angleman’s syndrome?

A

Developmental delay apparent by 6 months, but forward progression with no loss of skills once acquired
Sitting late at 12 months, walking late at 3-4 years, 10% can’t walk, flat and turned out feet, lean forward when run, speech impairment, laughter and smiling/happy demeanour, excitable personality. hand-flapping, short attention span, microcephaly, epilepsy, sleep disorders, excess chewing, drooling, fascination with water, hypopigmentation, prominent mandible

452
Q

What is the lifespan of angleman’s syndrome?

A

normal lifespan

453
Q

Presentation prader willi syndrome?

A

Hypotonia, developmental delay, obesity, learning disability, behavioural problems

454
Q

Genetics of angleman’s syndrome?

A

Maternal deletion of chromosome 15 or paternal uniparental disomy

455
Q

Genetics of prader willi syndrome?

A

Paternal deletion of chromosome 15 or maternal uniparental disomy

456
Q

Diagnostic criteria for prader willi?

A

Between birth and 3 years: 5 points including 4 major
3 years-adult=8 points including 5 major

Major (1 point); hypotonia with poor suck, feeding problems, excessive weight gain 1-6 years, characteristic facies, hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, global developmental delay, hyperphagia, chromosomal abnormality

Minor (0.5 points); infantile lethargy, behavioural problems, sleep disturbance, short and failed pubertal growth spurt, hypopigmentation, small hands and feet, narrow hands, eye abnormalities, thick saliva, speech articulation defects, skin picking

457
Q

Management of prader willi?

A

MDT
GH treatment to maintain normal growth
SSRIs trial
No role for appetite suppressants

458
Q

What is noonan’s syndrome (formerly leopard syndrome)?

A

Autosomal dominant condition characterised by: congenital heart disease, short stature, broad and webbed neck, sternal deformity, developmental delay, facial features, cryptorchidism, increased bleeding tendency

459
Q

What is william’s syndrome?

A

Rare autosomal dominant disease characterised by CV disease, distinctive facies, connective tissue abnormalties, intellectual disability, growth and endocrine abnormalities

Specific cognitive profile: good on verbal short term memory and language, but poor visuospatial construction

Overly friendly

Infantile hypercalcaemia

460
Q

Management of william’s syndrome?

A

MDT management- manage infantile hypercalcaemia with diet and corticosteroids, yearly surveillance, monitoring CV complications

461
Q

4 domains of developmental milestones?

A

Gross motor, fine motor and vision, speech and language and hearing, social interaction and self care skills

462
Q

Development of gross motor skills?

A
Newborn: flexed arms and legs, equal movement in all 4 limbs
3 months: lifts head when on tummy
6 months: can lift chest up with support from arms, rolls, can sit unsupported
9 months: pulls to stand
1 year: walking
2 years: walks up steps
3 years: jumps
4 years: hops
5years: rides a bike
463
Q

Development of fine motor and vision skills?

A
4 mo: palmar grasp
8 mo: cube in each hand
12 mo: scribble with crayon, pincer grip
18 mo: tower of 2 cubes
3 years: tower of 8 cubes
464
Q

Development of speech, language and hearing?

A

3 mo: laugh and squeal
9 mo: ‘dada’, ‘mama’
12 mo: 1 proper word
2 years: 2 word sentences, names body parts
3 years: speech mainly understandable
4 years: knows colours, can count 5 objects
5 years: knows meaning of words eg lake

465
Q

Development of social and self care?

A

6 weeks: smile spontaneously
6 mo: finger feeds
9 mo: wave bye bye
12 mo: uses spoon/fork
2 years: take some clothes off, feed a doll
3 years: play with others, name a friend, put on t shirt
4 years: dress with no help, play simple board game

466
Q

Gross motor developmental red flags?

A

Not sitting by 1 year, not walking by 18 months

467
Q

Fine motor developmental red flags?

A

hand preference before 18 months

468
Q

Speech and language developmental red flags?

A

no clear words by 18 months

469
Q

Social developmental red flags?

A

No smiling by 3 months, no response to carers interactions by 8 weeks, not interested in playing with peers at 3 years

470
Q

What counts as a global developmental delay?

A

Over 2 or more domains

471
Q

What is the mildest form of OI?
Lethal form?
Commonests?

A

Type I is mildest
Type II is lethal
Type I is commonest= 60%

472
Q

What is rickets?

A

Severe vitamin D deficiency (child version of osteomalacia)

473
Q

Pathophysiology of rickets?

A

lack of vit D; inadequate mineralisation of bone matrix
Decreased vit D > decreased calcium and phosphate > secondary hyperparathyroidism
In children, this occurs before the growth plates have closed.

474
Q

Presentation of rickets?

A

Hypocalcaemic seizures or tetany, bony deformity (eg genu varum and valgum), irritable and reluctant to weight bear, severe can result in cardiomyopathy

Delayed walking, waddling gait, impaired growth, fractures, dental deformities

475
Q

Investigating rickets?

A

Bloods, wrist X ray (long bone showing cupping, splaying and fraying of metaphysis eg champagne glass wrist) required for diagnosis

476
Q

Management of rickets?

A

Diet, sunlight, vit D supplementation=oral calciferol and calcium supplement
Maintenance dose of calciferol is recommended for family members

477
Q

Presentation of transient synovitis?

A

Progressive pain (hip, groin, thigh), limp (inability to weight bear), fever and instability, acute onset

Usually no pain at rest, systemically well

Often preceded by a viral infection
More common in boys
Most common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-10

Usually no findings on esr/crp, xray, uss

478
Q

management of transient synovitis?

A

NO long term sequelae and self limiting

Simple analgesia, rest and physio
Usually resolves within 2 weeks

479
Q

Presentation of septic arthritis?

A

Most are under 2 years

Fever, pain at rest, inability to weight bear, irritability, if hip=flexed and abducted and externally rotated

Increased ESR
Mainly hip/knee/ankle/shoulder/elbow

480
Q

Most common cause of septic arthritis?

A

S. aureus

481
Q

Management of suspected septic arthritis?

A

FBC, ESR/CRP, synovial fluid examination and culture, blood cultures. Xray will show later changes (14-21 days)

Surgical emergency: surgical drainage and IV antibiotics- cefuroxime

482
Q

Most common site of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Distal femur and proximal tibia

483
Q

Pathophysiology of osteomyelitis?

A

Infection of bone marrow, commonly S. aureus
Inflammatory destruction of bone.
If periosteum involved: necrosis and detachment forming a sequestrum
Bony remodelling causes deformity

NB/ involucrum= viable periosteum separated from underlying bone and forms new bone around it

484
Q

What is the likely mechanism of osteomyelitis in children?

A

Haematogenous spread- tends to occur in rapidly growing and highly vascular metaphysis of growing bones (long bones more common)

485
Q

Investigating osteomyelitis?

A

FBC, ESR/CRP, blood cultures, bone cultures (gold standard), MRI

486
Q

Management of osteomyelitis?

A

Local bone and soft tissue debridement, stabilisation of bone, local antibiotic therapy, reconstruction of soft tissue, reconstruction of osseous defect zone

Antibiotic therapy 4-6 weeks if acute, at least 12 weeks if chronic

487
Q

What is perthe’s disease?

A

Self limiting hip disorder caused by varying degrees of ischaemia and subsequent necrosis of the femoral head
There is abnormal growth of epiphysis and eventual remodelling of regenerated bone

Symptoms occur with subchondral collapse and fracture

488
Q

Key points in history for perthe’s disease?

A

Commonly 5-10 year olds and caucasian. Boys are 80% of cases
Developed over weeks
No history of trauma
All hip movements limited
Subacute limp
May have referred pain to groin/thigh/knee
Unilateral normally
Systemically well
Internal rotation of hip causes guarding or spasm (roll test)

489
Q

Management of perthe’s disease?

A

If bone age under 6 years: activity restriction, physio, nsaids
If bone age over 6 years: surgery

490
Q

What is Kohler’s disease?

A

Osteochondrosis of tarsal navicular bone

A non inflammatory, none infectious derangement of bony growth, affecting the epiphyses

491
Q

Presentation of kohler’s disease?

A

Unilateral antalgic gait, local tenderness of medial aspect of foot over navicular bone

492
Q

Management of kohler’s disease?

A

Rest, analgesia, avoid excessive weight bearing, short leg cast for immobilisation, treat for at least 6 weeks
Chronic course but rarely over 2 years

493
Q

3 types of discoid meniscus?

A

Incomplete (bit thicker and wider than normal), complete (tibia completely covered by meniscus) and hypermobile wrisberg (normal shape but no posterior attachment to tibia)

494
Q

How will a discoid meniscus present?

A

More prone to injury than normal shaped meniscus
Some may never experience problems
Most cases= knee problems, vague pain, audible snap on terminal extension, swelling, locking

495
Q

Management of discoid meniscus?

A

If asx, do nothing

otherwise, arthroscopic partial meniscectomy and rehab

496
Q

4 forms of slipped femoral epiphysis?

A
Pre slip (wide epiphyseal line, no slippage)
Acute form (spontaneous, sudden slippage)
Acute on chronic (slippage acutely on already existing chronic slip)
Chronic (steadily progressive slip, 85% cases)

each either stable (can walk) or unstable (can’t walk)

497
Q

Common age for slipped femoral epiphysis?

A

Boys at 13
Girl at 11.5
Ie at onset of puberty
Tends to be in children v tall and thin or v short and obese

498
Q

Presentation of slipped femoral epiphysis?

A

Discomfort in hip/groin/medial thigh/knee during walking and a limp
Drehmann’s sign (passively flex hip, falls back into external rotation and abduction)
Acute= within 3 weeks of onset
Chronic= more than 3 weeks after onset

499
Q

Management of slipped femoral epiphysis?

A

Avoid moving/walking, analgesia and surgery (screw fixation, surgical pinning)

500
Q

What is osgood schlatter disease?

A

Self limiting disorder of the knee

generally in active adolescents before tibial tuberosity has finished ossification, during adolescent growth spurt

501
Q

Presentation of osgood schlatter disease?

A

Gradual onset pain and swelling below knee, relieved by rest, provoked by knee extension or hyperflexing while prone

502
Q

Management of osgood schlatter disease?

A

Conservative: rest, ice, physio and exercise advice, simple analgesia

Most patients able to return to activity after 2-3 weeks

503
Q

Bedside tests for developmental dysplasia of hip?

A
6-8 week baby check:
Observe for symmetry (folds and legs)
Ortolani test (forward pressure to each femoral head- positive=joint laxity)
Barlow test (gentle backward pressure to femoral head- see if dislocatable)

Galeazzi sign (hip and knee at 90 degrees and compared heights of knees)

504
Q

age cut off for uss or pelvic x ray for DDH?

A

Under 4.5 months = USS

Over 4.5 months= pelvic XR

505
Q

Management of DDH?

A

Bracing (<6 months)
Dynamic flexion-abduction orthosis (<4.5-6 months)
Surgery for non response to harness or splint

Prevention= safe swaddling

506
Q

Subtypes of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
Oligoarticular (1-4 joints)
Polyarticular (at least 5 joints)- RF positive or negative
Systemic 
Psoriatic
Enthesitis-related 
Undifferentiated
507
Q

Qualifying factors for it to be systemic JIA?

A

at least 2 weeks of fever with at least one of: rash, ln enlargement, hepato/splenomegaly, serositis= pericarditis/pleuritis/peritonitis

508
Q

Qualifying factors for it to be psoriatic arthritis (JIA)?

A

Arthritis and psoriasis
or
arthritis and at least 2 of: dactylitis, nail pitting, onycholysis, psoriasis in first degree relative

509
Q

Qualifying factors for it to be enthesitis related arthritis?

A

Arthritis or enthesitis and 2 of:

sacroiliac/lumbosacral pain, HLA b27 positive, family history HLA b27 related disease, anterior uveitis

510
Q

Management of JIA?

A

Physio, OT, physical activity encouraged, NSAIDs, steroids, methotrexate

May need to use more novel agents eg biologics- etanacerpt. Or sulfasalazine

511
Q

BLS algorithm key points for children

A

3s’s initially: safety, stimulate, shout

If not breathing normally 5 rescue breaths
15:2 compressions and breaths

Attempt bls for 1 minute before going to get help if by yourself

compressions on lower half of sternum:
2 fingers or thumbs for infants
heel of hand for children
rate= 100-120 bpm

512
Q

Head positions in child bls?

A

Infants under 1= neutral position
Older children= sniffing morning air
Suspected neck injury= jaw thrust otherwise=head tilt and chin lift

513
Q

What is newborn respiratory distress syndrome?

A

Also known as hyaline membrane disease and surfactant deficiency lung disease

Usually affects premature babies who don’t have the necessary surfactant (enough produced by week 34 normally)

514
Q

Presentation of newborn resp distress syndrome?

A

Peripheral and central cyanosis, rapid and shallow breathing, flaring nostrils, grunting

515
Q

Management of newborn resp distress syndrome?

A

Treatment during prem labour= steroid injection before delivery and then a 2nd dose 24 hours later

Treatment after birth= extra oxygen if mild symptoms. More severe= ventilator, dose of artificial surfactant,IV fluids and nutrition

516
Q

What warrants mild chronic lung disease of prematurity (bronchopulmonary dysplasia)?

A

Breathing room air at 36 weeks for babies born before 32 weeks
or
air by 56 days of postnatal age for babies born after 32 weeks

517
Q

What warrants moderate chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Needing less than 30% oxygen at 36 weeks if born before 32 weeks
or
needing less than 30% oxygen at 56 days of postnatal age if born after 32 weeks

518
Q

What warrants severe chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Need more than 30% oxygen to breathe +/- CPAP at 36weeks/56 days postnatal

519
Q

What can be seen on CXR of a baby with chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Diffuse haziness, coarse interstitial pattern=atelectasis, inflammation, +/-pulmonary oedema

520
Q

Management of chronic lung disease of prematurity?

A

Minimise ventilation associated lung injury, continuous oxygen monitoring, nasal CPAP, maintain o2 between 91-95%, send them home on oxygen
Potential: Dexamethasone short term, diuretics, methylxanthines eg caffeine (increases resp drive and decreases apnoea)

521
Q

What is meconium?

A

Dark green faecal material produced during pregnancy, which is passed by the baby

522
Q

Why is meconium aspiration bad?

A

Vasoactive and cytokine substances activate inflammatory pathways and inhibit the effect of surfactant
Causes varying degrees of respiratory distress in the newborn
Potential consequences: airway obstruction, foetal hypoxia, pulmonary inflammation, infection (chemical pneumonia), surfactant inactivation, persistent pulmonary htn

523
Q

Management of meconium aspiration?

A

Depends on severity of resp distress eg obs, routine care, ventilation/oxygen, antibiotics, surfactant, inhaled nitric oxide if pulmonary htn, steroids

524
Q

Prognosis of meconium aspiration?

A

80% have 3-4 day illness then discharged home

Complications= air leak, cerebral palsy, chronic lung disease

525
Q

What is hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy?

A

also known as intrapartum asphyxia

Brain injury caused by oxygen deprivation leading to death or severe impairment eg epilepsy, developmental delay, motor impairment, neurodevelopmental delay and cognitive impairment, cerebral palsy

Damage is permanent

526
Q

What events could lead to asphyxia?

A

Acute maternal hypotension, cardiac complications, injury from umbilical cord, impaired blood flow to brain during birth, intrapartum haemorrhage, placental abruption, labour and delivery stress, trauma etc

527
Q

What comes under TORCH infection?

A
Toxoplasmosis
Others= syphilis, parvovirus b19, vzv, enteroviruses, lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus, HIV, zika
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
HSV
528
Q

What do torch infections generally do?

A

Infections during pregnancy that cause congenital defects
Generally greater risk of harm if mum infected in early pregnancy
Can cause miscarriage or spontaneous abortion

529
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis issues?

A

Chorioretinitis with blindness, anaemia, hepatic and neurological symptoms

530
Q

What can the ‘others’ of Torch infection cause?

A

Syphilis= bowed sabre shins, hutchinson teeth, typical facial appearance
Parvovirus b19= anaemia, hydrops fetalis, myocarditis
VZV= chorioretinitis, cataracts, limb atrophy, cerebral cortical atrophy, neurodisability
Zika= microcephaly, positional/hearing/ocular abnormalities

531
Q

What can rubella do to the neonate?

A

Intrauterine growth restriction, intracranial calcifications, microcephaly, cataracts, cardiac defects, neuro disease
Blueberry muffin appearance
Most occur if exposure during first 16 weeks of pregnancy

532
Q

What can cytomegalovirus do to the neonate?

A

Growth restriction, sensorineural hearing loss, intracranial calcification, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, hepatosplenomegaly, optic atrophy, delayed psychomotor development
More severe in 1st trimester, but more common in 3rd trimester

533
Q

What drug can be used to stop the progression of hearing loss due to CMV?

A

Ganciclovir

534
Q

Describe physiological jaundice in the neonate?

A

Increased rbc breakdown and immature liver function
Present at 2-3 days of age
Jaundice begins to disappear towards end of first week and resolved by 10 days
Bilirubin under 200 micromol/L and baby remains well

535
Q

Causes of early neonatal jaundice aka onset in under 24 hours

A

Haemolytic disease (rhesus, ABO incompatibility, G6PD deficiency, spherocytosis)
Infection (toxoplasmosis/TORCH)
Haematoma
Maternal autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (SLE)
Gilbert’s syndrome
Dubin-Johnson syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome

536
Q

Causes of prolonged neonatal jaundice aka lasting over 14 days (term) or over 21 days (preterm)

A

Infection, hypothyroid, hypopituitarism, galactosaemia, breast milk jaundice, GI eg biliary atresia

537
Q

How common is jaundice in the 1st week of life?

A

60% term and 80% preterm babies develop it

15% of healthy infants get physiological breastmilk jaundice

538
Q

What is kernicterus?

A

A complication of neonatal jaundice- bilirubin encephalopathy (unconjugated)
Occurs mainly in premature babies.

539
Q

Features of kernicterus?

A

Early features= jaundice, hypotonia, poor feeding, absent startle reflex
May then develop: high pitched cry, hypertonia of extensor muscles with arched back and hyperextended neck, bulging fontanelle, seizures

Potential complications= chronic bilirubin encephalopathy, extrapyramidal signs, visual problems, hearing problems, cognitive defects, dental enamel

540
Q

Management of kernicterus?

A

Manage neurological complications, phototherapy and exchange transfusions

541
Q

What is the most common GI emergency in neonates?

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

542
Q

What can be found on examination of a baby with necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Distension, visible intestinal loops, altered stools, bloody mucoid stool and bilious vomiting, decreased bowel sounds, erythema, associated systemic features

543
Q

Management of ?necrotising enterocolitis?

A

Confirm diagnosis by AXR and get baseline biochemistry
Nil by mouth, bowel decompression, Iv fluids and TPN (total parenteral nutrition), IV abx for 10-14 days (gentamicin and metronidazole), surgery if perforated/necrotic bowel suspected

NB/ stages i= suspected, iia=mild, iib=moderate, iiia=advanced, iiib=deteriorating

544
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

Congenital defect of the abdominal wall where the abdominal contents herniate into the amniotic sack (usually the small intestine, but sometimes stomach, colon and ovaries). There is no covering membrane.
The opening is less than 5cm in length

545
Q

Management of gastroschisis?

A

Scheduled preterm delivery may improve the post op outcome.

Primary closure of the defect

546
Q

Simple v complex gastroschisis?

A
Simple= intact, uncompromised and continuous bowel
Complex= bowel perforation, atresia or necrosis
547
Q

Difference between gastroschisis and exomphalos?

A

Exomphalos has bowel contents in a sac, is more variable in size, and has a more central location

Gastroschisis has no covering membrane, is under 5 cm in length and tends to be to the right of umbilical cord insertion

548
Q

What is oesophageal atresia?

A

Congenital abnormality with a blind ending oesophagus in isolation or with at least one fistula(e) communicating between normal oesophagus and trachea (tracheo-oesophageal fistula0

549
Q

Associated anomalies with oesophageal atresia?

A
VACTERL syndrome (vertebral, anorectal, cardiovascular, tracheo-oesophageal, oseophageal atreisa, renal abnormalities, limb)
CHARGE association (coloboma, heart, atresia, retarded development, genital hypoplasia, ear)
Chromosomal abnormalities eg trisomies
550
Q

Postnatal presentation of oesophageal atresia?

A

Respiratory distress, choking, feeding difficulties, frothing in first few hours after birth

551
Q

Management of oesophageal atresia?

A

Surgery

552
Q

Presentation of bowel atresia?

A

Persistent vomiting-often bilious and within hours of birth

on Xray= double bubble sign of duodenal atresia, colonic atresia has normal air levels

553
Q

Most common metabolic problem in neonates?

A

Gestational diabetes and hypoglycaemia

(glucose passes through placenta and elevates glucose levels in foetus, causing increased insulin secretion, this leads to hypoglycaemia)

Plasma glucose under 30 mg/dL

554
Q

Pathophysiology of neonatal hyperthyroidism?

A

Usually caused by maternal graves disease- antibodies cross the placenta and cause the foetus to develop hyperthyroidism

Usually temporary, but can be life threatening.

555
Q

Untreated congenital hyperthyroidism?

A

Risk of craniosynostosis (early skull closing), intellectual disability, growth failure, hyperactivity in later childhood

556
Q

Management of congenital hyperthyroidism?

A

Antithyroids and beta blockers- stopped when antibodies have disappeared (usually fully resolved by 6 months)

NB/ if mum took thyroid drugs during pregnancy, the child may not show symptoms until 3-7 days

557
Q

How many women carry group b strep in genitals?

A

1 in 4

558
Q

Presentation of neonate with GBS infection?

A

Sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis signs, BP changes, seizures

559
Q

Management of GBS infection?

A

IV antibiotics- penicillin G

560
Q

What can listeria do to a neonate?

A

Low birth weight, prematurity, circulatory and/or respiratory insufficiency, meningitis, sepsis

561
Q

Management of neonatal listeria infection?

A

Ampicillin and aminoglycoside eg gentamicin

562
Q

Cause of encephalitis in neonates?

A

HSV2 from vertical transmission

563
Q

Presentation of HSV encephalitis?

A

Non specific: decreased levels of consciousness, seizures, lethargy, fever

564
Q

Management of HSV encephalitis? Prognosis?

A
IV aciclovir
Highly lethal (around 50%)
Complications= deaf, vision loss, cerebral palsy, seizure
565
Q

Management of cleft lip/palate?

A

Surgery
Cleft lip at 3-6 months
Palate at 6-12 months

566
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Conjunctivitis in newborn due to vertical transmission (contact with mum’s birth canal infected by STI)

Commonly chlamydia

Also: haemophilus, strep, staph, pseudomonas, HSV, adenovirus, enterovirus

567
Q

Chance of ophthalmia neonatorum in babies born to untreated chlamydia?

A

30-50%

568
Q

Presentation of ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

Red, discharging, swollen lids, usually bilateral

Lid oedema, conjunctival oedema, mucopurulent conjunctivitis, cornea can be involved

569
Q

Management of ophtalmia neonatorum?

A

Culture conjunctiva and PCR to establish causative organism

Bacterial= systemic penicillin G or cephalosporin for gonorrhoea 
Chlamydia= systemic erythromycin or topical azithromycin 
Herpetic= topical and systemic aciclovir
570
Q

Premature baby still needing breathing support by 36 weeks corrected age = what?

A

Chronic lung disease/ bronchopulmonary dysplasia

Caused by underdeveloped lungs

571
Q

Management of bronchopulmonary dysplasia?

A

Oxygen (can further damage lungs), breathing support (CPAP or mechanical ventilation), may need steroids

572
Q

Pathophysiology of retinopathy of premature baby?

A

Abnormal blood vessel growth are fragile and weak, causing bleeding and leakage
Usually bilateral
Ranges from abnormal blood vessel growth to full retinal detachment (stage i-v)
Can cause blindness

573
Q

Management of retinopathy of premature baby?

A

Laser therapy or cryotherapy: destroys peripheral retina and slows/reverses abnormal vessel growth, but loses some side vision

574
Q

Why are premature babies at risk of osteopenia?

A

May not receive the full amount of calcium and phosphorus needed to form strong bones
Haven’t been as active in the womb and thus have weak bones
Very premature babies lose more phosphorus in urine than term babies
Can be due to low vit D

575
Q

How to treat osteopenia of premature baby?

A

Supplements- calcium and phosphorus added to IV fluids or breast milk
Special formulas if no breast milk
Vit D supplements for babies with liver problems

576
Q

What is periventricular leukomalacia?

A

White matter surrounding ventricles deprived of blood and thus oxygen. This causes softening of the white matter

577
Q

Consequences of periventricular leukomalacia?

A

Most commonly cerebral palsy
May have visual problems and learning disability
Not progressive
Presentation depends on amount of brain tissue damaged

578
Q

What is apnoea in a prem baby?

A

Prem baby pauses breathing for over 15-20 seconds
or
pauses breathing for under 15 seconds but has bradycardia or low sats

Usually self limiting

579
Q

What is transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Caused by leftover fluid in lungs making it harder for the alveoli to stay open
RR over 60
Most improve over 24-48 hours, and most cases self limit

580
Q

Who is more likely to have transient tachypnoea of the newborn?

A

Born before 38 weeks, c-section delivery, born to diabetic or asthmatic mother, twins, male

581
Q

Forms of child abuse

A

Physical, neglect, emotional, sexual

582
Q

What may come under child neglect?

A

Medical eg unimmunised, non attendance
Nutritional eg faltering growth, obesity
Emotional
Educational eg poor school attendance
Physical eg inadequate hygiene, persistent infestation, inappropriate clothing
Failure to supervise eg frequent A+E trips, injury suggesting lack of care such as sun burn

583
Q

Normal presentation/history of toddler’s fracture?

A

Subtle undisplaced spiral fracture of tibia
Usually pre school, sudden twist after an unwitnessed fall
Local tenderness over tibial shaft or on general strain on tibia

584
Q

Criteria for septic arthritis rather than just irritable hip?

A

Kocher’s criteria

Fever over 38.5, cannot weight bear, ESR>40 in 1st hour, WCC>12

585
Q

RFs for DDH?

A

Breech, female, C-section, 1st child, premature, oligohydramnios, FH, club feet, spina bifida, infantile scoliosis

586
Q

What constitutes an atypical UTI in children and what do you need to do if this is the case?

A
Atypical= septicaemia/IV abx needed, non e.coli, poor urine flow, abdo/bladder mass, increase creatinine, failure to respond to treatment within 48 hours
Recurrent= at least 2 episodes with at least 1 with systemic features, or at least 3 episodes without systemic features 

Need to investigate for a structural abnormality

587
Q

How to investigate ?structural abnormality in the case of UTI?

A
  1. USS renal tract (looks at size and drainage of kidneys and bladder)
  2. Micturating cystourethrogram/MCUG (looks for vesicoureteric reflux, looks at bladder and posterior urethral valve)
  3. DMSA scan/radionucleide imaging (looks at renal function and any renal scarring)
588
Q

Features of nephritic syndrome?

A

Haematuria, proteinuria, impaired GFR, salt and water retention (htn and oedema)

589
Q

Management of nephritic syndrome?

A

Fluid balance management (input/output, fluid restriction, diuretics, salt restriction)
Correct other imbalances (K, acidosis)
Dialysis may be needed (uncommon)
Penicillin for treatment of an ongoing strep infection

590
Q

What is choanal atresia?
Presentation?
Management?

A

Failure of the nose to canalise (bony or membranous)
Px: Cyclical cyanosis: cries and goes pink, when stops goes blue and repeat. No misting on a cold spatula
Mx: secure airway and send to tertiary centre for dilatation +/- stent insertion

591
Q

Management of epistaxis?

A

ABC
Med tx= topical naseptin, silver nitrate cautery
Surgical tx= electrocautery

NB/ teenage boy with persistent nosebleeds and nasal obstruction- ?juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

592
Q

Why is sinusitis uncommon in children?

A

Maxillary sinus exists at birth but only grows to full size after 2nd dentition
Ethmomid sinuses only 2-3 cells at birth
No/rudimental frontal sinuses at birth (develop by 7-8 years)

593
Q

Narrowest point in child’s airway vs adult’s?

A

Children=subglottis

Adults=vocal cords

594
Q

What is the most common airway abnormality in children and it’s presentation?

A

Laryngomalacia

Normal voice, stridor worse on feeding/exertion/supine, failure to thrive in 10%, increased work of breathing

595
Q

What tool to produce standardised disability levels and what domains assessed?

A

WHO-DAS (disability assessment schedule)

Cognition, mobility, self care, social, life activities, participation

596
Q

What to do if ESBL for UTI?

A

Resistant to all penicillins and cephalosporins

Therefore switch to IV meropenem (or gentamicin)

597
Q

empirical Abx for pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

598
Q

Medical words for short sighted and long sighted?

Difference of at least 1 unit in refractive error of each eye?

A

Short=myopia
Long=hypermetropia
1 unit difference= asinometropia

599
Q

Treatment of amblyopia?

A
  1. Refractive adaptation (glasses for 16-18 weeks)
  2. Occlusion of better seeing eye (full or part time)
  3. Atropine drops/ointment into better seeing eye (blurs vision due to dilation of pupil and paralysis of accommodation)
600
Q

Ocular movements name for the right movement and left and midline movements?

A

Right= dextro elevation/version/depression
Left=laevo elevation/version/depression
Midline= direct elevation, primary position, direct depression

601
Q

Management of strabismus?

A

Conservative= glasses/contact lenses, prisms (good for diplopia), orthoptic exercises (latent strabismus)
Surgery:
For esotropia; bilateral medial rectus recession or weaken medial rectus+ strengthen lateral rectus in the same eye
For exotropia: bilateral lateral rectus recession or weaken lateral rectus+strengthen medial rectus in same eye

Also: botulinum toxin into muscle that needs weakening, done under ketamine anaesthesia

602
Q

What shape lens for myopia? For hypermetropia?

A

Myopia/short sighted= concave

Hypermetropia/long sighted=convex

603
Q

When do you expect primitive reflexes to disappear?

A

By 4-6 months, lots of babies lose them within 2 months

604
Q

What is sturge weber syndrome?

A

Port wine birthmark on upper half of face, abnormal blood vessels in brain and eye abnormalities (eg glaucoma)

605
Q

What counts as mild dehydration and features?

A

Less than 5%

Thirst, dry lips, restlessness, irritability

606
Q

What counts as moderate dehydration and features?

A

5-10%

Sunken eyes, decrease skin turgor, decreased urine output

607
Q

What counts as severe dehydration and features?

A

Over 10%

Cold, mottled, hypotensive, anuria, decreased consciousness

608
Q

What options for formula for children with cow’s milk protein allergy?

A

Hydrolysed eg althera
Amino acid based eg alfamino
Goat milk formula from birth
Soy formula from 6 months

609
Q

What fluids needed for not dehydrated/dehydrated/shocked?

A

Not dehydrated=maintenance
Dehydrated=maintenance+deficit
Shocked=bolus+maintenance+deficit

610
Q

What maintenance fluids do neonates need?

A

10% glucose with increasing rate every day
Monitor U+Es every day
From day 2 if needed= sodium 2-3mmol/kg/day and potassium 1-2mmol/kg/day

611
Q

How to estimate child’s weight?

A

Weight (kg) = (age (yrs) + 4) x 2

612
Q

What fluids for maintenance in children? How much?

A

0.9% NaCl (normal saline)

First 10kg=100ml/kg
Next 10kg=50ml/kg
Every other kg=20ml/kg

Calculates how much in 24 hours

613
Q

How do you calculate the fluid rate in children?

A

Rate ml/h= total (ml) / 24

614
Q

How to calculate the deficit fluids in children?

A

Deficit x 10 x wt(kg)

Where estimated deficit=
mild= negligible, mod=5%, severe=10%

615
Q

What bolus do you use and which volume?

A

0.9% NaCl, volume=20ml/kg

May use 10ml/kg in some cases eg trauma, DKA
Tends to be 20ml/kg if shocked in DKA, 10ml/kg if not shocked

616
Q

What constitutes faltering growth?

A

Failure to gain adequate weight or height/length during infancy or early childhood

Birth weight <9th centile with a fall across at least 1 wt centiles
Birth weight between 9-91st centile with a fall across at least 2 wt centiles
Birth weight over the 91st centile with a fall across at least 3 wt centiles
Current weight below 2nd centile whatever the birth weight

617
Q

When would you expect a baby to get back to his birth weight?

A

3 weeks

618
Q

What is ARFID?

A

Avoidant or restrictive food intake disorder

Significant weight loss and nutritional deficiencies with a reliance on supplements but not underlying condition causing it

619
Q

Measure of severity of dka and corresponding fluids?

A

Use pH of blood to rate severity

5% fluid deficit in milk DKA= 7.2-7.29 +/or bicarb <15
7% deficit in mod DKA= 7.1-7.19 +/or bicarb <10
10% deficit in severe DKA= <7.1 +/or bicarb <5

Do not subtract boluses given for shock

620
Q

What are the 3 shunts in the foetal circulation?

A

Foramen ovale: right atrium to left atrium (bypass lungs)
Ductus arteriosus: pulmonary artery to aorta
Ductus venosus: bypass liver

621
Q

How will coarctation of the aorta present?

A

Weak femoral pulses
Pre and post ductal difference in saturations if DA still patent
Discrepancy between upper and lower limbs
In older children= may develop murmur over back after collaterals develop

If ductus arteriosus closes straight away: babies present collapsed and acidotic

622
Q

How will aortic stenosis present?

A

Weak pulses all over.
Thrill palpable in suprasternal region and carotid area.
Ejection systolic murmur in aortic area

623
Q

How does pulmonary stenosis present?

A

Ejection systolic murmur in the left upper sternal edge. Murmur often radiates to back. Right ventricular heave if significant stenosis

624
Q

Simple pathophysiology of transposition of great arteries?

A

Pulmonary artery and aorta switched

Deoxygenated blood travels to body and oxygenated blood travels through the lungs

625
Q

What are the causes of hearing loss in children?

A

70% non syndromic eg congenital infections esp CMV, general infections
30% syndromic eg ushers syndrome, wardenbergs syndrome, treacher collins, alport syndrome

626
Q

With conductive hearing loss, where is the problem likely to be?

A

Middle ear eg glue ear, ear wax, perforated ear drum, eustachian tube dysfunction

627
Q

With sensironeural hearing loss, where is the problem likely to be?

A

Inner ear- most cases affecting the cochlea

628
Q

What are the two broad types of hearing test?

A

Objective- otoacoustic emissions, auditory brainstem response
Subjective- distraction test, visual reinforcement audiometry, performance testing, pure tone audiometry

629
Q

Causes of osteoporosis in children?

A

Inherited/congenital eg OI, inborn errors of metabolism, haem problems, idiopathic
Acquired eg drug induced eg steroids, endocrinopathies, malabsorption

630
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

AD inherited condition, v rare
Mostly due to defects in type i collaegen
Characteristed by bone fragility, fractures, deformity, bone pain, poor growth, impaired mobility

631
Q

How can you manage osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

MDT management esp ortho team and metabolic bone specialist

Bisphophonates

632
Q

Describe the types of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

type 1- most common, mild
2- lethal
3- progressively deforming, severe
4- moderate

633
Q

Describe rickets presentation

A

Rachitic rosary, limb deformity, weakness, misery

Metaphyseal swellings, bowing deformities, slowing of linear growth, motor delay, hypotonia, fractures, resp distress

634
Q

Causes of low vit d/rickets?

A

Maternal vitamin D deficiency causes low stores in newborn, exclusive breastfeeding will exacerbate
Lack of dietary intake ie prolonged unsupplemented breastfeeding

635
Q

What may indicate a shaken baby?

A

Hypoxia, subdural haematoma, rib fractures, retinal haemorrhages, may have other fractures, torn frenulum

636
Q

Normal HR, RR and systolic BP for under 1s

A

110-160 bpm
RR: 30-40
BP: 80-90

637
Q

Normal HR, RR and systolic BP for 1-2 yos?

A

100-150 bpm
RR: 25-35
BP: 85-95

638
Q

Normal HR, RR and systolic BP for 2-5 yos?

A

95-140bpm
RR: 25-30
BP: 85-100

639
Q

Normal HR, RR and systolic BP for 5-12 yos?

A

90-110bpm
RR: 20-25
BP: 90-110

640
Q

How should a premature baby be fed?

A

IV fluids/parenteral nutrition as suckle and swallow only starts from 32-34 weeks
Start small volumes of expressed breast milk and build up to full feeds slowly (risk of NEC if too quick)

641
Q

How to manage jaundice?

A

Treat underlying

Phototherapy or exchange transfusions

642
Q

Causes of acute scrotum in children?

A

Testicular torsion!!!

Also torsion of appendix testis (self limiting, but if any diagnostic doubt treat as testicular torsion)

643
Q

Vomits and presentation age in pyloric stenosis, malrotation and intussusception

A

Malrotation: bilious green vomit at 24 hours
Pyloric stenosis: milky vomit at 4 weeks
Intussusception: milky then green vomit at 6 months

644
Q

Acute asthma management?

A

Oxygen if needed, SABA, prendisolone 1mg/kg, IV salbutamol bolus, aminophylline/MgSO4/salbutamol infusion options